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EDV - 2024 > GenSubs Workbook > Flashcards

GenSubs Workbook Flashcards

1
Q

Name two ways you can recognize windshear:

A
  • 15 knot airspeed
  • 500 ft./min. vertical change
  • 5° pitch change
  • 1 dot GS change
  • abnormal thrust
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2
Q

Low pressure system is a _____ system, The air flows ______,______, and _____.

A
  • Cyclonic system
  • Counterclockwise
  • Inward and upward
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3
Q

How large/What are SCLs?

A

Larger than 100 to 150 µm (microns), Super Cooled Liquid Droplets

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4
Q

What constitutes a severe icing?

A
  • Droplets of 175 µm or larger
  • Ice forming on side cockpit windows
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5
Q

On an approach with icing, a go-around may ___ be an option

A

Not

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6
Q

Where can you find Delta turbulence plot advisories?

A

On the release, above TLR

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7
Q

What are some hazards of turbulence? (4)

A
  1. Engine Flame Out
  2. injury to passengers and crew
  3. damage to aircraft
  4. negative affects on performance during critical phases
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8
Q

Microburst can cause significant windshear up to ____ knots, and up to _____ feet per minute downdrafts

A

90 knots / 6000 FPM

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9
Q

During hot weather operations, Endeavor will delay boarding when cabin temperature exceeds ___°C

When cabin temperatures exceed ___°C crews need to ensure the APU is running while parked

A

33°C and 30°C

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10
Q

Is there any anti-icing protection on the tail of the aircraft?

A

No

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11
Q

CONTINUOUS icing is expected in _____ clouds, and the TYPE is _____

A

Status clouds, type is Rime ice.

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12
Q

INTERMITTENT icing is expected in _____ clouds, and the TYPE is _____

A

Cumulus clouds, type of ice is clear/glaze

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13
Q

What must be done (2 steps):

Before the first flight of the day, when the airplane is cold-soaked at an ambient temperature of -30°C (-22°F) or below, for more than 8 hours:

A
  1. The engines must be motor for 60 seconds and fan rotation must be verified before an engine start is initiated
  2. Thrust reverser‘s must be actuated until deploy and stow cycles are 2 seconds or less
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14
Q

What does it mean if an aircraft is cold-soaked?

A

The aircraft was at an ambient temperature of -30°C or lower for more than 8 hours

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15
Q
  • When will a CRJ 900 crew perform a pre-takeoff check?
  • What surfaces are they to check?
A

When they expect to take off within the HOT.

The check is to be accomplished just prior to takeoff.

They will perform a visual check, from the flight deck, of:
* windshield wiper surface and center post
* leading edge
* upper surface of wings

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16
Q

When must a CRJ 900 crew perform a pre-takeoff contamination check?

Who completes the inspection, and what surfaces are they to check?

A

When a HOT has been exceeded.

The FO will complete this inspection!!!!

Must be completed from the Vantage Point (row 12) in the cabin.

If the surfaces cannot be seen, then a check must be made from outside the aircraft.

If definitive fluid condition cannot be determined, takeoff is not authorized and you must return to the pad for new fluid.

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17
Q

What eight things must be included in the deice communication?

A
  1. Ship number
  2. type
  3. brand
  4. freezing point of fluid
  5. time final application was started (minutes ago)
  6. clearance to start engines
  7. Instructions/clearance to leave the pad
  8. verification to post deice inspection has been complete.
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18
Q

In regards to snowfall intensities, when do we not use the chart?

A

Must always use chart EXCEPT when visibility is being reduced with snow+other form of obscuration (smoke, fog, etc). In this case FAA Snow intensity chart does not have to be used.

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19
Q

Flight crew members are required to report to duty ____ minutes prior to schedule departure time.

