Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GI > GI 2 - liver + co. > Flashcards

GI 2 - liver + co. Flashcards

1
Q

list 4 causes of acute pancreatitis

A 
GET SMASHED
Gallstones
Ethanol (alcohol)
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps/Malignancy
Autoimmune
Scorpion venom
Hyperlipidaemia, hypothermia, hypercalcaemia
ERCP and emboli
Drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe the pain of acute pancreatitis

A

gradual or sudden severe epigastric/central abdominal pain, radiates to back, may be relieved by sitting forward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

give 3 symptoms and signs of acute pancreatitis

A

pain, vomiting.
tachycardia, fever, jaundice, shock, ileus, rigid abdomen ± local tenderness.
Cullen’s and Grey Turner’s signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are Cullen’s and Grey Turner’s signs? what causes them?

A

Cullen’s = periumbilical bruising
Grey Turner’s = bruising of flanks.
due to blood vessel autodigestion and retroperitoneal haemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what 2 enzymes would you test for in acute pancreatitis? what would the results be?

A

serum amylase - raised.

serum lipase - raised (more sensitive/specific).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what investigations would you carry out in acute pancreatitis?

A

serum amylase and lipase.

ABG. CT. AXR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

give 3 criteria in the Modified Glasgow criteria for predicting severity of pancreatitis

A 
PANCREAS:
PaO2 low
Age >55yrs
Neutrophilia
Calcium - low
Renal function
Enzymes
Albumin
Sugar (blood glucose)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how would you medically manage an acute pancreatitis patient?

A

Nil by mouth / NG tube.
pethidine (antispasmodic), tramadol (pain relief).
prophylactic abx, treat underlying cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

give 2 early and 2 late possible complications of acute pancreatitis

A

early:
shock, ARDS, renal failure, DIC, sepsis, hypocalcaemia.
late:
pancreatic necrosis, abscesses, bleeding, thrombosis, fistulae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

explain the pathology of chronic pancreatitis

A

inappropriate activation of enzymes within the pancreas - leads to precipitation of protein plugs within duct lumen - forms a point for calcification - duct blockage - ductal hypertension + pancreatic damage - pancreatic inflammation + impaired function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

give 3 causes of chronic pancreatitis

A

alcohol, tropical chronic pancreatitis, hereditary, autoimmune, cystic fibrosis, haemachromatosis, pancreatic duct obstruction (stones/tumour), hyperparathyroidism, congenital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

give 3 clinical features of chronic pancreatitis

A

epigastric pain boring through to back - relieved by sitting forward or hot water bottles on epigastrium/back.
bloating, steatorrhoea, weight loss, brittle diabetes,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what would you expect serum pancreatic enzymes levels to be in chronic pancreatitis?

A

amylase and lipase are normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what investigations would you run in chronic pancreatitis?

A

ultrasound + CT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how would you treat a patient with chronic pancreatitis?

A

NSAIDs and tramdol for abdo pain (amitriptyline for more chronic episodes).
lipase + fat-soluble vit supplements.
no alcohol, low fat diet.

surgery if pain can’t be controlled, or there’s weight loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

give 2 possible complications of pancreatitis?

A

pseudocyst, diabetes, biliary obstruction, local arterial aneurysm, splenic vein thrombosis, gastric varices, pancreatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe the 3 different types of gallstones and their causes

A

pigment stones - small, friable, irregular - haemolysis.
cholesterol stones - large, often solitary - age, obesity, female sex.
mixed stones - faceted (calcium salts, pigment and cholesterol).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the 2 risk factors for gallstones become symptomatic?

A

smoking and parity (having given birth).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how does acute cholecystitis develop from an obstruction?

A

obstruction to gall bladder emptying - increased glandular secretion in gall bladder - distension and inflammatory response to retained bile, leads to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what special test would you do on examination to confirm cholecystitis?

A

Murphy’s sign - 2 fingers over RUQ + ask patient to breathe in - causes pain and arrest of inspiration as inflamed gallbladder hits your fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how would you differentiate the pain of biliary colic from cholecystitis?

A

cholecystitis features an inflammatory component - local peritonism, fever, high WCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the clinical features of acute cholecystitis?

A

epigastric/RUQ pain, referred to R shoulder.

vomiting, fever, local peritonism, possibly a gallbladder mass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what investigations would you perform in cholecystitis?

A

ultrasound - thick walled, shrunken gallbladder, pericholecystic fluid, stones, common bile duct dilation.
FBC (high WCC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how would you treat cholecystitis?

