GI Flashcards

1
Q

This patient shows clinical (pruritus, palmar erythema, telangiectasias, gynecomastia, and hypogonadism), laboratory (anemia, thrombocytopenia, hypoalbuminemia, hyperbilirubinemia, increased liver enzymes), and ultrasonographic evidence of compensated cirrhosis.

All patients with cirrhosis should be regularly screened for major complications, in particular, esophageal varices and hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).

Abdominal ultrasonography shows a nodular liver surface with atrophy of the right lobe of the liver. An upper endoscopy shows no abnormalities.

Next step in management?

A

Repeat abdominal ultrasound in 6 months

In addition to ultrasound surveillance, all patients with alcoholic cirrhosis should undergo a screening endoscopy to look for esophageal varices and determine the risk of variceal bleeding.

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2
Q

A history of immunodeficiency (e.g., caused by HIV infection) and prior human papillomavirus (HPV) infection are major risk factors for this condition.

A history of hematochezia, anal pruritus, painful defecation, and weight loss in a patient with an exophytic, friable, ulcerated mass above the anal verge is suggestive of?

A

Anal canal cancer

Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common histological type of anal canal cancer and typically arises below the dentate line

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3
Q

Which hepatitis antigen is only present during phases of viremia, which occur in acute or active chronic infections?

A

Envelope antigen

(HBeAg)

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4
Q

White plaques on the oral mucosa that can be scraped off (and bleeds) are suggestive of?

Further common findings include pain when eating, loss of taste, and a cottony feeling in the mouth.

A

oropharyngeal candidiasis

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5
Q

Candida albicans infections most commonly affect?

A

immunocompromised individuals

e.g., patients with hematologic malignancies, or chemo

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6
Q

This patient most likely has lower GI bleeding (LGIB), as suggested by the hematochezia and normal esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). He continues to bleed and remains hemodynamically unstable even after fluid resuscitation. Urgent intervention is required to reliably localize and stop the hemorrhage. Management?

A

Angiography is the recommended procedure in patients with active hematochezia, hemodynamic instability despite resuscitation efforts, and a normal EGD.

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7
Q

Angiography is also used in stable patients when other diagnostic methods are inconclusive.

If angiography fails to locate the source of bleeding, what is the next step in management?

A

colonoscopy

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8
Q

This patient’s history of intermittent, crampy abdominal pain, bloating, and nonbloody diarrhea after the consumption of dairy products is suggestive of lactase deficiency.

Given this patient’s history of gastroenteritis, her current condition is likely secondary to?

A

loss of intestinal brush border

due to mucosal damage following gastroenteritis.

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9
Q

lactase deficiency test?

A

The hydrogen breath test assesses the intestinal absorption of individual carbohydrates. A rise in exhaled hydrogen levels (i.e., a positive hydrogen breath test) occurs when unabsorbed carbohydrates are metabolized by colonic bacteria, producing hydrogen during the process.

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10
Q

Symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and fever in combination with laboratory evidence of inflammation and CT scan findings of mural thickening and creeping fat are suggestive of?

A

Crohn disease

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11
Q

On biopsy, the presence of transmural inflammation, fissures, and aphthous ulcers would strongly suggest CD.

What else would be seen on biopsy?

A

Noncaseating granulomas
(granulomatous inflammation)

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12
Q

During endoscopy, cranial displacement of the esophagogastric junction (Z line) was observed. Narrow-band imaging of the mucosa distal to the Z line did not show evidence of metaplastic change. Mucosal biopsy specimens obtained from this site showed gastric columnar cells and no goblet cells. DDX?

A

type I hiatal hernia (asymptomatic)

endoscopic findings of a displaced Z line above the diaphragmatic hiatus with no evidence of paraesophageal herniation

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13
Q

type I hiatal hernia (asymptomatic), tx?

A

conservative management with reassurance and counseling on lifestyle modifications is indicated.

Lifestyle modifications, including smoking cessation, alcohol cessation, and weight loss, should be discussed with all patients with hiatal hernia.

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14
Q

type I hiatal hernia (symptomatic), tx?

A

If the patient develops symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), treatment with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) or histamine H2 receptor antagonist is indicated.

Surgical repair is only necessary if the patient has persistent symptoms despite pharmacological treatment, is not willing or able to take PPIs long-term, or has severe symptoms or complications of GERD (e.g., bleeding, strictures, ulcerations).

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15
Q

Combined with a history of loose stools, fatigue, and travel to the Indian subcontinent, features of malabsorption such as steatorrhea (elevated fecal fat content) and vitamin deficiencies (e.g., angular stomatitis, glossitis, macrocytic anemia) are highly suggestive of?

