GI Flashcards

1
Q

Which patients will benefit from PPI prophylaxis?

A

1) Burn Patients
2) Increased ICP
3) ICU (especially intubated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment for Acute pancreatitis?

A

IV fluids, NPO, & IV pain meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Free Air shows up as pure black outside an organ and is indicative of…..

A

Perforation

Endoscopy+ Peritonitis= Perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If you suspect gallstone pancreatitis, what is the 1st step in diagnosis?

A

Upper quadrant Ultrasound

if (+)–> ERCP to remove stone from common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How to find source of a brisk lower GI bleed?

A

Angiography of mesenteric vessels (IR intervention)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Patient w/ melana.. How to find source of bleed?

A

Start with EGD (allows for visualization, biopsy & intervention). NG tube is controversial (high false negative rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for gastroparesis?

A

Glycemic control & low volume high frequency meals that are low in fiber (easier to digest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When should colonoscopy be done for someone diagnosed with diverticulitis?

A

First time diagnosis of diverticulitis should be followed by colonoscopy between 2-6 weeks after diagnosis. Do colo too soon–> worsen perforation. Do it too late and miss colon cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Diagnosis for patient w/ hyperpigmented skin + diabetes - together with the cirrhosis?

A

bronze diabetes + cirrhosis = Hemochromatosis. HFE gene mutation–> no “off” signal for iron absorption in gut. Liver biopsy will show elevated hepatocyte iron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

GI bleed workup sequence:

A

1) First test= EGD
2) Brisk bleed= Angiography
3) Ongoing but NOT brisk bleed= Tagged RBC scan
4) Bleeding has stopped= Colonoscopy
5) Bleeding has stopped but you cannot find the source= pill cam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what test must be done before doing a nuclear emptying study?

A

You need to do EGD to make sure there isn’t a tumor, ulcer, or other lesion at the pylorus (mechanical obstruction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Crohns disease:

A

Chronic watery diarrhea
Skipped lesions anywhere in Gi tract- transmural inflammation
B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

C difficile treatment:

A

Nonsevere: Fidaxamicin PO or Vancomycin PO

Severe: Fidaxamicin PO or Vancomycin PO

Fulminant: Metronidazole IV and Vancomycin PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How to prevent esophageal dysplasia progressing to adenocarcinoma?

A

With low grade dysplasia we can go after endoscopic destruction (burning, clipping, radio-ablation) of the lesion to prevent progression to adenocarcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis illness script:

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis presents in middle age (40s-50s) and presents as a painless jaundice. It is caused by intrahepatic fibrosis of biliary ducts. It occurs in women. Imaging studies are negative (because it is intrahepatic, no obvious obstruction is seen). So if you see woman + 40s + jaundice + cirrhosis + normal biliary imaging, the diagnosis is made as primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is most associated with anti-mitochondrial antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which is the BEST test to confirm H. pylori eradication?

A

Stool antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis illness script

A

p-ANCA is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis. Look for a history of ulcerative colitis and then cirrhosis or an obstructive jaundice with an MRCP that reveals “beads-on-a-string.” This occurs in men.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (Lynch Syndrome)

A

Multiple generations of cancers that include lady cancers (uterus, ovary, breast) and colon cancer. Screen patient at 20-25 yrs or 10 years prior to the earliest colorectal cancer in the family.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What antibiotic should be given to patient with ascites and GI bleed?

A

In the setting of a GI bleed with ascites, the ascites has an increased risk of SBP and so ceftriaxone is given. This is done after stabilization. The acute hemorrhage and risk of death must be controlled, but somewhere in the first 12 hours prophylactic antibiotics against SBP are needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Boceprevir

A

Treatment for Hep C-Curing Hep C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gallbladder findings in Acute cholecystitis:

A

pericholecystic fluid, thickened gallbladder wall, and gallstones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MALToma treatment:

A

MALTomas are exquisitely sensitive to H. pylori treatment. Treatment of H. pylori can reverse the MALToma and cure the cancer. No resection, radiation, or chemotherapy is required (unless there is spread of the tumor outside of the intestinal tract). H. Pylori not only causes ulcerations but it also causes cancer. Treating the H. pylori cures the ulcers and it cures the cancer.