A

nil by mouth, analgesia, IV fluids.
cefuroxime.
laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

describe the clinical features of chronic cholecystitis

A

chronic inflammation ± colic.

flatulent dyspepsia - vague abdo discomfort, distension, nausea, flatulence and fat intolerance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describe the pain of biliary colic

A

severe, constant, increasing pain in RUQ, can radiate to right shoulder/scapula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how would you tell that a gallstone had moved to obstruct the common bile duct?

A

obstructive jaundice and cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the triad of symptoms for acute cholangitis?

A

Charcot’s triad - jaundice, fever, biliary colic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what structure is being obstructed by gallstones if a patient has developed acute cholangitis?

A

common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the gold standard investigation in cholangitis?

A

transabdominal ultrasound - measure CBD dilatation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how would you treat acute cholangitis?

A

laparoscopic cholecystectomy with IV abx - cefuroxime and metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

list 3 complications of gallstones

A

in gallbladder and cystic duct:
biliary colic, acute and chronic cholecystitis, mucocoele, empyema, carcinoma, Mirizzi’s syndrome.
in bile ducts:
obstructive jaundice, cholangitis, pancreatitis.
in gut:
gallstone ileus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is jaundice?

A

yellowing of the skin, sclerae and mucosae due to increased plasma bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

give 3 causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (pre-hepatic jaundice)

A

haemolysis - malaria, DIC.
ineffective erythropoiesis.
impaired hepatic uptake - drugs (contrast agents, rifampicin), RHF.
impaired conjugation - Gilbert’s syndrome, Crigler-Najjar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what will the urine and faeces look like in conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (hepatic/post-hepatic jaundice)? why?

A 
urine = dark - conjugated bilirubin is soluble, so excreted in urine.
Faeces = pale - less conjugated bilirubin enters gut.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

give 3 causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia due to hepatocellular dysfunction

A 
viruses - hep, CMV, EBC.
drugs - paracetamol od, isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, statins, sodium valproate.
alcohol.
cirrhosis.
liver metastases/abscesses.
haemachromatosis.
autoimmune hepatitis.
septicaemia.
syphilis.
alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency.
Budd-Chiari.
Wilson's disease.
Right heart failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

give 3 causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia due to impaired hepatic excretion (cholestatic / obstructive jaundice)

A

primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, drugs, common bile duct gallstones, pancreatic cancer, compression of the bile duct, choledochal cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how is hepatitis A spread? what are the risk factors?

A

faecal-oral route.

poor sanitation, overcrowding, contaminated food/water. (fish in sewagey water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what would you find when looking at viral markers for hepatitis A? what other blood test would you perform?

A

Anti-HAV IgM (acute) and IgG (raised for life - carrier).

LFTs - AST/ALT are raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how would you treat hepatitis A?

A

supportive treatment - self-limiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how would you prevent hepatitis A?

A

passive and active immunisation (inactivated protein) and good hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what type of virus is hep A?

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

give 3 symptoms of hep A as well as 2 later signs

A

symptoms: fever, malaise, anorexia, nausea, arthralgia.

later signs - jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what type of virus is hep B?

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how is hep B spread?

A

blood products - vertical transmission, IVDU, found in semen and saliva - sexual/direct contact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

name 3 of the at-risk groups for hep B

A

IVDUs, their sexual partners/carers, health workers, haemophiliacs, job exposure to blood (morticians), haemodialysis patients, sexual promiscuity, foster carers, staff/residents of institutions/prisons, babies of +ve mothers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are the clinical features of hep B?

A

resembles hep A - fever, malaise etc - plus arthralgia and urticaria (hives).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what antiviral agents would you give to treat a chronic HBV infection? what would you monitor?

A

interferon alpha, lamivudine, adefovir.

monitor HBV levels and platelets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

describe how vaccination is used in hep B

A

passive immunisation is given to non-immune contacts after high-risk exposure.
Hep B vaccine given (UK) to children born to +ve mothers, chronic liver patients, haemophilia patients, offered as a travel vaccine, and to healthworkers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

list 2 possible complications of hepatitis B

A

cirrhosis, HCC, fulminant hepatic failure, cholangiocarcinoma, cryoglobulinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what type of virus is hep C?

A

RNA flavivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how is hep C transmitted and can the spread be prevented?

A

blood products, mainly IVDU (also transfusions, sexual etc)

Can’t prevent spread - vaccination impossible due to rapid change of proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what haematological disorder is associated with hep C?

A

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

give 3 risk factors for progression of hepatitis C to cirrhosis

A

male, older, higher viral load, alcohol use, HIV, HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what viral markers would you look for in hepatitis C at 8 weeks?

A

HCV RNA at 8weeks.

