Geriatric/Palliative Flashcards

1
Q

In frail elderly patients, starvation can be distinguished from cachexia by which one of the following? (check one)
An inflammatory response seen in starvation
A normal appetite in the early stages of cachexia
A rapid decrease in albumin in the early stages of starvation
A reversal of changes with refeeding in starvation

A

A reversal of changes with refeeding in starvation

In the frail elderly, it may be difficult to distinguish relative starvation due to decreased or inadequate caloric intake from cachexia, which is due to an inflammatory response with elevated cytokines. Appetite is decreased early in cases of cachexia but remains normal in the early stages of starvation. Likewise, albumin decreases early in cases of cachexia and later in starvation. Due to the inflammatory changes, cachexia is resistant to refeeding.

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2
Q

A patient with advanced dementia is bed-bound and requires total assistance with all activities of daily living. She was treated recently for pneumonia, which has raised concerns that she is aspirating. Her oral intake has decreased and is not adequate for the patient’s nutritional requirements. She does not have an advance directive. You schedule a family conference.

Which one of the following is your recommended approach to this problem? (check one)
Clear liquids
Intravenous fluids
Hand feeding
Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube feeding
Nasogastric tube feeding

A

Hand feeding

The American Geriatrics Society (AGS) position statement on feeding tubes states that percutaneous feeding tubes are not recommended for older adults with advanced dementia, and that careful hand feeding should be offered instead. This is the first recommendation by the AGS in the Choosing Wisely campaign.

Careful hand feeding for patients with severe dementia is at least as good as tube feeding with regard to the outcomes of death, aspiration pneumonia, functional status, and patient comfort. Regular food is preferred. Tube feeding is associated with agitation, increased use of physical and chemical restraints, and worsening pressure ulcers.

The preponderance of evidence does not support the use of tube feedings, based upon expert opinion and extensive observational data. Published empirical work using observational data is highly consistent regarding the lack of efficacy for tube feeding in this population.

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3
Q

An 85-year-old male is brought to your office by his family because they are concerned that he may be depressed.

Which one of the following is most likely in a depressed patient in this age group? (check one)
Suicidal ideation
Somatic symptoms
Depressed mood
Preoccupation with guilt

A

Somatic symptoms

Somatic complaints are seen in up to two-thirds of primary care patients with depression, and are more likely in certain groups, including pregnant women, children, the elderly, and low-income groups.

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4
Q

A 77-year-old female is admitted to the critical care unit for acute respiratory failure and is on a ventilator for more than 48 hours. Stress ulcer prophylaxis is ordered.

This prophylaxis should be continued until (check one)
venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is stopped
the patient is transferred out of the critical care unit
the patient is discharged from the hospital
the patient is discharged from a skilled care or rehabilitation care facility
30 days after discharge from the hospital

A

the patient is transferred out of the critical care unit

Not all hospitalized patients need stress ulcer prophylaxis. Routine acid-suppression therapy to prevent stress ulcers has no benefit in hospitalized patients outside of the critical care setting. Only critically ill patients who meet specific criteria should receive this therapy. One indication for stress ulcer prophylaxis is prolonged mechanical ventilation for more than 48 hours. Hemodynamically stable patients admitted to general care floors should not receive stress ulcer prophylaxis, as it only decreases the rate of gastrointestinal bleeding from 0.33% to 0.22%. Furthermore, long-term proton pump inhibitor therapy has been associated with complications such as Clostridium difficile diarrhea and community-acquired pneumonia. Discontinuation of stress ulcer prophylaxis should be considered for this patient when she moves out of the critical care unit. It could also be considered when the patient is removed from the ventilator.

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5
Q

A 75-year-old male reports that his handwriting seems more “cramped,” he has started shuffling more as he walks, and he has been experiencing some difficulty turning over in bed, rising from a chair, and opening jars. He also reports increasing body stiffness and a resting tremor in his hand.

Given the stage of his disease, which one of the following options for initial medical management is supported by the best evidence? (check one)
Amantadine
Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
Benztropine
Carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet)
Entacapone (Comtan)

A

Carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet)

All of the drugs listed are used to treat motor symptoms in patients with Parkinson’s disease. However, the best evidence supports the use of carbidopa/levodopa, non-ergot dopamine agonists such as pramipexole or ropinirole, or monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors such as selegiline or rasagiline for initial management of patients with early disease (SOR A).

