GI and Liver Flashcards

1
Q

What is the HABR?

A

Hepatic Artery Buffer Response

When portal flow decreases, hepatic arterial flow increases

and Vice Versa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a Phase 1 drug metabolism reaction in the liver?

A

Functionalization reactions, meaning the drug is exposed to or tagged with a functional group (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How are Phase 1 metabolic processes carried out?

A

Primarily by CYP450 enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a Phase 2 drug metabolism reaction?

A

Conjugation Reactions

The functional group added to the substrate in Phase 1 gets linked to something else (glucuronic acid, sulfate, glutathione, amino acid, acetate etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What’s the difference between parenchymal and obstructive liver dysfunction?

A

Parenchymal means there’s a problem with the liver itself (the parenchyma)

Obstructive means stuff isn’t getting out of the liver, causing the liver to malfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which three lab tests are used in the Child-Pugh classification system for liver failure?

A

Bilirubin

Albumin

PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do CO2 levels and pH impact hepatic circulation?

A

Hypercapnia and acidosis vasodilate hepatic circulation, increasing flow

Hypocapnia and alkalosis vasoconstrict hepatic circulation, decreasing flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What fluid and electrolyte imbalances are associated with liver disease?

A

Low Albumin

Sodium retention, but dilutional hyponatremia

Progressive decline in renal function

decreased free water clearance

hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cirrhotic cardiomyopathy is characterized by:

A

hyperdynamic circulation

elevated baseline CO

reduced peripheral vascular resistance

decreased ventricular response to stressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are NMBAs impacted by hepatic dysfunction?

A

They all have prolonged action because there is reduced production of the cholinesterases that break them down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acute cholelithiasis has a triad of symptoms:

A

Charcot’s Triad:

Fever and Chills

Jaundice

RUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Barrett’s esophagus?

A

damage to the esophageal epithelium leads to columnar cells replacing the normal squamous cells in the esophagus

Asymptomatic, but a risk factor for esophageal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gastric acid secretion is regulated by three stimuli:

A

acetylcholine, gastrin, and histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most acute pancreatitis is caused by one of two things:

A

Alcohol abuse or gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Are patients with acute pancreatitis usually hypo or hypervolemic?

Why?

A

Hypovolemic

They’re losing a lot of fluid into the peritoneum because of leaking capillary beds

They’re losing a lot fluid externally because of N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the classic diagnostic triad of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Steatorrhea

Pancreatic Calcification on Imaging

Diabetes

17
Q

How does the diabetes produced by chronic pancreatitis differ from Type 1 diabetes?

A

Both the insulin producing beta cells AND glucagaon producing alpha cells are injured

This means they’re very sensitive to insulin treatment because they can’t raise their own glucose levels

18
Q

Which inhaled anesthetic should be avoided in patients with inflammatory bowel disease?

19
Q

What medication prevents carcinoid syndrome from occurring in patients with carcinoid tumors?

A

Octreotide, which is synthetic somatostatin

20
Q

What is the hemodynamic response to insufflation?

A

Increased MAP, SVR, and HR

Decreased Stroke Volume

21
Q

How does high pressure insufflation impact the cardiac conduction system?

A

It causes ventricular electrical instability, increasing the risk of arrhythmias

22
Q

If there’s a sudden increase in PaCO2, EtCO2, decreased lung compliance or cardiac arrhythmias during insufflation, what should the anesthesia provider suspect?

A

Subcutaneous (vs. peritoneal) insufflation

It causes a much more rapid rise in CO2 levels and can cause LOTS of problems

23
Q

What lung protection strategies can be used for patients undergoing laparoscopic surgery to reduce the incidence of barotrauma?

A

Vt 6-8 ml/kg Predicated Body Weight

6-8 cm H2O PEEP

Alveolar recruitment maneuvers every 30 min

24
Q

What do most laparoscopic injuries occur?

A

During entry, but they’re often not found until several days later

25
Q

What is the appropriate management if a gas embolism is suspected?

A

Stop insufflation

Turn off Nitrous

Release the pneumoperitoneum

Flood the field with NS

Place the patient in L lateral (durant maneuver)

Aspirate the gas through a CVC if in place

Support hemodynamics with meds

26
Q

What is AION?

What causes it?

A

Anterior Ischemic Optic Neuropathy

occlusion or hypoperfusion of the anterior optic nerve

Cardia, vascular, and spine procedures

27
Q

What is PION?

What causes it?

A

Posterior Ischemic Optic Neuropathy

Infarction of the optic nerve posterior to the lamina

elevated venous pressures, increased IOP, and interstitial edema

prone and steep trendelenberg positions

28
Q

What are risk factors for POVL?

A

mal gender

obesity

prolonged anesthetic duration

High EBL

Low % of colloid in nonblood resuscitation

29
Q

Why do liver failure patients take Rifaximin?

A

It eliminates ammonia producing bacteria in the gut