GI Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is preparing a community education program about hepatitis B. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. “A hepatitis B immunization is recommended for those who travel, especially military personnel.”

B “ A hepatitis B immunization is given to infants and children.”

C. Hepatitis B is acquired by eating foods that are contaminated during handling.”

D. “Hepatitis B can be prevented by using good personal hygiene habits and proper sanitation.”

A

B. Hep B immune globulin is given as part of the standard childhood immunizations. It can be administered as early as birth, especially in infants born to Hep B surface antigen (HBsAg) negative mothers. These infants should receive the second dose between 1 and 4 months of age.

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2
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who was admitted with a bowel obstruction. The client reports severe abdominal pain. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that a possible bowel perforation has occurred?

A. Elevated BP

B. Bowel sounds increased in frequency and pitch

C. Rigid abdomen

D. Emesis of undigested food

A

C. Rigid Abdomen

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3
Q

Abdominal tenderness and rigidity occur with a bowel perforation. As fluid escapes into the peritoneal cavity, there is a ______ in circulating blood volume and a lowered bp, or hypotension, results.

A

reduction

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4
Q

Bowel sounds are _____ with a bowel perforation.

A

silent

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5
Q

Intestinal peristalsis increases in ______ and intensity as the bowel attempts to move intestinal contents past the obstructed area.

A

frequency

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6
Q

______ is frequent and copious with a small bowel obsturction. This does not indicate bowel performation.

A

vomiting

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7
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to undergo an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). The nurse should identify that this procedure is used to do which of the following?

A. To visualize polyps in the colon

B. To detect an ulceration in the stomach

C. To identify an obstruction in the biliary tract

D. To determine the presence of free air in the abdomen

A

B. To detect an ulceration in the stomach

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8
Q

A _________ or barium enema is used to visualize the lower gi tract, where polyps are found.

A

sigmoidoscopy

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9
Q

Identifying an obstruction in the ______ is performed during endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).

A

biliary tract

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10
Q

The measurement of free air, which is a gas, is obtained using ______ or an x-ray.

A

fluoroscopy

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11
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) therapy and has just returned to the room following physical therapy. The nurse notes that the infusion pump for the client’s TPN is turned off. After restarting the infusion pump, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings?

A. Hypertension

B. Excessive thirst

D. Fever

D. Diaphoresis

A

Diaphoresis

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12
Q

The nurse should recognize that the client has the potential for the development of ________ due to the sudden withdrawal of the TPN solution. In addition to diaphoresis, other potential manifestations of hypoglycemia can include weakness, anxiety, ______, and hunger.

A

hypoglycemia

confusion

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13
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who is in the early stages of hepatitis A. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

A. jaundice

B. Anorexia

C. Dark urine

E. Pale feces

A

B. Anorexia

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14
Q

Jaundice is a late manifestation of _______.

A

hepatitis A

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15
Q

Anorexia is an early manifestation of hepatitis A and is often _______. It is though to result from the release of a toxin by the ______ liver or by the failure of the damaged liver cells to detoxify an abnormal product.

A

severe

damaged

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16
Q

Dark urine is a late manifestation of ________.

A

hepatitis A

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17
Q

Pale feces is a late manifestation of _______.

A

hepatitis A

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18
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing perforation of a peptic ulcer. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

A. Increased BP
B. Decreased HR
C. Yellowing of the skin
D. Boardlike abdomen

A

D. Boardlike abdomen

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19
Q

The nurse should expect a client who has ______ disease to exhibit jaundice, or yellowing of the skin.

A

liver

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20
Q

The nurse should expect the client who is experiencing perforation of a peptic ulcer to exhibit manifestations of ______, including tachycardia.

A

shock

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21
Q

The nurse should expect the client who is experiencing perforation of a peptic ulcer to exhibit manifestations of shock, including _______.

A

hypotension

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22
Q

The nurse should expect the client who is experiencing perforation of a peptic ulcer to exhibit manifestations of a boardlike abdomen and severe pain in the abdomen or back that radiates to the ________.

A

right shoulder

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23
Q

The nurse should expect the client who is experiencing perforation of a peptic ulcer can experience hemorrhaging that results in ______ and shock.

A

vomiting of blood

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24
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following serum lab values should the nurse anticipate returning to the expected reference range within 72 hours after treatment begins?

A. Aldolase
B. Lipase
C. Amylase
D. Lactic dehydrogenase

A

C. Amylase

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25
Q

Elevated aldolase levels are caused by inflammation of the muscles, also known as ______. The levels of aldolase are not affected by pancreatic disorders.

A

myositis

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26
Q

Lipase levels in clients who have pancreatitis increase after a rise in serum amylase and stay elevated for up to _______ longer than amylase.

A

14 days

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27
Q

Pancreatitis is the most common diagnosis for marked elevations in ________.