A

tropical sprue

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16
Q

tropical sprue: The abdomen is soft without tenderness. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities.

Stool culture and studies for ova and parasites are negative. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Fecal fat content is 22 g/day (N<7). Fecal lactoferrin testing is negative and fecal elastase level is within the reference range. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A

Endoscopic small bowel biopsy

should be performed in patients with suspected tropical sprue following blood tests, serological antibody testing, and stool analysis.

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17
Q

Histological findings include villous atrophy, elongated crypts, and inflammatory cells (plasma cells, lymphocytes, eosinophils). However, these findings are not specific to tropical sprue; they may also be seen in?

A

celiac disease

(Endoscopic small bowel biopsy also confirms DDX)

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18
Q

tropical sprue: the diagnosis is ultimately confirmed by a response to treatment, which usually consists of?

A

tetracycline in combination with folic acid for 3–6 months.

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19
Q

What DDX manifests initially with weight loss and extraintestinal symptoms (e.g., fever, arthralgias arthritis, cardiac (valve insufficiencies), and neurological symptoms (myoclonia, ataxia, impairment of oculomotor function)) before diarrhea occurs; the characteristic histological finding of this condition is PAS-positive foamy macrophages in the lamina propria?

A

Whipple disease

Can cause malabsorption syndrome, and Endoscopic small bowel biopsy is initial step in DDX

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20
Q

This patient has a known diagnosis of hepatitis C, ascites, and portal hypertension, as indicated by a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) > 1.1.

His portal hypertension, fever, abdominal pain, and a peritoneal > 250 polymorphonuclear leukocytes/mm3 in ascites fluid point to the underlying cause of his current symptoms.

DDX and cause?

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)

Caused by bacterial translocation (usually gram-negative rods such as E. coli or Klebsiella spp.)

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21
Q

what is bacterial translocation?

A

Migration of bacteria through the intestinal wall to the peritoneal space and possible colonization of the mesenteric lymph nodes.

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22
Q

Tx for bacterial translocation?
(first episode vs later episodes?)

A

Empiric antibiotic treatment for SBP with a third-generation cephalosporin (e.g., cefotaxime) or a fluoroquinolone (e.g., levofloxacin) should be initiated immediately.

After the first episode of SBP, this patient should start antibacterial prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin or TMP-SMX.

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23
Q

The acute mental status changes, signs of liver cirrhosis (e.g., ascites, spider telangiectasias), and asterixis (hands make a flapping motion when they are dorsiflexed) in this patient indicate hepatic encephalopathy.

precipitating factor for this patient’s symptoms?

A

Hemoglobin in the intestine (e.g., from a gastrointestinal bleed) can precipitate hepatic encephalopathy.

Other common triggers of hepatic encephalopathy include infection, recent transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt placement, sedatives, and metabolic alkalosis.

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24
Q

HIV-infected patients with a CD4 count < 50 cells/mm3, presents with watery and explosive diarrhea, and detection of characteristic linear lesions on colonoscopy and owl eye inclusions on biopsy. DDX and Tx?

A

CMV infection (including CMV colitis)

Tx: foscarnet, ganciclovir, and cidofovir.

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25
Q

Tender hepatomegaly with signs and symptoms of cholestasis (jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, pruritus, direct hyperbilirubinemia, elevated transaminases and alkaline phosphatase), preceded by fever, nausea, and vomiting, suggest a specific type of acute hepatitis.

What antibody is present? (in HepA)

A

Anti-HAV IgM antibodies

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26
Q

This woman with poorly controlled diabetes (glucosuria) presents with subacute flank pain, fever, and increased pain with extension of the hip, all of which suggest a certain diagnosis. DDX?

A

Psoas muscle abscess

27
Q

Primary psoas abscesses are most common, and diabetes is an important risk factor for primary abscess formation.

Definitive diagnosis requires?

A

imaging with MRI or CT

ultrasound may allow for identification of a large abscess.

28
Q

This patient’s history of constipation and left lower quadrant pain together with CT findings of segmental colonic wall thickening with multiple diverticula and surrounding fat stranding suggest acute diverticulitis.

The > 4.0-cm low-attenuating fluid collection is consistent with a large pelvic abscess, which has developed as a complication of diverticulitis. There are no signs that suggest peritonitis (e.g., guarding, rebound tenderness, rigid abdomen). Intravenous antibiotics alone are highly unlikely to resolve this patient’s condition. Mx?

A

CT-guided percutaneous drainage is the treatment of choice for patients, like this one, with acute diverticulitis complicated by large abscesses and no indications for emergent surgery (e.g., signs of peritonitis).

29
Q

Chronic bloody diarrhea and abdominal cramps in early adulthood, colonoscopy findings of linear ulcers and polyps (likely inflammatory pseudopolyps) with crypt abscesses (mucosal edema with distorted crypts) on biopsy are characteristic features of?

A

ulcerative colitis (UC)

30
Q

patients with long-standing inflammatory bowel disease (UC/Crohn’s) are at increased risk of developing colorectal cancer (CRC).

Surveillance for dysplasia should be initiated ________________ following the onset of symptoms, which is when the incidence of CRC begins to rise significantly

Then performing a colonoscopy with biopsy every # years?

A

Surveillance for dysplasia initiated 8–10 years after onset of sx

Then colonoscopy biopsy every 1-5 years

31
Q

After MVA (severe trauma), the presence of acute nausea, vomiting, bloating, absent bowel sounds, and dilated bowel loops with a uniform gas pattern is diagnostic of?

A

paralytic ileus

32
Q

Trauma patients may develop paralytic ileus for a variety of reasons (e.g., treatment with opioids). The association of this patient’s ileus with bilateral flank pain, seatbelt sign, Grey Turner sign, obliteration of the psoas outline on x-ray, and fluid-responsive hemodynamic changes make trauma-associated, ddx?

A

retroperitoneal hemorrhage

33
Q

The most appropriate next step in the management of uncomplicated paralytic ileus is to make the patient?

A

NPO, place a nasogastric tube for decompression, and provide IV fluid (and possibly blood product) resuscitation

34
Q

A pt wirh extensive burn injury (i.e., ≥ 30% of total body surface area), tarry stools, hypotension, and tachycardia prior to her death suggest an acute upper gastrointestinal bleed that was precipitated by her burns.

underlying cause of the patient’s tarry black stools?

A

Curling ulcers - Decreased gastric blood flow

A subtype of stress gastritis seen in patients with extensive burns and occur due to hypovolemia and subsequent hypoperfusion of the stomach.

35
Q

What should be administered in patients with extensive burns to prevent the formation of Curling ulcers?

A

Proton pump inhibitors

Tx in patients with extensive burns to prevent the formation of Curling ulcers.

36
Q

Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. This condition that is often caused by chronic alcohol use + history of recurrent epigastric pain, and vomiting.

When large enough, this can manifest with a palpable epigastric mass and bilious vomiting (due to extrinsic compression of the distal duodenum) or nonbilious vomiting (due to gastric outlet obstruction). DDX?

A

pancreatic pseudocyst

which is a complication of acute or chronic pancreatitis, is caused by leakage of pancreatic exocrine secretions from damaged ducts.

37
Q

This patient presents with constitutional symptoms and iron deficiency anemia, in the setting of an ulcerative, bleeding growth in the colon. These findings are highly suggestive of?

A

colorectal cancer

38
Q

Which GI polyp has the strongest predisposing factor for malignant transformation based on the histological subtype of the lesion?

(followed by its size, location, and gross appearance)

A

Adenomatous polyps (tubular adenoma, tubulovillous adenoma, villous adenoma) carry the highest risk of malignant transformation.

39
Q

which Adenomatous polyps (tubular adenoma, tubulovillous adenoma, villous adenoma) has the highest risk of malignant transformation?

A

villous adenomatous polyp has the highest risk (∼ 50%)

40
Q

Melena (black, tarlike stool) is usually caused by upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB), although it can also stem from lesions in the small bowel or the colon. EGD normal, what’s next?

A

colonoscopy to evaluate the lower GI tract.

Should the colonoscopy also be normal, the small bowel needs to be examined (e.g., via push enteroscopy, push-and-pull enteroscopy, capsule endoscopy).

41
Q

This woman has several risk factors (obesity, female, multiparity, age > 40 years) for gallstones. Additionally, she presents with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain and elevated markers of cholestasis (alkaline phosphatase, bilirubin).

Next step in DDX and DDX?

A

Transabdominal ultrasonography is the best next step to diagnose choledocholithiasis.

42
Q

A combination of symmetric oligoarthritis, loose stools, features of malabsorption (weight loss, iron deficiency anemia), cardiac symptoms (valve insufficiency), hyperpigmentation, and generalized lymphadenopathy indicates?

A

Whipple’s disease

43
Q

Whipple’s disease - A biopsy specimen of the duodenum is likely to show which of the following?

A

PAS-positive macrophages

44
Q

Whipple’s disease is treated with?

A

IV ceftriaxone for 2 weeks followed by maintenance treatment with oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 1 year.

45
Q

Linear ulcers and aphthous mucosa defects are biopsy findings expected in a patient with?