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6
Q

A disheveled 89-year-old male with dementia who relies on a caregiver for bathing, dressing, shopping, and meal preparation is brought in for continued evaluation of weight loss. No medical cause has been found at this point. On examination a large purplish bruise is noted over his posterior leg and a more faded greenish-yellow bruise is noted over his abdomen, which his caregiver explains by saying that he has fallen several times recently. The patient is also noted to have a large sacral decubitus ulcer.

Which one of the following should you suspect as the cause of bruising in this patient? (check one)
Senile purpura
Thrombocytopenia
Leukemia
Elder abuse
Cushing syndrome

A

Elder abuse

This patient has numerous red flags for elder abuse, including unexplained weight loss, reliance on a caregiver, a disheveled appearance, a pressure ulcer, and bruising in locations that are not typically associated with unintentional trauma from falls. Although the other listed causes of bruising are possible, in this scenario the index of suspicion should be highest for elder abuse.

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7
Q

An elderly male who has an implanted cardioverter-defibrillator is admitted to long-term care. He has several chronic comorbidities, including hypertension, a previous stroke, coronary artery disease, osteoarthritis, advanced chronic systolic heart failure, chronic kidney disease with a calculated glomerular filtration rate of 20 mL/min/1.73 m2, diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia.

The patient’s quality of life has declined to the point that he wishes to receive only palliative care. He does not want aggressive treatments, including hospitalization, except for reasons of comfort. He has decided he does not wish to be resuscitated, including CPR or intubation.

When considering his goals, and after consultation with the patient and his spouse, which one of the following would be most appropriate for managing his defibrillator? (check one)
Adjust the defibrillator to deliver shocks only for ventricular fibrillation
Adjust the defibrillator to deliver shocks only for a heart rate >140 beats/min
Remove the defibrillator generator
Deactivate the defibrillator
Make no change to the defibrillator

A

Deactivate the defibrillator

It is recommended that an implanted cardioverter-defibrillator be deactivated when it is inconsistent with the care goals of the patient and family. In about one-quarter of patients with an implanted cardioverter-defibrillator, the defibrillator delivers shocks in the weeks preceding death. For patients with advanced irreversible disease, defibrillator shocks rarely prevent death, may be painful, and are distressing to caregivers and family members. Advance care planning discussions should include the option of deactivating the implanted cardioverter-defibrillator when it no longer supports the patient’s goals.

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8
Q

Mild cognitive impairment is characterized by which one of the following? (check one)
Localized motor dysfunction
Impairment in at least one activity of daily living
Impairment in at least one instrumental activity of daily living
The presence of the APO E4 allele
Objective evidence of memory decline

A

Objective evidence of memory decline

Mild cognitive impairment is an intermediate stage between normal cognitive function and dementia. Motor function remains normal. The presence of the APO E4 allele is a risk factor, but is not necessary for a diagnosis. Patients have essentially normal functional activities but there is objective evidence of memory impairment, and the patient may express concerns about cognitive decline.

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9
Q

The Timed Up and Go test consists of a patient rising from a chair, walking 3 meters (or about 10 feet), turning around, walking back, and sitting back down. The average healthy adult over the age of 60 can perform this in how many seconds? (check one)
5
10
20
30
45

A

10

For the average adult over the age of 60, the normal time required for the Timed Up and Go test is 10 seconds. A time longer than 10 seconds may indicate weakness, a balance or gait problem, and/or an increased fall risk.

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10
Q

Which one of the following is considered first-line therapy for mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease?

(check one)
Donepezil (Aricept)
Memantine (Namenda)
Selegiline (Eldepryl)
Risperidone (Risperdal)
Ginkgo biloba

A

Donepezil (Aricept)

Anticholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil are considered first-line therapy for patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease (SOR A). Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is often used in combination with anticholinesterase inhibitors for moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease, but it has not been shown to be effective as a single agent for patients with mild to moderate disease. There is not enough evidence to support the use of selegiline, a monoamine oxidase type B inhibitor, in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease. Risperidone and other antipsychotic medications are not approved by the Food and Drug Administration for treatment of Alzheimer’s disease, but can sometimes be helpful in controlling associated behavioral symptoms. Studies of ginkgo biloba extract have not shown a consistent, clinically significant benefit in persons with Alzheimer’s disease.

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11
Q

Which one of the following activities is most likely to be impaired in early dementia?

