get it right this time- part duece Flashcards
Where is not a location of stratified cuboidal epithelium?
a. layer of ovaries
b. layer of testes
c. ducts of sweat glands
d. gallbladder
d. gallbladder
Which is not true of stratified squamous epithelium?
a. can be wet
b. can be dry
c. is located in the mouth, cornea and esophagus
d. is located in the anal mucus membrane
d. is located in the anal mucus membrane
Which breaks down nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and proteins?
a. mitochondria
b. lysosomes
c. ribosomes
d. golgi bodies
b. lysosomes
The Islands of Langerhans are cells in the ____ that _____.
a. pancreas, regulate sugar metabolism
b. liver, make insulin
c. liver, regulate sugar metabolism
d. gallbladder, regulate sugar metabolism
a. pancreas, regulate sugar metabolism
Which is not a location of simple cuboidal epithelium?
a. bowman’s capsule of kidney
b. ducts of glands
c. surface of ovaries
d. thyroid
a. Bowman’s capsule of kidney
A biceps curl would be an example of a(n) _____ contraction.
a. eccentric
b. concentric
c. isometric
d. isotonic
b. concentric
Which muscle moves the mandible from side to side?
a. temporalis
b. masseter
c. medial pterygoid
d. frontalis
d. frontalis
The SCM is innervated by cranial nerve ______.
a. IV
b. VII
c. XI
d. IX
c. XI
Lamboidal suture also known as the ______ and the _______ suture is located between the frontal and parietal bones.
a. coronal suture, coronal
b. occipital suture, coronal
c. squamous suture, sagittal
d. sagittal suture, occipital
b. occipital suture, coronal
The humeroulnar joint is characterized as a _____ type.
a. pivot
b. gliding
c. hinge
d. saddle
c. hinge
Costa is an anatomical term meaning
a. space
b. bone
c. rib
d. long
c. rib
The long thoracic nerve innervates the _______; damage to this nerve will cause scapula winging.
a. trapezius
b. latissimus dorsi
c. serratus anterior
d. rhomboid major
c. serratus anterior
Which is not found on the scapula?
a. scapular notch
b. acromion
c. coracoid process
d. conoid tubercle
d. conoid tubercle
Which is not located on the clavicle?
a. costal tuberiosity
b. conoid tubercle
c. coracoid process
d. sternal extremity
c. coracoid process
The olecranon can be found on the
a. radius
b. humerus
c. ulna
d. capitulum
c. ulna
The ulna does not have a(n)
a. coronoid process
b. olecranon
c. nutrient foramina
d. intertubercular sulcus
d. intertubercular sulcus
The scaphoid is found directly distal to the ____, which is wider near the _____.
a. radius, wrist
b. radius, elbow
c. ulnar, wrist
d. ulnar, elbow
a. radius, wrist
The spine of the scapular is at the level of ____.
a. T2
b. T3
c. T5
d. T6
b. T3
The carotid tubercle is found on the TP of:
a. C1
b. C2
c. C6
d. C7
c. C6
Which of the following is a false rib?
a. rib 9
b. rib 7
c. rib 6
d. rib 4
a. rib 9
The ascending colon is found in the ______ of the abdomen.
a. right upper quadrant
b. left upper quadrant
c. left lower quadrant
d. right lower quadrant
d. right lower quadrant
All of the following are located in the left upper quadrant except:
a. cecum
b. spleen
c. stomach
d. transverse colon
a. cecum
The serratus anterior is innervated by the ____ nerve.
a. medial pectoral
b. long thoracic
c. accessory
d. dorsal scapula
b. long thoracic
An example of a saddle joint would be found in the _____.
a. ankle
b. elbow
c. thumb
d. shoulder
c. thumb
The atlanto axial joint is which type?
a. trochoid
b. saddle
c. sellar
d. ball and socket
a. trochoid
Which ligament maintains the longitudinal arch of the foot?
a. deltoid
b. spring
c. lateral
d. posterior tibiofibular
b. spring
The most lateral bone is the:
a. navicular
b. talus
c. lateral cuneiform
d. cuboid
d. cuboid
Which is not composed of the lateral ligament of the foot?
a. talofibular
b. calcaneofibular
c. posterior talofibular
d. anterior tibiotalar
d. anterior tibiotalar
Flexion of the thigh is made possible through the action of:
a. rectus femoris
b. vastus lateralis
c. vastus medialis
d. vastus intermedius
a. rectus femoris
The articulation of the roots of the teeth is an example of a _______.
a. amphiarthrosis
b. gomphosis
c. suture
d. syndesmosis
b. gomphosis
Which is an amphiarthrotic fibrous joint?
a. gomphosis
b. suture
c. syndesmosis
d. gomphosis
c. syndesmosis
Which is an example of the slightly moveable joint which happens to be secondary cartilaginous?
a. suture
b. gomphosis
c. IVD
d. pivot
c. IVD
Synovial fluid is composed of:
a. hyaluronic acid
b. carbon dioxide
c. carbonic acid
d. HCl
a. hyaluronic acid
A freely moveable joint would be classified under:
a. amphiarthrosis
b. diathrosis
c. synarthrosis
d. syndesmosis
b. diathrosis
Which of the following is a freely moveable joint?
