GI 8 Flashcards

1
Q

What may visceral pain present?

A
  • Pain receptors respond to mechanical and chemical stimuli, such a stretching, tension and ishaemia
  • Dull, poorly localised, central
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2
Q

What are the three broad anatomical areas with association to visceral pain?

A

1) Foregut - middle - stomach/pancreas
2) Midgut - suprapubic - small intestine
3) Hindgut - lower abdomen - colon

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3
Q

How does somato-parietal pain present?

A
  • This pain is characterised by sharp, more intense and more localised sensation
  • Movement may aggravate -> patient will lay still
  • Results from inflammation, stretching or tearing of the parietal peritoneum
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4
Q

What is referred pain?

A
  • Well localised pain felt in distant areas of the same cutaneous dermatome as the effected organ
  • It occurs when organs share common nerve pathway
  • e.g. GB pain felt in right shoulder
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5
Q

What exclusions must be made immediately in the case of an acute abdomen admission?

A
  • Pancreatitis

- Abdominal aortic aneurysms

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6
Q

What are the 6F’s that describe possible origins of abdominal masses?

A

1) Fat
2) Faeces
3) Fluid
4) Flatus
5) Foetus
6) Fatal growth

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7
Q

What are the different locations for a hernia?

A
  • Epigastric hernia
  • Paraumbilical hernia
  • Umbilical hernia
  • Inguinal hernia
  • Femoral hernia
  • Incisional hernia
  • Spigelian hernia
  • Lumbar hernia
  • Parastomal hernia
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8
Q

What is a hernia?

A

An abnormal protrusion of a cavity’s contents through a weakness in the wall of the cavity

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9
Q

How do haemorrhoids present?

A
  • Painless bleeding
  • Fresh, bright red blood, not mixed with stool, usually on paper
  • Perianal itchiness
  • No change in bowel habits, or weight loss, no associated symptoms
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10
Q

What are the investigations for haemorrhoids?

A
  • PR examination
  • Rigid sigmoidoscopy
  • Proctoscopy
  • Flexible sigmoidoscopy in patients above age of 50
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11
Q

What is the classical management for haemorrhoids?

A
  • Symptomatic
  • Sclerosation therapy with 5% phenol in almond oil
  • Rubber band ligation
  • Open haemorrhoidectomy
  • Stapled haemorrhoidectomy
  • HALO/THD procedure
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12
Q

What is rectal prolapse?

A

in which the rectum (the last part of the large intestine before it exits the anus) loses its normal attachments inside the body, allowing it to telescope out through the anus, thereby turning it “inside out”

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13
Q

How does rectal prolapse present?

A
  • Protruding mass from anus especially during defecation
  • May reduce spontaneously
  • Bleeding and passing mucus per rectum is common
  • Examination usually shows poor anal tone
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14
Q

What is the management for complete rectal prolapse?

A
  • Many patients too frail for surgery – bulking agent and education on manual reduction
  • Delorme’s procedure
  • Perineal rectopexy
  • Abdominal rectopexy
  • Anterior resection
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15
Q

What is the management for partial rectal prolapse?

A
  • In children – dietary advice and treatment of constipation

- In adults – treatment similar to that of haemorrhoids

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16
Q

What is an anal fissure?

A
  • Tear in the anal margin due to passage of a constipated stool
  • Usually in the midline posteriorly but may be occasionally anterior
  • Multiple fissure may be due to Crohn’s disease
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17
Q

How does an anal fissure present?

A
  • Acute onset of severe anal pain usually following episode of constipation
  • “Glass passing through the back passage”
  • Pain lasts for up to ½ h after defecation
  • Bright rectal bleeding
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18
Q

What is the treatment for an anal fissure?

A
  • Dietary advice, stool softeners
  • Pharmacological sphyncterotomy (0.3% GTN ointment, 2% Diltiazem ointment), PR for 6/52
  • Lateral sphyncterotomy
  • Botox injection
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19
Q

What is an anal fistula?

A
  • Abnormal communication between two epithelial surfaces
  • There is an internal opening in the anal canal and one or more external openings on the peri-anal skin
  • Also rarely caused by Crohn’s disease, tuberculosis and carcinoma
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20
Q

How does an anal fistula usually present?

A
  • Majority arise from delay in treatment, or inadequate treatment of anorectal abscess
  • Could have Crohn’s disease, carcinoma or TB as a underlying pathology
21
Q

What are the investigations for an anal fistula?

A
  • EUA of anorectum
  • Rigid sigmoidoscopy, proctoscopy
  • Flexible sigmoidoscopy
  • MRI
22
Q

What is the management for an anal fistula?