56
Q

if you took a liver biopsy of a hepatitis C patient, what might you see?

A

lymphoid follicles in portal tracts and fatty change

57
Q

how would you treat a chronic infection with hepatitis C? what major problem should be noted about one of the drugs?

A

serine protease inhibitors (boceprevir, telaprevir) - directly acting antivirals against genotype 1 HCV.
combine with:
interferon alpha.
ribavirin - very teratogenic.

58
Q

give 3 possible complications of hepatitis C

A

glomerulonephritis, cryoglobulinaemia, thyroiditis, autoimmune hepatitis, PAN, polymyositis, porphyria cutanea tarda

59
Q

what other virus is needed for hep D to infect someone? why?

A

hep B.

hep D is an incomplete RNA that needs hep B for assembly.

60
Q

how can hepatitis D be prevented?

A

hep B vaccine

61
Q

how can you test for hepatitis D?

A

test for anti-HDV antibody

62
Q

what can hep D cause?

A

acute liver failure/cirrhosis

63
Q

how can you treat a hep D infection?

A

may need liver transplant as interferon alpha has limited success.

64
Q

what type of virus is hep E? what infection is it similar to?

A

RNA.

hep A.

65
Q

how is hep E transmitted?

A

enterally - contaminated water.

66
Q

what can you detect in blood and stools to confirm a diagnosis of hep E?

A

hep E RNA

67
Q

what collagen type is deposited in the liver in cirrhosis?

A

type 1 and 3

68
Q

what is the difference between macro and micronodular cirrhosis?

A

macronodular - variable nodule size, normal acini within, tends to follow hepatitis.
micronodular - uniform involvement of liver and regenerating nodules

69
Q

if there was alpha-fetoprotein present in the serum of a cirrhosis patient, what would you suspect to be the cause of their cirrhosis?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

70
Q

what medications should be avoided when treating cirrhosis?

A

NSAIDs, opiates, sedatives

71
Q

list 3 causes of cirrhosis

A

*chronic alcohol abuse.
*HBV or HCV infection
haemachromatosis
alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
Budd-Chiari
non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
autoimmune - primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis.
drugs - amiodarone, methyldopa, methotrexate.

72
Q

give 3 clinical features of cirrhosis

A 
pruritus
jaundice
raised LFTs
leuconchyia
Terry's nails
clubbing
palmar erythema
hyperdynamic circulation
Dupuytren's circulation
spider naevia
xanthelasma
gynaecomastia
atrophic testes
loss of body hair
parotid enlargement
hepatomegaly
73
Q

list 3 possible complications of cirrhosis

A

hepatic failure - coagulopathy, encephalopathy, hypoalbuminaemia, sepsis, SBP, hypogylcaemia.
portal hypertension - ascites, splenomegaly, portosystemic shunt + oesophageal varices.
increased risk of HCC.

74
Q

what investigations would you carry out in cirrhosis? what would you find?

A

bloods - raised bilirubin/AST/ALT/alk phos, low albumin.
liver ultrasound and duplex - small liver or hepatomegaly, focal liver lesions, ascites.
MRI - big caudate lobe, small islands of regenerating nodules, right posterior hepatic notch.
transient elastography scan.
ascitic tap for urgent MC&S.
liver biopsy - confirms diagnosis.

75
Q

if a cirrhosis patient presented with ascites, how would you treat this?

A

bed rest, fluid and salt restriction, spironolactone ± furosemide.

76
Q

how would cirrhosis be treated?

A

nutrition, alcohol abstinence, avoid certain drugs.
colestyramine for pruritus.
treat underlying cause.
liver transplant.

77
Q

what are the indications for liver transplant?

A

advanced cirrhosis secondary to - alcoholic liver disease, hepatitis (B, C, autoimmune), primary biliary cirrhosis, Wilson’s disease, alpha1-atintrypsin deficiency, primary sclerosing cholangitis.

hepatocellular cancer.

78
Q

what are the contraindications for liver transplant?

A

extrahepatic malignancy, multiple tumours, severe cardiorespiratory disease, systemic sepsis, HIV infection, non-compliance (drug therapy or alcohol abstinence)

79
Q

what immunosuppression would a liver transplant patient be put on?

A

ciclosporin or

tacrolimus + azathioprine.

80
Q

what’s the difference between hyperacute and acute transplant rejection?

A

hyperacute - due to ABO incompatibility.
acute - T cell mediated, 5-10d post-op, patient feels unwell with pyrexia and tender hepatomegaly - managed by altering immunosuppressives.