(check one)  Dressing  Eating  Toileting  Grooming  Cooking
A

Cooking

Basic activities of daily living, such as dressing, eating, toileting, and grooming, are generally intact in early dementia. In contrast, instrumental activities of daily living, such as managing money and medications, shopping, cooking, housekeeping, and transportation, which often require calculation or planning, are frequently impaired in early dementia.

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12
Q

A 72-year-old female with a history of hypertension, previous stroke with no residual deficits, and mild cognitive impairment presents for an annual health maintenance examination. Her documented weight 6 months ago was 79 kg (174 lb) and her current weight is 73 kg (161 lb). She is sedentary and has not changed her diet.

Which one of the following is true about this patient’s condition? (check one)
It is associated with increased mortality
It is associated with a lower risk of cardiovascular disease
More than 50% of patients with this condition will be diagnosed with a malignancy
High-calorie dietary supplements are recommended as primary treatment
Medications do not contribute to her condition

A

It is associated with increased mortality

This patient has experienced a significant but unintentional weight loss of more than 5% in 6 months. Such weight loss has been associated with increased mortality in the elderly in several studies. An evaluation for etiology of the weight loss should be completed, including a history with a medication review and a physical examination, but many medical and psychiatric conditions are associated with unintentional weight loss. Unintentional weight loss is not associated with a lower risk of cardiovascular disease. About one-third of patients with unintentional weight loss will be diagnosed with a malignancy. In the Choosing Wisely campaign, the American Geriatrics Society recommended avoidance of high-calorie dietary supplements and appetite stimulants due to the lack of evidence that they improve quality of life or offer a survival benefit. A Cochrane review of supplements in elderly patients showed a small weight gain but no overall mortality benefit. Medications, including polypharmacy, can contribute to unintentional weight loss.

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13
Q

An 85-year-old male is admitted to a nursing home due to weakness, debility, and limitation of activities of daily living (ADLs) after being hospitalized for acute community-acquired pneumonia. He previously lived with his wife independently and his goal is to return home when he is strong enough. He has a history of coronary artery disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with diet, hypertension, and chronic diastolic heart failure, but he has no symptoms related to these chronic problems. His appetite is poor and he has lost a significant amount of weight. His admission diet order from the hospital was a cardiac diet.

Which one of the following would be the most appropriate diet for this patient?
(check one)
A regular diet
An American Heart Association diet
A diet with no added salt
An 1800-calorie/day American Diabetes Association diet
A diet with no concentrated sweets

A

A regular diet

This patient should be provided with a regular diet, which may promote weight gain in nursing-home residents with unintentional weight loss. Malnutrition and unintentional weight loss are significant problems in nursing-home residents and lead to multiple complications, including pressure ulcers and infections. The American Dietetic Association recommends liberalizing diets to improve nutritional status and quality of life in older adults. A small study demonstrated equivalent glycemic control in nursing-home residents who ate a regular diet compared to those who ate a restricted American Diabetes Association diet (SOR C). Low-salt and low-cholesterol diets are unpalatable and are often associated with protein-energy malnutrition and postural hypotension in older persons. Special diets should be avoided whenever possible in nursing-home patients.

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14
Q

You are the attending physician at a long-term care facility. A new resident, an 85-year-old female, presents for an initial evaluation. Upon reviewing her history, you find that she is on 18 different medications. Until you can obtain additional history and medical records, you decide to stop or decrease some of her medications and monitor her response.

Which one of the following would be most appropriate to stop or decrease initially?
(check one)
Sertraline (Zoloft), 25 mg daily
Acetaminophen/diphenhydramine (Tylenol PM), 500 mg/25 mg daily
Dipyridamole/aspirin (Aggrenox), 200 mg/25 mg daily
Digoxin, 0.125 mg every other day
Omeprazole (Prilosec), 20 mg daily

A

Acetaminophen/diphenhydramine (Tylenol PM), 500 mg/25 mg daily

Polypharmacy is common in the elderly population, but the use of numerous medications is necessary in some elderly patients. However, some medications have been identified as having a considerably higher potential to cause problems when prescribed to elderly patients.

In the case described, acetaminophen/diphenhydramine would be an appropriate medication to stop initially. The older antihistamines cause many adverse CNS effects such as cognitive slowing and delirium in older patients. These effects are more pronounced in elderly patients with some degree of preexisting cognitive impairment. The anticholinergic properties of older antihistamines produce effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and drowsiness. The sedative effect of older antihistamines also increases the risk of falls. Hip fracture and subsequent death have been reported in patients who use older antihistamines such as diphenhydramine.