A

serum amylase

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28
Q

Serum amylase begins to increase about 3 to 6 hr following the onset of acute pancreatitis. The amylase level peaks in ____ to _____ and returns to the expected reference range within 2 to 3 days.

A

20 to 30 hr.

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29
Q

_________ increases are typically seen in clients who have anemia, leukemia, or liver damage.

A

Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)

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30
Q

A community health nurse is planning an educational program about hepatitis A. When preparing the materials, the nurse should identify that which of the following groups is most at risk for developing hepatitis A?

A. Children
B. Older Adults
C. Women who are pregnant
D. Middle aged men

A

A. Children

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31
Q

Typically, a child or young adult acquires the the hepatitis A infection at school, through poor hygiene, ______ contact, or another form of close contact.

A

hand to mouth

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32
Q

______ are not often affected by or at risk for developing hep A.

A

Older adults

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33
Q

Women who are pregnant and ________ men are not often affected by or at risk for developing hep A.

A

middle-aged

34
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has Barrett’s esophagus and is scheduled to undergo an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. This procedure is perfoemed to measure the presence of acid in your esophagus.

B. This procedure can determine how well the lower part of your esophagus works.

C. This procedure is performed while you are under general anesthesia.

This procedure can determine if you have colon cancer.

A

B.

35
Q

A _______, which involves the insertion of a specially designed probe into the distal esophagus, is performed to monitor for the presence of acid in the normally alkaline esophagus.

A

pH probe study

36
Q

An EGD is useful in determining the function of the esophageal lining and the extent of inflammation, _____, and strictures.

A

potential scarring

37
Q

An EGD is performed while the client receives moderate _______.

A

sedation

38
Q

A colonscopy is performed to detect ______.

A

colon cancer

39
Q

A nurse is completing a history and physical assessment for a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a likely cause of the client’s condition?

A. High cal diet
B. Prior gastrointestinal illnesses
C. Tobacco use
D. Alcohol use

A

D. Alcohol use

40
Q

A prior gi illness does not cause or contribute to ______.

A

chronic pancreatitis

41
Q

Tobacco use can contribute to heart disease and increases the risk of _____ development, but it does not cause chronic pancreatitis.

A

cancer

42
Q

Long-term alcohol use disorder produces hypersecretion of protein in pancreatic ducts. The result is ______ and calculi within the pancreatic ducts. Alcohol also has a direct toxic effect on the cells of the pancreas. Damage to these cells is more likely to occur and to be more severe in clients whose diets are poor in _____ content and either very high or very low in fat.

A

protein plugs

protein

43
Q

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has bleeding esophageal varices. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

A. Famotidine
B. Esomeprazle
C. Vasopressin
D. Omeprazole

A

Vasopressin

44
Q

Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used to treat _______.

A

stress ulcers

45
Q

Esomeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat ______.

A

gi reflux disease

46
Q

Vasopressin constricts the _______ and decreases portal pressure. Vasopressin also constricts the distal esophageal and proximal gastric veins, which reduces inflow into the _______ and is used to treat bleeding varices.

A

splanchnic bed

portal system

47
Q

________ is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat duodenal and gastric ulcers.

A

Omeprazole

48
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is schedule to undergo a liver biopsy for a suspected malignancy. Which of the following lab findings should the nurse monitor prior to the procedure?

A. Prothrombin time
B. Serum lipase
C. Bilirubin
D. Calcium

A

A. Prothrombin time

49
Q

Serum lipase is monitored to detect ________ and does not need to be monitored prior to this procedure.

A

pancreatic disease

50
Q

A major complication following a liver biopsy is _______.

A

hemorrhage

51
Q

Many clients who have liver disease have clotting defects and are at risk for _____. Along with the prothrombin time (PT), the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and the ____ count should be monitored.

A

bleeding

platelet

52
Q

Liver dysfunction causes the production of blood clotting factors to be _______, which leads to an increased incidence of bruising, nosebleeds, bleeding from wounds, and gi bleeding. This is due to deficient absorption of ______ from the gi tract caused by the inability of liver cells to use vitamin K to make prothrombin.

A

decreased

vitamin K

53
Q

Serum ______ is monitored to detect pancreatic disease and does not need to be monitored prior to a liver biopsy.

A

lipase

54
Q

______ is monitored to detect biliary obstruction.

A

bilirubin

55
Q

Calcium is monitored to detect _____ or pancreatitis and does not need to be monitored prior to this procedure.

A

kidney failure

56
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has fulminant hepatic failure. Which of the following procedures should the nurse anticipate for this client?

A. Endoscopic sclerotherapy
B. Liver lobectomy
C. Liver transplant
D. Transjugular intrahepatic portal systemic shunt placement

A

C. Liver transplant

57
Q

Endoscopic sclerotherapy is the injection of a sclerotherapy agent during endoscopy to target _______ that are actively bleeding. This promotes thrombosis, which eventually leads to sclerosis.