23
Q

If you suspect irritable bowel syndrome in patient rule out:

A

In patients in whom you suspect diarrhea-predominant irritable bowel syndrome, seek out a diagnosis of Celiac disease first.

24
Q

Gallbladder findings in choledocolithiasis:

A

Dilated common bile duct with stones in the gallbladder

25
Q

Alpha-1 Anti-Trypsin Deficiency:

A

A1-AT Deficiency presents in the 40s-60s with COPD and Cirrhosis. It is caused by the PAS + macrophages in the liver, a product of the protease that cannot be excreted by the liver, and so accumulates. Elastase in the lung goes uncorrected, leading to accelerated COPD. Protease granules in the liver cause inflammation, and lead to cirrhosis.

26
Q

Diagnosing Zollinger- Ellison Syndrome (gastrinoma):

A

Gastrinomas produce gastrin regardless of feedback from stomach acidity, leading to parietal cell hypertrophy, extremely low pH that breaks down the mucosal barrier, and puts the patient at risk for malignant transformation of the parietal cell (gastrin acts as both a stimulus for acid secretion and as a growth signal). The first step is an endoscopy to confirm ulceration. The next step is to obtain a serum gastrin level. A gastrin level > 1000 needs no confirmation. A gastrin level in the triple digits is confirmed with a secretin stimulation test which will reveal a paradoxical increase in gastrin levels on administration of secretin. The somatostatin receptor scintography and CT scan of the abdomen are used to identify the location of the tumor, often located in the pancreas. These tests would be done after the secretin stimulation test in order to stage the disease.

27
Q

Gallbladder findings in malignancy:

A

Thin-walled, distended gallbladder

28
Q

Management options for esophageal varices-TIPS procedure

A

The TIPS procedure bypasses the liver and just takes unfiltered blood from the portal system and dumps it back into the vena cava. This relieves the pressure but puts the patient at serious risk of hepatic encephalopathy. TIPS is performed when varices are refractory. Bridge to transplant

29
Q

Management options for esophageal varices: Octreotide

A

In the setting of a GI bleed every patient should get two large bore IVs, typed and cross, a GI consult for endoscopy, and a proton pump inhibitor infusion. If he/she is a cirrhotic, he/she should get octreotide as well. This reduces the portal pressures and the assumption is that the bleeding will slow.

30
Q

Management options for esophageal varices: endoscopic variceal banding

A

When portal hypertension causes increased pressure and volume within the superficial veins along the esophagus, they rupture. And unlike arteries, they don’t have muscles lining their walls to enable constriction and slow the bleeding. So, bleeding esophageal varices are the one cause of UGIB that will kill your patient in mere hours–> RUBBER BAND THEM

31
Q

Management options for esophageal varices: Ceftriaxone

A

When you have ascites and there is a GI bleed there must also be prophylaxis against spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. That is done with IV ceftriaxone.

32
Q

Gallbladder findings in cholelithiasis:

A

Gallstones in the gallbladder

33
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma screening:

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) screening is with Ultrasound and AFP, performed every 6 months, for patients with cirrhosis only. Otherwise no screening is needed.

34
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma screening in Hep B patients:

A

The screening guidelines for Hep B are much more aggressive than Hep C. Hep B is more oncogenic than Hep C and you can get HCC without cirrhosis from Hep B. So, start early (Asian males > 40, Asian woman > 50, or evidence of cirrhosis

35
Q

Painless bright red blood per rectum. This is a fast bleed.

A

most likely cause of a brisk lower GI bleed is diverticular hemorrhage and thus diverticulosis. The bleeding from hemorrhoids is often not sufficient to produce hematochezia and acute blood loss.