Sertraline is an SSRI, a preferred class for the treatment of depression in the elderly compared to the tricyclic antidepressants, which are associated with several side effects. Dipyridamole is associated with hypotension in elderly patients, but it benefits some individuals by preventing strokes. It can be used in the elderly, but patients should be monitored for side effects. Therefore, until further information is obtained, it is appropriate to continue the dipyridamole/aspirin in this patient.
When used in elderly patients with heart failure, digoxin should be given in a dosage no greater than 0.125 mg daily; the low dosage used in this individual should not be considered inappropriate until the reason for its use is clarified. While omeprazole can cause problems in the elderly with long-term use, 20 mg/day is a relatively low dose and the decision to discontinue its use should be delayed until more history is available.

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15
Q

Total parenteral nutrition is most appropriate for patients: (check one)
With poorly functioning gastrointestinal tracts who cannot tolerate enteral feeding
Who cannot swallow because of an esophageal motility problem
Who refuse to eat
In whom maintenance nutrition is desired for a short period following recovery from surgery

A

With poorly functioning gastrointestinal tracts who cannot tolerate enteral feeding

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is indicated for patients with poorly functioning gastrointestinal tracts who cannot tolerate other means of nutritional support and for those with high caloric requirements that cannot otherwise be met. Patients who cannot swallow because of an esophageal motility problem and those who are resistant to feeding can be managed with tube feedings. Peripheral alimentation, which provides fewer calories than TPN or liquid tube feedings, would be more appropriate over the short term in patients recovering from surgery.

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16
Q

In healthy adults, performance on the Folstein Mini-Mental State Examination is affected by which one of the following? (check one)
Educational attainment
Socioeconomic status
Gender
Race

A

Educational attainment

The Mini-Mental State Examination, developed by Folstein in 1975, has become a standard tool for rapid clinical assessment of cognitive impairment. The score is known to be affected by the patient’s educational attainment. Given the same level of cognitive impairment, those with higher education levels score somewhat better than those with less education. Race, sex, and socioeconomic status per se do not affect patients’ scores.

17
Q

Of the following, which is the most frequent cause of seizures in the elderly? (check one)
Alcohol withdrawal
Stroke
Head trauma
Hypoglycemia
Dementia

A

Stroke

The conditions listed are all causes of seizures. Of course, there are many other causes of seizures in the elderly, including primary and metastatic neoplasias (e.g., electrolyte disorders). However, in the geriatric population, cerebrovascular disease is the most common cause of seizures, with about 10% of stroke victims developing epileptic seizures. Seizures are more common following hemorrhagic strokes compared to nonhemorrhagic strokes.

18
Q

An 82-year-old male resident of a nursing home has developed symptoms of depression including withdrawal and sadness. The staff also reports that he doesn’t want to leave his room, and often expresses a desire to stay in bed all day. After performing an appropriate evaluation and recommending nonpharmacologic interventions, you also decide that pharmacologic treatment is indicated. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate antidepressant for this patient? (check one)
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Doxepin (Sinequan)
Trazodone (Desyrel)
Sertraline (Zoloft)
Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

A

Sertraline (Zoloft)

Amitriptyline, doxepin, MAO inhibitors, and clomipramine should be avoided in nursing-home patients. SSRIs are the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for depression in nursing-home residents. Other classes of non-tricyclic antidepressants may be effective and appropriate, but the evidence for this is not as good as the evidence for SSRIs.

19
Q

An 82-year-old male requires a walker for ambulation. To be eligible for home health services, Medicare requires a patient to be homebound. The patient reports that leaving home is difficult and exhausting.

Which one of the following conditions could disqualify a patient from being considered homebound? (check one)
Attending a support group at an adult day care program two times per week
Going to the grocery store three times per week
Attending his church for Mass three times per week
Going to outpatient dialysis three times per week

A

Going to the grocery store three times per week

A Medicare beneficiary must meet certain criteria to be considered homebound and obtain home health services. The first criterion is that when leaving the home, the patient requires the assistance of another person, special transportation, or a support device such as a cane, walker, or wheelchair. Alternatively, a medical contraindication to leaving home could exist. If the first criterion is met, there must be a normal inability to leave home and leaving requires a considerable and taxing effort. It is stipulated that attending religious services, therapeutic or psychosocial treatment at a licensed adult day care program, or outpatient dialysis or cancer treatments should not disqualify a patient from being considered homebound. Visiting the grocery store is not stipulated as an exception.