a. synarthosis
b. amphiarthrosis
c. syndesmosis
b. diathrosis
b. diathrosis
A ginglymous joint cannot be found:
a. at the elbow
b. between atlas and occiput
c. at the knee
d. at the wrist
d. at the wrist
Which is not found on the clavicle?
a. conoid tubercle
b. insertion point for the trapezius
c. coracoid process
d. acromial extremity
c. coracoid process
The ______ ligament holds the hip taut during extension.
a. pubofemoral
b. iliofemoral
c. teres femoris
d. deltoid
b. iliofemoral
Which goes directly around fasiculi?
a. epimysium
b. perimysium
c. endomysium
d. sarcolemme
b. perimysium
Wrist drop occurs by way of damage to the ___ nerve.
a. radial
b. ulnar
c. median
d. axillary
a. radial
The axillary nerve and the _____ nerve can be found on the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.
a. ulnar
b. musculocutaneous
c. radial
d. medial root of the median
c. radial
Damage to the ______ nerve will show winging of the scapula.
a. radial
b. dorsal scapula
c. long thoracic
d. posterior scapula
c. long thoracic
Injury to the median nerve results in:
a. wrist drop
b. claw hand
c. ape hand
d. Bell’s Palsy
c. ape hand
All of the following are located on the medial cord of the brachial plexus except:
a. radial nerve
b. ulna nerve
c. median nerve
d. medial pectoral nerve
a. radial nerve
The triceps muscles helps in extension of the elbow. What other muscle helps in this action?
a. biceps
b. pronator teres
c. teres minor
d. anconeus
d. anconeus
The axillary nerve innervates which muscle of the rotator cuff?
a. infraspinatus
b. supraspinatus
c. teres minor
d. trapezius
c. teres minor
Which muscle is responsible for the first 20 degrees of shoulder abduction?
a. deltoid
b. pectoralis major
c. triceps
d. supraspinatus
d. supraspinatus
The supraspinatus is innervated by the ______ nerve.
a. radial
b. axillary
c. subscapular
d. suprascapular
d. suprascapular
The radial nerve innervates the:
a. abductor pollicis brevis
b. opponens pollicis
c. flexor digiti minimi
d. abductor pollicis longus
d. abductor pollicis longus
The subscapularis is innervated by the subscapular nerve. Which of the following is an action of this muscle?
a. lateral rotation of the shoulder
b. medial rotation of the shoulder
c. shoulder abduction
d. lumbar flexion
b. medial rotation of the shoulder
All of the following are part of the rotator cuff except:
a. subscapularis
b. supraspinatus
c. infraspinatus
d. teres major
d. teres major
Medial rotation of the shoulder is needed to throw a fastball. The ______ muscle is responsible for this and part of the rotator cuff.
a. subscapularis
b. teres major
c. deltoid
d. trapezius
a. subscapularis
The infraspinatus is innervated by the:
a. suprascapula nerve
b. axillary nerve
c. radial nerve
d. subscapular nerve
a. suprascapula nerve
The lateral border of the triangular space is the _____.
a. teres minor
b. teres major
c. long head of the triceps
d. subscapularis
c. long head of the triceps
The inferior gluteal nerve innervates:
a. gluteus maximus
b. gluteus minimus
c. piriformis
d. psoas major
a. gluteus maximus
The superior gluteal nerve does not innervate:
a. piriformis
b. gluteus minimus
c. gluteus medius
d. tensor fascia latae
a. piriformis
Hip abduction is an action of which muscle?
a. pectineus
b. sartorius
c. adductor magnus
d. gluteus minimus
d. gluteus minimus
Which is the tailor’s muscle?
a. rectus femoris
b. sartorius
c. pes anserinus
d. psoas major
b. sartorius
Which is not part of the anatomical snuff box?
a. scaphoid
b. ulnar artery
c. extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
d. abductor pollicis longus
b. ulnar artery
Which is not a leg adductor?
a. pectineus
d. rectus femoris
c. gracilis
d. adductor brevis
d. rectus femoris
Which supplies the cremaster muscle at the L1-L2 level?
a. ilioinguinal nerve
b. femoral nerve
c. genitofemoral nerve
d. obturator nerve
c. genitofemoral nerve
Which nerve supplies the anterior extensor muscles of the leg?
a. tibial nerve
b. femoral nerve
c. obturator nerve
d. peroneal nerve
b. femoral nerve
The _____ muscle is not innervated by the tibial part of the sciatic nerve.
a. semimembranosus
b. biceps femoris
c. semitendinousus
d. superior gemellus
d. superior gemellus
The subscapular nerve innervates which muscle of the rotator cuff?
a. supraspinatus
b. subscapularis
c. teres minor
d. infraspinatus
b. subscapularis
The lateral border of the femoral triangle is the:
a. biceps femoris
b. sartorius
c. femoral nerve
d. greater saphenous vein
b. sartorius
Which is not part of the pes anserinus?