36
Q

Ulcerative colitis treatment:

A

Ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhea and tenesmus (recurrent inclination to evacuate the bowels).

Mild disease can be treated with 5-asa compounds alone.

Moderate disease and in flares: Prednisone

Cyclosporine is a toxic medication used when prednisone fails to control a flare.

Once there is severe disease, disease refractory to therapy, or it has been 8 years a colectomy can be performed.

37
Q

Screening guidelines for colon cancer in the setting of ulcerative colitis

A

Without prophylactic colectomy screening guidelines for colon cancer in the setting of ulcerative colitis are to start at 8 years from diagnosis and then get annual colonoscopies. Resection is curative of UC and prevent malignant transformation and is preferred.

38
Q

Celiac Sprue patient presentation:

A

Celiac Sprue can present as iron deficiency anemia, osteoporosis, or folate deficiency.

39
Q

Barrett’s Esophagus

A

Barrett’s Esophagus is a metaplasia with shift from the stratified squamous epithelium of the distal esophagus to columnar epithelium. It can be identified on endoscopy.

40
Q

Crohn’s disease treatment:

A

Fistulizing Crohn’s disease is severe and is treated with anti-TNF-alpha inhibitors like Infliximab for induction and maintenance.

Mild: mesalamine
flares: mesalamine and steroids

41
Q

Obstructive jaundice

A

Obstructive jaundice is either stricture or cancer; when the diagnosis is likely to be primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), obtain MRCP as the first test which will show beads-on-a-string

42
Q

When is CT scan used in pancreatitis?

A

Lipase elevations are sufficient to diagnose pancreatitis; CT scans are necessary only when there is clinical suspicion that is lacking enzymatic evidence.

43
Q

Antibiotics in pancreatitis :

A

No matter how severe the pancreatitis or how necrotizing the pancreatitis, do NOT give antibiotics until you’ve taken a piece of the pancreas. That means you treat literally every pancreatitis the same way: fluids, analgesia, bowel rest. If they start to get worse, spike fevers, etc. THEN you go and grab a piece with a biopsy and start antibiotics.

44
Q

diagnosis of caustic ingestion

A

An assessment for severity must be made early to determine how long the patient must be observed. If there is only mild erythema and mild ulcers, feedings can be initiated early. If severe, the patient may need to delay using his esophagus to prevent complications. Endoscopy is required to assess for severity.

45
Q

Severe C. diff treatment:

A

Treat severe C. diff with a combination of IV Metronidazole and oral vancomycin

46
Q

Biliary Cholestasis

A

characterized by an isolated elevation in the Direct Bilirubin and Alkaline Phosphatase in the setting of sepsis (or other inflammatory condition). absence of gallstones on ultrasounds rules them out, leaving you with cholestasis.

47
Q

Ulcerative Colitis (UC)

A

Only involves Colon

Crypt abscesses

Pseudopolyps

(+) Antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies (ANCA)

48
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

Can involve any part of GI tract (skip lesions)

Transmural noncaseating granulomas

Fistulas and abscesses masses and obstruction, and perianal disease

49
Q

Sigmoid volvulus

A
  • Progressive or acute abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting
  • Diagnosis made with plain film, which will show a double loop or coffee bean sign
50
Q

Anorectal fistula

A

Epithelized tract that connects the anus or rectum to the perirectal skin

Pain and purulent drainage in the absence of a fever are associated with an anorectal fistula

If fever it’s probably perianal abscess

51
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis

A

Unknown etiology

Serum aminotransferase levels 200-300U/L range

Dx: Anti-smooth muscle antibodies

52
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome treatment

A

Form of liver disease caused by the obstruction of hepatic venous outflow by thrombosis.

Acute-onset abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatomegaly

Tx: Unfractionated heparin infusion

53
Q

Diarrhea and metabolic dysfunction

A

Non-anion gap Metabolic acidosis

54
Q

Vomiting/ Emesis

A

Metabolic alkalosis

Usually with alveolar hypoventilation