20
Q

For patients with terminal pancreatic cancer, lung cancer, or metastatic melanoma, which one of the following is the potential increase in life expectancy from receiving hospice care? (check one)
No increase
3 months
6 months
9 months
12 months

A

3 months

Multiple retrospective cohort studies from 2007, 2014, and 2015 have demonstrated an increased life expectancy of up to 3.3 months for patients with terminal cancer, specifically terminal pancreatic cancer, lung cancer, and metastatic melanoma, who received 3 or more days of hospice care. Some benefit was noted in patients with even 1 day of hospice care (SOR B). This extended life expectancy associated with hospice care was not observed in patients with terminal prostate or breast cancer. Family physicians should present the option of home hospice care to such patients early in their prognosis.

21
Q

Sympathomimetic decongestants such as pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine can be problematic in elderly patients because they can: (check one)
decrease blood pressure
cause bradycardia
worsen existing urinary obstruction
enhance the anticholinergic effects of other medications
enhance the sedative effects of other medications

A

worsen existing urinary obstruction

Sympathomimetic agents can elevate blood pressure and intraocular pressure, may worsen existing urinary obstruction, and adversely interact with -blockers, methyldopa, tricyclic antidepressants, and oral hypoglycemic agents and MAOIs. They also speed up the heart rate. First-generation nonprescription antihistamines can enhance the anticholinergic and sedative effects of other medications.

22
Q

The daughter of an 82-year-old bedbound female with Alzheimer dementia requests a home visit to discuss transitions of care due to continued deterioration of her mother’s condition. The daughter has been the caregiver for the past 5 years since her mother began to struggle with independently managing her activities of daily living (ADLs). Recently, the patient’s appetite has significantly diminished, and her daughter is concerned that she has lost 15 lb in the last 6 months. She asks about feeding tube placement, medications to help her appetite, or ways to improve her dementia. The patient no longer recognizes her daughter and is nonverbal but smiles when approached at her bedside upon examination. Her vital signs are stable, she appears cachectic, a physical examination is unremarkable, and pain is not present upon palpation.

Which one of the following is recommended at this time? (check one)
Assisted oral feeding
Initiation of a high-calorie supplement
Initiation of a cholinesterase inhibitor
Initiation of an appetite stimulant
Percutaneous feeding tube placement

A

Assisted oral feeding

According to the American Geriatrics Society’s Choosing Wisely recommendations, oral handfeeding is no worse for outcomes such as aspiration pneumonia, patient comfort, and death compared to percutaneous feeding tube placement. Agitation and pressure ulcers may worsen with tube feeding. High-calorie shakes or supplements and appetite stimulants are not recommended as they may increase weight but do not improve patient-oriented outcomes such as functional status, quality of life, or survival. Furthermore, appetite stimulants such as megestrol acetate may increase the risk of thrombosis and edema, and hasten death. According to randomized, controlled trials, cholinesterase inhibitors may statistically improve cognitive testing results, but they do not produce meaningful improvement. This patient is approaching end-stage Alzheimer dementia and initiating a cholinesterase inhibitor will not improve functioning and may even worsen appetite, as a common side effect is gastrointestinal disturbance.

23
Q

A 70-year-old male presents with his wife because they are concerned that he may be developing dementia. Among other symptoms, he has a resting tremor and describes detailed hallucinations that are colorful, vivid, and include animals.

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one)
Alzheimer disease
Dementia with Lewy bodies
Frontotemporal dementia
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Vascular dementia

A

Dementia with Lewy bodies

Core clinical features of dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) include:

*delirium-like fluctuations in cognition with pronounced variations in attention and alertness
*hallucinations
*spontaneous parkinsonism features such as bradykinesia, resting tremor, or rigidity
*REM sleep behavior disorder (recurrent dream enactment behavior that includes movements mimicking dream content and absence of normal REM sleep atonia)

Vivid, colorful hallucinations occur in about 80% of patients with DLB. They can be three-dimensional and tend to include people, children, or animals. Patients are generally able to report these hallucinations to physicians. While hallucinations can occur in other types of dementia, they are a clinical signpost to the diagnosis of DLB.