A
  • Laying open
  • Two stage procedure
  • Insertion of Seton (draining, cutting)
  • LIFT procedure
  • Glue/permacol
  • Defunctioning colostomy
23
Q

What are the cardiovascular complications of surgery?

A
  • Haemorrhage
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Deep vein thrombosis
24
Q

What are the respiratory complications of surgery?

A
  • Atelectasis
  • Pneumonia
  • Pulmonary embolus (PE)
25
Q

What are the GI complications of surgery?

A
  • Ileus
  • Anastomotic dehiscense
  • Adhesions
26
Q

What are the investigations for cholecystitis/biliary colic?

A
  • First-line: USS

- Further clarification with MRCP &/or ERCP

27
Q

What are the investigations for a suspected perforation?

A
  • First line: erect chest x-ray

- Additionally CT scan

28
Q

What is the first-line investigation for suspected appendicitis?

A

First line: USS

29
Q

What is the first-line investigation for diverticulitis?

A

A CT scan

30
Q

What is the first-line investigation for a distended abdomen?

A
  • Suspected bowel cause -> abdominal x-ray (small bowel obstruct, large bowel obstruct or ileus)
  • CT scan may delineate cause
  • Suspected fluid cause -> USS
31
Q

What are the investigations for haematemesis?

A
  • Endoscopy
  • CT with IV contrast
  • +/- angiography & intervention
32
Q

What are the investigations for dysphagia?

A
  • Endoscopy
  • Fluoroscopic studies
  • Barium or water soluble contrast
33
Q

What are the investigations for changes in bowel habit?

A
  • Barium enema
  • or CT virtual Colonography
  • (if IBD -> endoscopy)
  • (if Crohn’s -> MRI)
34
Q

What are the investigations for jaundice?

A
  • First-line: USS

- MRCP +/- ERCP

35
Q

What is the recall period?

A

Time in between screening investigations

36
Q

What is acute liver disease?

A
  • Defined as the rapid development of hepatic dysfunction without prior liver disease
  • Any insult to the liver causing damage in previously normal liver
  • Causing encephalopathy and prolonged coagulation
37
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A
  • Protein metabolism
  • Carbohydrate metabolism
  • Lipid metabolism
  • Bile acid metabolism
  • Bilirubin metabolism
  • Hormone and Drug metabolism
  • Immunological defence
38
Q

What are the clinical features of acute liver disease?

A
  • No symptoms
  • Abnormal LFT’s
  • Jaundice
  • Lethargy
  • Nausea
  • Anorexia
  • Pain
  • Itch
  • Arthralgia
39
Q

What are the common causes of acute liver disease?

A
  • Viral A,B,C,D,E,CMV EBV & Toxoplasmosis
  • Drugs
  • Shock liver
  • Cholangitis
  • Alcohol
  • Malignancy
  • Chronic Liver Disease
  • Ask about Paracetamol
40
Q

What are the rare causes of acute liver disease?

A
  • Budd Chiari
  • Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP)
  • Cholestasis of Pregnancy
41
Q

What are the investigations for acute liver disease?

A
  • LFT’S (including Albumin & Bilirubin, prothrombin time)
  • Ultra-sound including vascular
  • Virology
  • Investigations of chronic liver disease
  • RARELY liver biopsy
42
Q

What is the treatment for acute liver disease?

A
  • Rest, up to 3 months for recovery may be 6 months
  • Fluids, NO alcohol
  • Increase calories, high fat foods poorly tolerated
  • For itch – sodium bicarbonate bath, cholestyramine or Ursodeoxycholic acid
  • Observation for Fulminant Hepatic Failure (FHF)
43
Q

What is fulminant hepatic failure?

A

An acute episode of severe liver dysfunction (encephalopathy and jaundice) in a patient with a previously normal liver

44
Q

What are the common causes of fulminant hepatic failure?

A
  • Paracetamol
  • Fulminant viral
  • Drugs
  • HBV
  • Non A-E
45
Q

What are the rare causes of fulminant hepatic failure?

A
  • AFLP
  • Mushrooms
  • Malignancy
  • Wilsons
  • Budd Chiari
  • HAV
46
Q

What are the clinical complications of fulminant hepatic failure?

A
  • Encephalopathy
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Coagulopathy
  • Circulatory failure
  • Renal failure
  • Infection
47
Q

What are the first steps to take in fulminant hepatic failure?

A
  • Exclude cirrhosis, alcohol-induced liver injury or malignant infiltration
  • Early discussions with transplant centre
  • Screen intensively for hepatic encephalopathy
  • Determine aetiology
  • Transfer to a specialized unit early
48
Q

What is the treatment for fulminant hepatic failure?

A
  • Supportive
  • Inotropes & Fluids
  • Renal replacement
  • Management of raised ICP
  • Transplantation