A

esophageal varices

58
Q

A _______ is used for a client who has localized cancer of a lobe of the liver. This is not appropriate for a client experiencing rapidly progressive liver failure.

A

liver lobectomy

59
Q

A transjugular intraphepatic portal systemic shunt is placed to treat esophageal varies through placement of a stent into the _______. The stent serves as a shunt between the portal circulation and the ________, thereby reducing portal hypertension.

A

portal vein

hepatic vein

60
Q

Fulminant hepatic failure, most often caused by _______, is characterized by the development of hepatic encephalopathy within weeks of the onset of disease in a client without prior evidence of hepatic dysfunction.

A

viral hepatitis

61
Q

Mortality remains high with fulminant hepatic failure, even with treatment modalities s such as blood or plasma exchanges, charcoal hemoperfusion, and ______. Consequently, liver transplantation has become the treatment of choice for these clients.

A

corticosteroids

62
Q

A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has diverticulitis about preventing acute attacks. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

A. Foods high in vitamin C
B. Foods low in fat
C. Foods high in fiber
D. Foods low in calories

A

Foods high in fiber

63
Q

Low fat foods do not improve or prevent acute _______ attacks.

A

diverticulitis

64
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has celiac disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse remove from the client’s meal tray?

A. wheat toast
B. Tapioca pudding
C. Hard-boiled egg
D. Mashed potatoes

A

A. wheat toast

65
Q

_______ disease is an autoimmune disorder characterized by a permanent intolerance to wheat, barley, and rye.

A

Celiac

66
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is dehydrated and is receiving continuous tube feeding through a pump at 75 mL/hr. When the nurse assesses the client at 0800, which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?

A. a full pitcher of water is sitting on the client’s bedside table w/in the client’s reach

B. The disposable feeding bag is from the previous day at 1000 and contains 200 mL of feeding

C. The client is lying on the right side with a visible dependent loop in the feeding tube

D. The HOB is elevated 20.

A

D. The HOB is elevated 20.

67
Q

The HOB should be elevated at least ______ when receiving continuous tube feeding through a pump. The position uses gravity to help the feeding move down through the digestive system and lessens the possibility of regurgitation.

A

30 (semi-Fowler’s position)

68
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hr postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. right shoulder pain
B. urine output 20 mL/hr
C. Temperature 38.4 C (101.1)
D. Oxygen saturation 92%

A

A. right shoulder pain
* due to gas (carbon dioxide) injected into the abdominal cavity during the laparoscopic procedure, which can irritate the diaphragm and cause referred pain in the shoulder. Will disappear in 1 to 2 days.

69
Q

Urine output following surgery should be at least ______ mL/hr. Less than this amount can indicate hypovolemia or renal complications and should be reported to the provider immediately.

A

30 mL/hr

70
Q

A temperature greater than _____ can indicate infection and should be reported to the provider immediately.

A

101.1F or 38.4 C

71
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of cirrhosis and is admitted with manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following lab tests to determine the possibility of recent excessive alcohol use?

A. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
B. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
C. Serum bilirubin
D. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

A

A. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)

72
Q

The GGT lab test is specific to the ______ in which levels can be raised by alcohol and hepatotoxic drugs. This is useful for monitoring drug toxicity and excessive alcohol use.

A

hepatobiliary system

73
Q

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is elevated in biliary obsturction and most forms of _______.

A

liver dysfunction

74
Q

The serum bilirubin test is used to detect the function of the liver and its ability to ______. Elevated levels can determine liver disease or biliary tract disease.

A

excrete bilirubin

75
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube and is receiving intermittent feedings. Prior to initiating the feeding, which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. flush the tube with water
B. Place the client in semi-fowlers position
C. cleanse the skin around the tube site
D. aspirate the tube for residual contents

A

B. Place the client in semi-Fowler’s position

76
Q

A client receiving PEG tube feedings should have the tube thoroughly _____.

A

flushed

77
Q

Prior to each PEG feeding, the PEG tube should be ______ for residual gastric contents from the previous feeding.

A

aspirated

78
Q

A client who has a PEG tube requires frequent observation and ______ hygiene at the insertion site to prevent breakdown and irritation.

A

good skin

79
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following a gastric bypass. The nurse notes that bowel sounds are present. Which of the following foods should the nurse provide at the initial feeding?

A. vanilla pudding
B. apple juice
C. diet ginger ale
D. clear liquids

A

D. clear liquids

80
Q

Clear liquids after bypass surgery should be given for the first feedings, but should be limited to only _____ per feeding.

A

30 mL ( 1 oz)

81
Q

After a gastric bypass the client should avoid ______ because they can distend the stomach, causing pressure on the internal sutures or staples. Pressure can cause leaking into the peritoneum resulting in peritonitis.

A

carbonated verages

82
Q

After a gastric bypass the client should avoid things such as apple juice can cause —— due to hyperosmolarity.

A

diarrhea