81
Q

describe the underlying pathogenesis of primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

serum antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA) cause chronic autoimmune granulomatous inflammation damages interlobular bile ducts causing cholestasis, cirrhosis and portal hypertension.

82
Q

give 2 risk factors for primary biliary cirrhosis

A

family history, frequent UTIs, smoking, past pregnancy, other autoimmune diseases, hair dye/nail polish

83
Q

give 2 signs found in a patient with biliary cirrhosis

A

jaundice, skin pigmentation, xanthelasma, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly

84
Q

what blood test results would you find in a patient with primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

**very high alkaline phosphate - unique to PBC
**AMA ab +ve.
raised AST/ALT
increased Igs.

85
Q

what other investigation, apart from blood tests, might you perform in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

ultrasound

86
Q

how would you treat primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

ursodeoxycholic acid.
vitamin supplements for malabsorption.
bisphosphonates for osteoporosis, colestyramine/rifampicin for pruritus.

87
Q

give 3 diseases associated with primary biliary cirrhosis

A

scleroderma, thyroid disease, keratoconjunctivitis sicca, renal tubular acidosis, membranous glomerulonephritis, coeliac disease, interstitial pneumonitis

88
Q

explain secondary biliary cirrhosis

A

destruction of biliary tracts due to prolonged large duct biliary obstruction, caused by gall stones, bile duct stones, sclerosing cholangitis.

89
Q

how would you investigate secondary biliary cirrhosis?

A

US followed by ERCP.

90
Q

what are the CAGE questions?

A

ever felt you should Cut down on your drinking? have people Annoyed you by criticising your drinking? ever felt Guilty about your drinking? ever had an Eye opener to help you get up in the morning?

91
Q

what changes would you see on a liver biopsy of an alcoholic hepatitis patient?

A

fatty change and infiltration by polymorphonuclear leucocytes and hepatocytes in zone 3.

Mallory bodies - dense cytoplasm and giant mitochondria.

92
Q

what is “fatty change”?

A

first change in the alcoholic liver - hepatocytes contain microvesicular droplets of triglycerides.
reversible, but will progress if alcohol isn’t stopped.

93
Q

what is the path of damage the alcoholic liver follows?

A

fatty change - alcoholic heptatitis - fibrosis - micronodular cirrhosis

94
Q

what are the clinical features of alcoholic hepatitis?

A

SPIDER NAEVI.

rapid onset jaundice, nausea, anorexia, RUQ pain, encephalopathy, fever, ascites, tender hepatomegaly

95
Q

how would you manage an alcoholic hepatitis patient?

A

supportive - poss. NG tube.

alcohol cessation - IV thiamine and diazepam if needed.

96
Q

what causes hereditary haemachromatosis?

A

autosomal recessive inheritance with a mutation in the HFE gene (chromosome 6).
mostly affects middle aged men.

97
Q

what is the defining feature of hereditary haemachromatosis?

A

increased intestinal iron absorption leading to excess iron deposition in organs.

98
Q

list 3 clinical features of hereditary haemochromatosis

A

erectile dysfunction, slate grey skin pigmentation, hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, dilated cardiomyopathy, osteoporosis, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadism

99
Q

what would be the blood test results (iron, ferritin, total iron binding capacity) in hereditary haemachromatosis? what disease is this the same as?

A

increased iron and ferritin, low total iron binding capacity.

the same as sideroblastic anaemia.

100
Q

what staining would you use on liver biopsy in hereditary haemachromatosis?

A

Perl’s staining

101
Q

how would you treat hereditary haemachromatosis?

A

venesection - once a week, then a few times a year.
desferrioxamine (iron chelator) if can’t venesect.
testosterone replacement.
low iron diet, screen family members.

102
Q

what is alpha1-antitrypsin?

A

glycoprotein that controls the inflammatory cascade.

synthesised in the liver and protects lung tissue from damage by elastase.

103
Q

what diseases does deficiency of alpha1-antitrypsin causes?

A

emphysema, COPD, chronic liver disease and HCC

104
Q

what are the different genotypes you can inherit for alpha1-antitrypsin? which one brings about symptomatic disease?

A

PiMM - normal (M = medium)
PiZZ - homozymgous, symptomatic (Z = very slow)
PiMZ - heterozygous (slow)

105
Q

give the clinical features of alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

A

dyspnoea (emphysema), cirrhosis, cholestatic jaundice.

106
Q

how would you diagnose alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

serum alpha1-AT levels. genotyping.

liver biopsy.

107
Q

what stain would you use on a liver biopsy in alpha1-antitrypsin defiency? what would you see?

A

Periodic Acid Schiff - PAS +ve globules.