24
Q

Which one of the following nutritional interventions should be recommended to accelerate pressure ulcer healing in the elderly? (check one)
Supplemental arginine
Oral vitamin C and zinc
High-dose multivitamins
Adequate protein intake

A

Adequate protein intake

Very few nutritional interventions have been shown to accelerate pressure ulcer healing in the elderly.
Maintaining a protein intake of at least 1.2–1.5 g/kg/day is recommended, and some authorities
recommend 2 g/kg/day with stage III or IV ulcers. Increased caloric intake is also necessary to promote
healing. The role of vitamins and minerals in preventing and treating pressure ulcers is unclear.

25
Q

You are initiating pharmacologic therapy for a 75-year-old patient with depression. Which one of the following would be most appropriate for this patient? (check one)
Amitriptyline
Escitalopram (Lexapro)
Imipramine (Tofranil)
Paroxetine (Paxil)

A

Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Escitalopram is a preferred antidepressant for older patients (SOR C). Paroxetine should generally be avoided in older patients due to a higher likelihood of adverse effects (SOR C). Amitriptyline, imipramine, and paroxetine are highly anticholinergic and sedating, and according to the Beers Criteria, they can cause orthostatic hypotension. They have an “avoid” recommendation (SOR A).

26
Q

An 85-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer requests hospice care. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus, stage 3 renal failure, and heart disease.

The patient’s eligibility for hospice care will be based on her (check one)
age
cancer diagnosis
comorbid conditions
life expectancy
Medicare Part B plan

A

life expectancy

Eligibility for hospice care is based on a life expectancy of 6 months or less in the natural course of an illness. A majority of hospice patients have cancer but it is not a requirement to qualify for hospice care. Age is not relevant. Comorbid conditions may affect longevity but are not required. For those insured by Medicare, Medicare Part A provides hospice care but Medicare Part B does not.

27
Q

A 68-year-old patient sees you for treatment of depression. When considering potential adverse effects of antidepressants, which one of the following would be the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient? (check one)
Amitriptyline
Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Nortriptyline (Pamelor)
Sertraline (Zoloft)
Venlafaxine (Effexor XR)

A

Sertraline (Zoloft)

A recent review from the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) found the frequency of adverse events in older adults taking SSRIs such as sertraline and escitalopram was similar to placebo (SOR B). SSRIs also have lower discontinuation rates than tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline or nortriptyline during treatment of up to 12 weeks (SOR B).

Evidence suggests that SNRIs including duloxetine and venlafaxine cause more adverse events and greater discontinuation of therapy during treatment of up to 12 weeks when compared to placebo (SOR B). A randomized, controlled trial involving duloxetine demonstrated an increased risk of treatment withdrawal due to adverse events and an increased risk of falls over 12–24 weeks.

Venlafaxine was compared to no antidepressant use in a large cohort study that had a median treatment period of 364 days and was associated with an increased risk of falls, fractures, and mortality.

28
Q

A nursing home resident is hospitalized, and shortly before she is to be discharged she develops a skin ulcer that proves to be infected with MRSA. Which one of the following is most important in terms of infection control when she returns to the nursing home? (check one)
Surveillance cultures of residents with rooms near the patient
Aggressive housekeeping in the patient’s room
Masks, gowns, and gloves for anyone entering the patient’s room
Strict handwashing practices by all staff, visitors, and residents
Isolation of the patient in a room by herself

A

Strict handwashing practices by all staff, visitors, and residents

All staff, visitors, and nursing home residents should observe strict handwashing practices when a resident has a MRSA infection. Barrier precautions for wounds and medical devices should also be initiated. Surveillance cultures are not warranted. Aggressive housekeeping practices play little, if any, role in preventing the spread of MRSA. Isolating the patient is not practical or cost effective.

29
Q

An 85-year-old male nursing home resident with a past history of a stroke has developed a pressure ulcer over his right greater trochanter. The ulcer is 2 cm in size and is noted to be shallow with a reddish-pink wound base. There is no evidence of secondary infection.

Which one of the following would be best for cleansing the wound? (check one)
Tap water
Aluminum acetate (Burow’s solution)
Hydrogen peroxide
Povidone/iodine solution (Betadine)
Sodium hypochlorite (Dakin’s solution)

A

Tap water

This patient has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. It is recommended that pressure ulcers not be cleaned with povidone/iodine, Dakin’s solution, hydrogen peroxide, wet-to-dry dressings, or any solutions that may impede granulation tissue formation. These sites should be cleaned with either saline or tap water and covered with hydrocolloid, foam, or another nonadherent dressing that promotes a moist environment.