a. sartorius tendon
b. semitendinosus tendon
c. gracilis tendon
d. biceps femoris tendon
d. biceps femoris tendon
The superior border of the femoral triangle is composed of the ______.
a. femoral nerve
b. sartorius
c. inguinal ligament
d. femoral vein
c. inguinal ligament
The most posterior chamber of the heart is the _____.
a. left ventricle
b. right ventricle
c. left atrium
d. right atrium
c. left atrium
The calcaneus is the insertion for all of the following except:
a. plantaris
b. soleus
c. gastrocnemius
d. peroneus longus
d. peroneus longus
The lateral border of the cubital fossa is the _____.
a. pronator teres
b. humerus
c. ulna
d. brachioradialis
d. brachioradialis
All of the following are innervated by the obturator nerve except:
a. adductor magnus
b. adductor brevis
c. gracilis
d. iliacus
d. iliacus
The common hepatic artery supplies blood to all of the following except:
a. liver
b. esophagus
c. stomach
d. greater omentum
b. esophagus
The arch of the aorta branches directly into all of the following except:
a. left common carotid
b. right subclavian
c. left subclavian
d. brachiocephalic trunk
b. right subclavian
The brachiocephalic trunk branches into the right common carotid artery and the _____ artery.
a. right coronary
b. superior mesentaric
c. right subclavian
d. left axillary
c. right subclavian
The right and left vertebral arteries unite to form the _____ artery.
a. left subclavian
b. right subclavian
c. basilar
d. axillary
c. basilar
The right femoral artery directly branches into the ____ artery.
a. right anterior tibial
b. right popliteal
c. right peroneal
d. right dorsalis pedis
b. right popliteal
The naval is approximately at the level of ______.
a. T8
b. T10
c. T12
d. L1
b. T10
Which is not part of the spermatic cord?
a. urethra
b. cremaster muscle
c. testicular vein
d. testicular artery and nerves
a. urethra
Which functions as a storage place for sperm?
a. tunica vaginalis
b. testes
c. epididymis
d. vas deferens
c. epididymis
A continuation of the tail of the epididymis forms the:
a. vas deferens
b. urethra
c. spematic cord
d. penis
a. vas deferens
Which of the following is not responsible for the production of semen?
a. prostate gland
b. cowper’s gland
c. seminal vesicles
d. vas deferens
d. vas deferens
Sperm is produced in the _____.
a. seminiferous tubules
b. tunica vaginalis
c. prostate gland
d. vas deferens
a. seminiferous tubules
Which part of the fallopian tube does fertilization occur?
a. ampulla
b. isthmus
c. intramural part
d. infundibulum
d. infundibulum
Most cells of the pancreas are made of ____ cells.
a. alpha
b. beta
c. delta
d. acini
d. acini
Which of the following secrets gastrin?
a. mucous cells
b. enteroendocrine cells
c. parietal cells
d. peptic cells
b. enteroendocrine cells
Which part of the small intestine joins the large intestine at the ileoceccal valve?
a. ileum
b. cecum
c. duodenum
d. jejunum
a. ileum
All of the following are functions of the small intestine except:
a. acini cell secretion
b. B12 absorption
c. digestion
d. absorption of water
a. acini cell secretion
Which is not part of the large intestine?
a. cecum
b. rectum
c. ascending colon
d. ileum
d. ileum
Kupffer cells are found in the _____ and _____.
a. liver, makes proteins
b. kidney, filter bacteria and proteins out of the blood
c. stomach, break down complex carbohydrates into simple sugars
d. liver, filter bacteria and proteins out of the blood.
d. liver, filter bacteria and proteins out of the blood.
The functional unit of the liver is the _____; they consists of Kupffer cells.
a. bile canals
b. common bile duct
c. ligamentum teres
d. hepatic lobules
d. hepatic lobules
The ____ separates the left lobe and the quadrate lobe of the liver.
a. ligamentum venosum
b. ligamentum teres
c. caudate lobe
d. pinocytic vesicles
b. ligamentum teres
The quadrate lobe is bordered between the ligamentum teres and ______.
a. kidney
b. pancreas
c. gallbladder
d. ascending colon
c. gallbladder
Beta cells of the pancreatic Islets of Langerhans secrete:
a. glucagon
b. somatostatin
c. Ach
d. insulin
d. insulin
The most lateral bone is:
a. trapezium
b. pisiform
c. triquetrium
d. trapezoid
a. trapezium
The rhomoids are innervated by which of the following nerves?
a. axillary
b. long thoracic
c. subscapular
d. dorsal scapular
d. dorsal scapular
The olecranon is located on the ______ and the coracoid process is located on the ______.
a. ulna, scapula
b. radius, clavicle
c. ulna. clavicle
d. radius, scapula
a. ulna, scapula
The umbilicus is found in the _____ dermatome.
a. T7
b. T8
c. T10
d. T12
c. T10
Which part of the abdomen is directly superior to the right iliac region?
a. epigastric
b. umbilical
c. right lumbar
d. right hypochondriac
c. right lumbar
Skeletal muscle generally develops from the _____.
a. endoderm
b. ectoderm
c. neural tube
d. mesoderm
d. mesoderm