A

Crohn’s disease

46
Q

diffuse abdominal pain and change in bowel habits, no symptoms of malabsorption.

DDX and biopsy results?

A

normal duodenal mucosa is the biopsy finding in patients with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).

47
Q

A caseating granuloma is a local accumulation of activated macrophages around a center of necrosis. It can be found in a number of diseases, including? (3)

A

tuberculosis
fungal infections
leprosy

48
Q

Villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia are the typical biopsy findings in patients with?

A

with celiac disease.

49
Q

A noncaseating granuloma is a local area of inflammation comprised of activated macrophages, without an area of central necrosis. In the duodenal wall, noncaseating granulomas may be a sign of several diseases, including? (2)

A

sarcoidosis and Crohn’s disease

50
Q

patient’s skin hyperpigmentation, generalized lymphadenopathy, neurological symptoms and aortic regurgitation. DDX?

A

Whipple’s disease

PAS-positive macrophages in gastrointestinal biopsy specimens are a hallmark finding

50
Q

patient’s skin hyperpigmentation, generalized lymphadenopathy, neurological symptoms and aortic regurgitation. DDX?

A

Whipple’s disease

PAS-positive macrophages in gastrointestinal biopsy specimens are a hallmark finding

51
Q

patients who are hemodynamically unstable.

CT scan of chest findings include pneumomediastinum, esophageal wall thickening, pneumothorax, pneumoperitoneum, subcutaneous emphysema, and pleural effusion. DDX?

A

Boerhaave syndrome - spontaneous esophageal rupture

52
Q

Based on his right upper quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, close contact with a dog, eosinophilia, and focal cyst within the liver, the diagnosis in this patient is most likely?

A

hydatid cyst disease

The contents of a hydatid cyst are highly antigenic.

53
Q

during a procedure, your pt develops hypotension, tachycardia, decreased oxygen saturation, and severe bronchospasm (as evident by a sudden decrease in end tidal CO2 and absent breath sounds). Tx?

A

Epinephrine is the treatment of choice for anaphylaxis.

54
Q

hydatid cyst disease
Laboratory tests: mild eosinophilia
Serology: positive ELISA

Imaging: Ultrasonography would show?

A

Eggshell calcifications within the wall of a hydatid cyst

55
Q

intermittent abdominal tenderness and cramps, watery diarrhea, cutaneous flushing (facial redness), telangiectasia (tiny blood vessels), tachycardia (sudden palpitations), and wheezing. DDX?

A

Carcinoid tumors

usually occur in the gastrointestinal tract and are often asymptomatic due to hepatic metabolism of neuroendocrine substances (particularly serotonin) that the tumors produce.

56
Q

carcinoid tumors become symptomatic when?

A

tumors that have metastasized to the liver (indicated by elevation of transaminases in this patient)

the increased serotonin that bypasses hepatic first-pass metabolism

57
Q

Pt from Tiawan, Esophagogastroduodenoscopy shows an ulcerated mass with raised irregular edges in the body of the stomach at the lesser curvature.

DDX and cause?

A

** gastric adenocarcinoma**

nitrosamine compounds (e.g., dimethylnitrosamine) - smoked, dried, fried, and preserved foods (especially meat)

58
Q

Risk factors for localized gastric adenocarcinoma include? (4)

A

obesity
Helicobacter pylori

tobacco smoking
alcohol consumption

59
Q

On the barium enema, an apple core sign (also called napkin ring sign) is seen in the distal descending colon, which suggests annular constriction due to?

Seen with what DDX?

A

colorectal carcinoma seen with UC

60
Q

As UC is restricted to the colon and rectum, what is the only potentially curative treatment for both UC and colorectal carcinoma?

A

proctocolectomy with an ileal pouch-anal anastomosis or ileostomy

61
Q

This patient has AIDS (CD4+ T-lymphocytes < 200 cells/mm3), watery, secretory diarrhea, modified acid-fast stain on a stool sample reveals oocysts, part of life cycle of some parasitic protozoans. DDX?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

a very common enteric parasite that sheds acid-fast oocysts in the feces. symptoms begin within 10 days of infection.

62
Q

Acute presentation with oral pain, odynophagia (painful swallowing), heavy salivation, and chest pain should raise concern for ingestion of which caustic agent?

A

alkaline caustic agent, such as Potassium hydroxide, that is a common component of drain and toilet cleaners.

63
Q

Caustic ingestion of alkali substances (e.g., potassium hydroxide, sodium hydroxide) can cause?

A

Liquefactive necrosis with deep mucosal ulcerations.

Esophageal caustic injury can be complicated by perforation of the esophageal wall, which can result in mediastinitis or peritonitis.