30
Q

A 94-year-old male with Alzheimer disease, heart failure, and chronic low back pain is brought to your office by his daughter who cares for him in her home. The daughter is interested in any support available for her father, and she asks specific questions about palliative care and hospice.

Which one of the following is needed to qualify for palliative care? (check one)
An advance directive
A do-not-resuscitate status
A life expectancy <6 months
Pain
Serious illness

A

Serious illness

Palliative care is a team-based approach to the care of patients with serious illness. Palliative care aims to reduce symptoms and stress from a serious illness. Palliative care can function alongside treatment for serious illness. While it has traditionally been used for patients with cancer, it is available to any patient with a disease that cannot be cured.§While palliative care teams can assist patients and their caregivers with advance directives and resuscitation status, there is no requirement for these to be done prior to qualifying for care. Patients are not required to have a limited life expectancy as with hospice care. The most common symptom in patients receiving palliative care is pain but it is not a criterion for qualification.

31
Q

A 75-year-old male sees you for evaluation of a unilateral resting tremor of his right hand. The tremor resolves if he is touched on the hand by someone. His wife notes that he seems to drag his feet now, but he has no history of falls.

Which one of the following has been shown to delay progression of his disease? (check one)
No currently available pharmacologic agents
Amantadine
Carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet)
Rasagiline (Azilect)
Ropinirole

A

No currently available pharmacologic agents

There are no currently available medications that have been shown to delay progression of Parkinson’s disease. However, guidelines recommend initiating the treatment of motor symptoms when they begin to affect the functions of daily life or decrease the quality of life. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms is carbidopa/levodopa due to its effectiveness for tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. It is a myth that delaying the use of levodopa will prevent a lack of efficacy later in the course of the illness, as what appears to be a lack of efficacy actually represents progression of the disease.

Amantadine can be used for patients under 65 years of age who are only experiencing tremors. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors such as rasagiline and non-ergot dopamine agonists such as ropinirole are not as effective as carbidopa/levodopa for motor symptoms, but they do not cause the dyskinesias and motor fluctuations seen with levodopa. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are considered first-line therapy for patients under age 65 with mild motor symptoms.

32
Q

An 84-year-old male nursing home resident with dementia is noted to have a weight loss of about 5% in the past 6 months. Which one of the following would be most appropriate? (check one)
Avoiding dietary restrictions
An appetite stimulant
Vitamin B12, vitamin D, and selenium supplements
An omega-3 fatty acid supplement
Tube feeding

A

Avoiding dietary restrictions

Effective interventions for weight loss in nursing home patients include providing meals in a pleasant,
home-like environment. Avoiding dietary restrictions has low quality evidence of effectiveness. There is
high quality evidence that initiating tube feedings in patients with severe dementia is not only ineffective
but may lead to problems such as decubitus ulcers and aspiration. There is low to very low evidence of
the effectiveness for prescribing appetite stimulants, selenium, vitamin B, or vitamin D supplements unless
there is a documented deficiency. Neither quality of life nor survival is improved.

33
Q

An 85-year-old male presents for an annual Medicare examination. His wife tells you that he has been repeating himself in conversations, buying the same item multiple times, and taking longer to complete routine tasks such as balancing the checkbook. He recalls 1 out of 3 items on the Mini-Cognitive Assessment Instrument (Mini-Cog) and is unable to draw a clock. A depression screening is negative.

Which one of the following is the greatest risk factor for this patient’s condition? (check one)
Advanced age
Atrial fibrillation
Diabetes mellitus
A history of head trauma
Smoking

A

Advanced age

Dementia is a significant condition affecting 5 million adults and that number is likely to expand in the future due to the increasing number of individuals over age 65. The overall prevalence of dementia is around 5%, but it is 37% in those over age 90. Sixty percent to 80% of dementia is due to Alzheimer disease. The greatest risk factor for dementia is older age. Strong risk factors include diabetes mellitus, midlife obesity, a family history of dementia, a personal history of cardiovascular disease, cerebrovascular disease, use of anticholinergic medications, apolipoprotein E4 genotype, and a low education level. Other potential risk factors that lack strong evidence include atrial fibrillation, smoking, head trauma, substance abuse such as alcohol use disorder, and medications such as benzodiazepines and proton pump inhibitors.