108
Q

what is the curative treatment of alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

liver transplant

109
Q

what is Wilson’s disease?

A

autosomal recessive disorder resulting in impaired excretion of copper in bile and faeces, leading to toxic accumulation of copper.

110
Q

what system, apart from the liver, is affected by Wilson’s disease? how does this present?

A

CNS - basal ganglia degeneration, depression, labile emotions, decreased libido, personality changes, tremor, dysarthria, dementia, decreased memory/IQ, delusions

111
Q

what is a Kayser-Fleischer ring?

A

copper deposition in cornea - see in eyes of Wilson’s disease patients

112
Q

what investigations would you carry out in Wilson’s disease? what would they show?

A

slit lamp eye exam.
24h urine copper - excretion high.
liver biopsy - increased hepatic copper, hepatitis, cirrhosis.

+ genetic testing, serum copper/caeruloplasmin.

113
Q

how would you treat Wilson’s disease?

A 
lifetime copper chelation - penicillamine.
screen siblings (treatment whilst asymptomatic prevents liver damage).
114
Q

name an infective cause of liver failure

A

EBV, hep B and C, yellow fever

115
Q

name a drug cause of liver failure

A

paracetamol OD, halothane, isoniazid

116
Q

name a toxin cause of liver failure

A

carbon tetrachloride, mushrooms

117
Q

name a vascular cause of liver failure

A

Budd-Chiari, venous thrombosis

118
Q

name an inherited cause of liver failure

A

primary biliary cirrhosis, haemachromatosis, autoimmune hepatitis, antitrypsin deficiency, Wilson’s disease

119
Q

name some other causes of liver failure

A

alcohol, fatty liver of pregnancy, malignancy

120
Q

give 4 signs of fulminant hepatic failure

A

hepatomegaly, jaundice, splenomegaly, ‘pear drop’ smell, asterixis (flapping tremor) palmar erythema, clubbing, ascites, pruritus, portal hypertension

121
Q

what is hepatic encephalopathy? explain it

A

a major complication of liver failure:
liver fails - nitrogenous waste (ammonia) builds up in circulation - passes to brain - astrocytes clear it by converting glutamate to glutamine - excess glutamine causes an osmotic imbalance - cerebral oedema

122
Q

what might you find on investigating the blood of a patient with liver failure?

A

high bilirubin and aminotransferases.

low sodium, albumin, prothrombin, factor V

123
Q

how would you manage a liver failure patient?

A 
treat cause.
treat complications:
seizures - lorazepman.
bleeding - vit K.
ascites - diuretics.
infection - blind abx = ceftriaxone.
hypoglycaemia - IV glucose.
124
Q

what tests would you run on ascitic fluid once aspirated?

A

cell count, MC&S, protein/albumin, cytology for malignancy, amylase to exclude pancreatitis.

125
Q

give 3 causes of transudate ascites

A 
portal hypertension (cirrhosis).
hepatic outflow obstruction.
Budd-Chiari syndrome.
cardiac failure.
tricuspid regurgitation.
constrictive pericarditis.
Meig's syndrome.
126
Q

give 3 causes of exudate ascites

A 
peritoneal carcinomatosis
peritoneal TB
pancreatitis
nephrotic syndrome
lymphatic obstruction
127
Q

what would you find on abdo examination of a patient with ascites?

A

SHIFTING DULLNESS.

fullness in flanks.

128
Q

how would you manage a patient with ascites?

A

aspirate for testing.

sodium restriction + oral spironolactone ± furosemide.

129
Q

what would you seen on a liver biopsy of a patient with cirrhosis?

A

irregular nodules of fibrous tissues.

130
Q

how would you investigate ascites?

A

paracentesis - investigation and intervention.

131
Q

what would you see on biopsy in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

bile duct granuloma

132
Q

explain why gynaecomastia can be a feature of liver failure in males

A

failure of liver to eliminate steroid hormones

133
Q

what would you find in the blood of a patient that would indicate they have carrier status for HBV?

A

HBsAg - surface antigen.
present 1-6 months after exposure.

present for >6 months = carrier status.

134
Q

what would you find in the blood of a patient that has recently (last couple of months) been infected with HBV? what does this mean?

A

HBeAg (e antigen) - present 1.5-3 months after exposure.

implies high infectivity.

135
Q

what might you find in the blood of a patient that indicates they have immunity to HBV through having previously been infected?

A

anti-HBc antibody

136
Q

what might you find in the blood of a patient that indicates they have immunity to HBV through having been vaccinated?

A

anti-HBs antibody

137
Q

what blood test would you do on an HBV patient to monitor progress?

A

HBV PCR

GI (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions