GI Flashcards

1
Q

Define a anorectal abscess

A

Infection of soft tissue around the anus

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2
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of anorectal (perianal) abscess

A

If crypt does not drain into anal canal

Infection may spread along the inter-sphincteric space - result in inter-sphincteric, perianal or supra-Levator abscess

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3
Q

Describe the causes of anorectal abscesses

A

Majority = infection of the anal glands - cryptoglandular infections

Gland may become occluded due to:
- impaction of food matter
- oedema from trauma secondary to a hard stool or foreign body
- result of an adjacent inflammatory process e.g. Crohn’s disease

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4
Q

Name 3 risk factors of anorectal abscesses

A

Anal fistula (related with 30-70% of cases)

Crohn’s disease

Male sex

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5
Q

Describe the clinical features of anorectal abscesses (perianal)

A

Most common = severe perianal pain + swelling

+ leucocytosis

Other features
- fever
- chills
- urinary retention

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6
Q

Describe the investigations of anorectal (perianal) abscess

A

Diagnosis = physical examination

Other investigations
- blood
- imaging

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7
Q

Describe the management of anorectal (perianal) abscess

A

1st line = incision and drainage

Antibiotics in indicated patients - not an alternative to surgical drainage

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8
Q

Name the differential diagnosis of anorectal (perianal) abscess

A

Anal fissure
Thrombosed haemorrhoid
Pilonidal abscess
STIs

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9
Q

Name a complication of perianal abscess

A

Anal fistula

30-50% of patients will develop an anal fistula in months/years following drainage

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10
Q

Name 3 causes of colonic ischemia

A

Occlusion of the blood supply (mesenteric) arteries by:

Trauma
Thrombosis
Immobilisation

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11
Q

Name the risk factors of colonic ischemia

A

Old age
History of smoking
Hypercoagulable state
Atrial fibrillation
Myocardial infarction
Structural heart defects
History of vasculitis

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12
Q

Describe the clinical features of colonic ischemia

A

Sudden onset of mild, crampy, abdominal pain - usually localised to the left lower quadrant

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13
Q

Describe the investigations of colonic ischemia

A

Imaging
- sigmoid or colonoscopy
- CT angiography
- ECG

Blood investigations

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14
Q

Describe the management of colonic ischemia

A

Treatment varies of severity of presentation

Most cases resolve spontaneously

Severe/continuing symptoms
- admission
- supportive measures
- bowel rest
- investigations to underlying cause

LMWH

Surgical interventions

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15
Q

Define pseudomembranous colitis

A

Characterised by inflammation in the large intestine, with yellow/white plaques that form pseudomembranous membranes on the inner surface of the bowel wall

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16
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Disruption of colonic biome = allows for difficle colonisation

C. difficle induces colitis via exotoxin production, toxin A and B

Toxins = inflammation, colonic cell cytoskeleton disruption and cellular death.

Pseudomembranes form as these toxins pathologically hyper stimulate the native immune system by drawing neutrophils to invade the colonic mucosa

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17
Q

Name the causes of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Main = C. difficle

Others
- ischemic colitis
- IBD
- vasculitis
- bacterial/parasitic organisms

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18
Q

Name the risk factors of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Same as C. difficle

Hospitalisation
Antibiotic use
Chemotherapy exposure
Marked leukemoid reactions

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19
Q

Describe the symptoms of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Most common - symptomatic diarrhoea

Fever
Abdominal cramping
Leucocytosis

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20
Q

Name the signs of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Leucocytosis
Hypovolemia
Hypotension
Protein-losing enteropathy
Reactive arthritis
Toxic megacolon

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21
Q

Name the investigations of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Colonoscopy

Biopsy - Owl’s eye inclusion bodies

Diagnosis = colonoscopy + biopsy

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22
Q

What is the 1st line of treatment for C. difficle

A

Oral vancomycin

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23
Q

Define Mallory Weiss Tear

A

Tear in the lower oesophageal mucosa due to sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure causing haematemesis

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24
Q

Name 3 risk factors for Mallory Weiss Tear

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum - severe vomiting in pregnancy

Bulimia

Alcoholism

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25
What is the treatment for Mallory Weiss Tear
Self resolves
26
What artery is affected in a gastric ulcer
Gastroduodenal artery
27
What artery is affected in a duodenal ulcer
Left gastric artery
28
Describe the clinical features of a small bowel obstruction
Colicky abdominal pain - located higher Vomit them constipation Mild distention Tinkling bowel sounds Coiled spring appearance - x-ray
29
Describe the clinical features of a large bowel obstruction
Continuous abdominal pain Constipation then vomiting Gross distention Sounds 1. Hyperactive then 2. Normal then 3. Absent X-ray coffee bean appearance
30
Name 2 symptoms of a gastric ulcer
Haematemesis Melena (black tarry stools)
31
Name 2 symptoms of a duodenal ulcer
Melena Haematochezia - passage of blood in stool
32
Define GORD
Reflux of acidic contents into the oesophagus due to incompetent LES or high intra-abdominal pressure overcoming sphincter mechanisms
33
Name the risk factors of GORD
Increased intra-abdominal pressure - pregnancy or obesity Incompetent LES Hiatus hernia - sliding 80%, rolling 20%
34
Name the symptoms of GORD
Retrosternal burning chest pain Dysphagia, odynophagia
35
Name a red flag of GORD that would result in a 2 week wait
Dysphagia
36
What would be the next steps in GORD if there were no red flag symptoms
Clinically diagnose + treat
37
If red flags of GORD describe the investigations
1st line = oesophageal-gastro duodenoscopy (OGD) - oesophagitis, Barrett's oesophagus 2nd line (if normal) - oesophageal manometry, 24 hour gastric pH monitoring
38
Describe the management of GORD
Conservative Medical management Surgical - laparoscopic Nissen's fundoplication
39
Describe the medical management of GORD
Sort term anti acids 1st line = PPI 4-8 weeks 2nd line = H2 receptor antagonist
40
Describe a laparoscopic Nissen's fundoplication
Fundus wrapped around lower oesophagus to mimic sphincter
41
Define Barrett's oesophagus
Metaplasia of distal oesophagus Squamous to columnar epithelium
42
What type of cancer can Barrett's oesophagus cause
Oesophageal adenocarcinoma
43
What is the cause of Barrett's oesophagus
GORD complication - often due to sliding hiatus hernia Caucasian male 50+
44
Describe the investigation of Barrett's oesophagus
OGD + biopsy In z-line > (or equal to) 1cm above gastro-oesophageal junction
45
Describe the treatment of Barrett's oesophagus
Treat underlying cause reflux with PPI Non dysplastic = surveillance endoscopy Dysplastic = endoscopic mucosal resection or radiofrequency ablation
46
Name 4 causes of GI bleeding
Peptic ulcer Oesophageal varices Mallory-Weiss tear Stomach cancer
47
Name 3 signs of GI bleeding
Melaena Haematemesis Coffee-ground vomit
48
Why is U&E important in GI bleeding
Blood enters GI tract - blood proteins are digested to amino acids - metabolised at liver to urea = increased blood urea nitrogen
49
Describe the management of GI bleeding
Check ABCDE, Glasgow-Blatchford score Endoscopy Variceal bleeding - antibiotics + terlipressin - urgent endoscopy - 12 hours - place band Non-variceal bleeding - common cause - peptic ulcer - PPI - endoscopy in 24 hours - cortication or clip
50
Define chrons disease
Characterised by patchy transmural granulomatous inflammation with skip lesions at any part of the GI tract (mouth to anus)
51
Which IBD is this patchy transmural granulomatous inflammation
Chrons disease
52
Describe the presentation of chrons disease
RLQ pain Non-bloody diarrhoea Weight loss + malabsorption Aphthous ulcers
53
Where is the pain in chrons felt
RLQ
54
Where does chrons affect most
Terminal ileum and proximal colon
55
What deficiency's may be seen in chrons disease
Haematinic deficiency - B12, Fe Steatorrhea + fat soluble vitamin deficiencies
56
Name the risk factors of chrons disease
Jewish Bimodal incidence 15-20, 55+ Family history - NOD2/CARD15 Smoking
57
In which IBD is smoking a risk factor
Chrons
58
What is the GS investigation for chrons disease
Colonoscopy + biopsy
59
How do you remember differentiating features of chrons disease
NESTS
60
Breakdown NESTS
N - No blood or mucus (PR bleeding is less common\0 E - Entire GI tract affected (mouth to anus) S - Skip lesions on endoscopy T - Terminal ileum most affected, transmural (full thickness inflammation) S - Smoking is a risk factor (do not set nests on fire) + strictures and fistulas
61
How do you differentiate the features of UC
you see (UC) = CLOSEUP
62
Breakdown CLOSEUP
C - continuous inflammation L - limited to colon + rectum O - only superficial mucosa affected S - Smoking may be protective (UC less common in smokers) E - Excrete blood and mucus U - Use amino salicylates P - primary sclerosing cholangitis
63
What is the GS investigation for IBD
Colonoscopy + biopsy
64
What are the antibodies associated with chrons disease
ASCA antibodies
65
What is the 1st line management in a flare of chrons
Corticosteroids Prednisolone (mild) Hydrocortisone (severe)
66
What is the 1st line management to maintain remission in chrons
Azathioprine + methotrexate
67
What is the 2nd line management to maintain remission in chrons
Biologics TNF-a inhibitor = rituximab ILA-12&23 = Ustekinumab
68
What is rituximab
TNF-a inhibitor
69
What is ustekinumab
ILA-12&23
70
Name the differentials of IBD
Diverticulitis Coeliac disease Colon cancer IBS
71
Define UC
Autoimmune colitis beginning @ rectum (proctitis) and extending proximally into the colon
72
What does UC mostly affect
Terminal ileum
73
Where is pain in UC felt
LLQ
74
Name the risk factors of UC
Jewish Bimodal incidence 15-20, 55+ Family history HLA-B27 GI infection NSAIDs Non-smoking
75
What is the GS investigation for UC
Colonoscopy + biopsy
76
What would be seen on a abdo x-ray and barium enema in UC
Continuous lead pipe
77
What scoring system is used in UC
Flare true love + witts Scores severity
78
What escalation system is used in UC
Travis criteria
79
What is the GS management in UC
Surgery = curative Partial or total colectomy
80
What is the 1st line management for a flare of UC
Topical aminosalicylate (ASA)
81
What is the 2nd line management for UC
Oral aminosalicylate or prednisolone Biologics = TNF-a infliximab
82
Where does UC never go beyond
Ileocecal valve
83
What antibodies is UC associated with
p-ANCA antibodies
84
What gene is UC associated with
HLA B27 gene
85
Name a complication of UC
Toxic megacolon
86