A

45 min

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20
Q

The release time is ____ minutes after BLOCK-IN at the gate

A

15 min

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21
Q

The only time a pilot is allowed to exceed flight time limitations is:

A

Due to unforeseen operational circumstances after takeoff

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22
Q

Scheduled time of report is based on what ______ time

A

Domicile

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23
Q

Your body is governed by _____ _____, the low times are known as __________ or WOCL

A
  • Circadian Rhythm
  • window of circadian low
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24
Q

Can your rest period ever be reduced below 10 hours?

A

No

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25
Q

Who does a pilot call when calling in fatigued? What form should be filled out if a fatigue call is made? Where do you find this form? How soon should you fill out the form?

A
  • Crew scheduling
  • Fatigue report form
  • Endeavor website - flight ops - WBAT
  • Complete the report by the end of the calendar day following fatigue event (72 hours to notify manager of flight safety)
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26
Q

What are 4 instrument approaches EDV is not authorized to use?

A
  • NDB
  • LPV
  • LNAV/VNAV
  • PAR
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27
Q

When must a pilot execute an immediate go around?

A
  1. Unstable
  2. Full-scale deflection of one pilots CDI
  3. Equipment failure that changes the approach procedure’s minimums
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28
Q

On the CRJ 700 where should pilots crew baggage be stored?

A

13AB - Captain
16AB - FO
Any bag that doesn’t fit gets checked and counted as a regular bag

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29
Q

On the CRJ 900 where should pilots crew baggage be stored?

A
  • G2 Compartment 1 Pilot bag and 13AB 1Pilot bag.
  • Without G2 Compartment and without aft closet use 13AB Captain bag and 18AB First Officer bag.
  • With aft closet behind row 18 all crew bags stowed in aft wardrobe closet.
  • Any bag that doesn’t fit must be valet checked and counted as a regular bag. (22” roller bags should fit)
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30
Q

What is basic operating weight?

A

BOW is the complete weight of the aircraft for revenue flight minus payload and fuel

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31
Q

What makes up zero fuel weight?

A

BOW + payload.

Does not include usable fuel.

Must not exceed MZFW.

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32
Q

What makes up ramp weight?

A

ZFW + fuel weight

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33
Q

What makes up takeoff gross weight?

A

Ramp weight - taxi burn

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34
Q

What makes up landing weight?

A

Takeoff gross weight - enroute burn

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35
Q

When are winter weights utilized? (date range)

A

November 1 - April 30

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36
Q

When are summer weights utilized? (date range)

A

May 1 - October 31

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37
Q

What are the winter weights for adults and children?

A
  • Adults = 205
  • children = 91
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38
Q

What are the summer weights for adults and children?

A
  • Adults = 200
  • Children = 86
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39
Q

What age are considered infants?

A

Under 2 years old, they count as 23 pounds

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40
Q

Bag Weight Standards

Standard, Heavy, Planeside/Valet

A
  • Standard = 33
  • Heavy = 56
  • Planeside = 21
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41
Q

What is the difference between Endeavor‘s and Delta’s pink tag/plane side baggage retrieval service?

A

Endeavor = picked up on Jetbridge or outside the plane.

Delta = picked up at destination at baggage claim

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42
Q

What system is utilized to calculate weight and balance for our flights?

A

AeroData

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43
Q

How is weight and balance normally received?

A

ACARS

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44
Q

When you receive weight and balance information via radio from dispatch, what items must be read back? (3)

A

STAB (TRIM) GROSS PASSENGERS!!!!

Take off trim settings, takeoff gross weight, total number of passengers

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45
Q

What page in ACARS will you enter load information if you need to manually enter information?

A

Loadsheet

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46
Q

On the crew page on ACARS, what do you need to do if one of the FA jumpseats is deferred? Does the FA count in the passenger count?

A
  1. Enter deferred in FA jumpseat
  2. No the FA is not counted, AeroData calculates this
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47
Q

If the captain is receiving a line check, what should you enter into the ACARS page?

A

That there is an ACM (additional crewmember) in the jumpseat

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48
Q

Weight and Balance (900/700)

  1. MRW
  2. MTOW
  3. MLW
  4. MZFW
  5. Min Flight Weight
A

900/700
1. 85 - 75.25
2. 84.5 - 75
3. 75.1 - 67
4. 70.75 - 62.3
5. 45 - 42

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49
Q

What is the maximum AFT cargo weight for the 700 and 900?

A

3650 pounds for both aircraft

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50
Q

What is the maximum FWD cargo weight limit for the 700 and 900?

A

700 = 1000 pounds

900 = 1700 pounds

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51
Q

A runaway incursion is:

A

The incorrect placement of a person, vehicle or aircraft on a protected surface used for takeoff and landing without clearance, at an aerodrome.

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52
Q

During taxi, deviations from pilots can be a result of:

A
  1. Loss of situational awareness (people make mistakes)
  2. poor communication with ATC or other crewmembers (cockpit procedures)
  3. poor airport signage or familiarization (airport knowledge)
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53
Q

Low visibility taxi is below ____ RVR.

A

1200

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54
Q

During a low visibility taxi, which crew member(s) must have the airport diagram and low visibility chart displayed for reference?

A

Both flight crew members

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55
Q

What does SMGCS stand for?

A

Surface movement guidance and control system

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56
Q

SMGCS charts are for less than

A

1200 RVR

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57
Q

In low visibility, all pre-departure checklist are done while the aircraft is:

A

Stopped

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58
Q

Low Vis Taxi procedures

  1. What is low vis taxi
  2. Who briefs who
  3. What must crewmembers have out
  4. When does the aircraft move or stop
  5. What does the crew do if they stop
A
  1. Less than 1200 RVR
  2. Capt briefs FO
  3. Jepp 10-9 and LVC/SMGS
  4. After brief, when unsure of position
  5. Notify ground control
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59
Q

List for procedures (4) to adhere to during taxi:

A
  1. Sterile cockpit
  2. scan outside
  3. if lost stop and notify ATC
  4. use your lights
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60
Q

Lights required:

  1. Engines running
  2. Taxi
  3. Lineup and Wait
  4. Takeoff
A
  1. Beacon and position
  2. Beacon, position, taxi
  3. all but landing
  4. all
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61
Q

What are hotspots and how are they designated on an airport diagram?

A
  • Areas of known incursions
  • red circles
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62
Q

Any misunderstanding or disagreement should be resolved before _____ the aircraft. Use Heading display to confirm correct taxiway or runway alignment.

A

Moving

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63
Q

At uncontrolled airports, you should monitor CTAF within ____ miles of the airport, and ____ all ground movement.

What do you annouce and what should you be careful of?

A
  • 10 miles, announce
  • Always announce type of aircraft, location and ETA.
  • Beware of aircraft using different runways/taxiways and aircraft operating without radios.
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64
Q

Which JEPP chart will you find the airport diagram?

A

10-9

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65
Q

When crossing hold short lines to take off or across a runway, both crew members must confirm their position by:

A

Comparing taxiway and runway signs to the taxi chart, and crosschecking the runway in the FMS before departure

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66
Q

Where can emergency equipment location diagrams be found?

Do the aircraft have evacuation slides or rafts?

A
  • Content Locker
  • No
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67
Q

How many Emergency Flashlights(*), and PBEs, are onboard the 700 and 900?

A
  • 4 of each
  • EXCEPTION: 900’s with 1 additional FA jumpseat will have 5 flashlights
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68
Q

How many Halon Extinguishers, and Quick Don Oxygen Masks are on the 700 and 900?

A

3 of each

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69
Q

How many First Aid Kits, and Medical Oxygen Bottles, are on the 700 and 900?

A

2 of each

70
Q

How many AEDs & EMKs are on the 700 and 900?

A

1 of each

71
Q

How many Emergency Crew Lifejackets (*)

A
  • 5
  • EXCEPTION: 900s with 1 additional FA have 6
72
Q

How many Emergency Exits

A

5 and 7 (700 and 900)

73
Q

How long does PBE (protective breathing equipment) last?

A

15 mins

74
Q

How do you know when PBE is no longer usable?

A

Indicator flashlight blinks red and green the last minute, and the hood will start to collapse

75
Q

How close are PBE to fire extinguishers?

A

Within 3 feet

76
Q

How many different classes of fire are there?

Describe the different classes of fires, and how to extinguish:

A

4 Classes.

A - ordinary combustible materials (extinguish with water or halon)

B - liquids, oils, grease, gases
(extinguish with halon)

C - live electrical
(extinguish with halon)

D - combination materials
(extinguish with FOAM)

77
Q

What is the acronym to aid in use of a halon extinguisher?

A

PASS

Pull (Pin), Aim, squeeze, sweep

78
Q

What is the acronym and what is required when briefing a flight attendant of an emergency?

A

NASR

Nature, amount of time, special instructions, repeat instructions

79
Q

How do you know if the emergency flashlight is good?

Does the cradle Charge it?

Can you use it for preflight?

A
  • Tab is in place and a red light blinking
  • No
  • No
80
Q

EMK and AED

EMK: What is the code for the EMK and who can use it?

AED: who is trained of AED

A
  • 0911: Only doctors DM or DO but FA checks credentials.
  • FAs and must notify
81
Q

What exit are used in water ditching? Can the emergency exits be opened in and out of the aircraft? How do you identify the exits on the exterior?

A
  • Overwing and crew escape hatch.
  • Yes
  • Different color paint
82
Q

What’s min fuel and emergency fuel and when do you declare either

A

Min: anticipated landing with less than 30 mins of fuel
Emergency: anticipated landing with less than 20 mins of fuel
Declare: when/if calculated

83
Q

What is a yellow level emergency?

A

Require a diversion or priority landing but does NOT require the cabin to prepare for evacuation

84
Q

What is a red level emergency?

A

Requires a diversion/priority landing and DOES require the cabin to prepare for an emergency evacuation, includes bracing

85
Q

Where are crew lifejackets found? When do you inflate?

A

Under their respective jumpseats or cockpit seats. Outside the aircraft

86
Q

If there is an incapacitated FA, can one pilot go into cabin to assist the incapacitated FA? Why?

A

No, this could be overt act. Pilots remain in cockpit

87
Q

How does the crew determined crew incapacitation

A

2 Comms rule

88
Q

How should the Quick Don oxygen mask be set for flight?

A

Red lever to 100% (set and ready)

89
Q

Explain the difference between normal and 100% level positions on quick don oxygen

A

Normal = oxygen mixed with ambient air

100% = 100% oxygen

90
Q

Explain the difference between 100% on the lever, and emergency flow!

A

100% as full oxygen, on demand!

Emergency is 100% FORCED oxygen!

91
Q

All engine failure or shutdowns require what? (2)

A

Maintenance right up, debriefing even if engine was restarted successfully.

92
Q

First rule of thumb in emergency situation

A

Fly the plane

93
Q

What must be declared if ARFF is called?

A

An emergency

94
Q

When receiving any smoke indication, flight crews accomplish any ___ that may be required. If possible a ___ inspection is conducted in conjunction with the appropriate emergency checklist

A

Emergency checklist card

Visual

95
Q

What events require a debriefing? (6)

A
  • Fires
  • failures
  • incursions
  • evacuations
  • incapacitation
  • more than 50% of PFD/MFD displays

FOM 11-7

96
Q

What is the radio call out for distress?

A

Mayday (3x)

97
Q

What is the radio call out for urgency?

A

Pan (3x)

98
Q

If there is a medical emergency on board who can the pilots contact to assist?

A

STAT-MD (dispatch patches through)

Pilot will be middle man

99
Q

In an emergency situation requiring immediate action, The PIC may

A

deviate from procedures, minima or regulation to the extent required for safety

100
Q

Donning the PBE must be completed within ____ of activation

A

15 seconds

101
Q

How far and how long does a HALON extinguisher spray

A

10-12 feet for 10-12 seconds

102
Q

For a LAHSO the minimum ceiling and invisibility is ___/___.

If the runway is equipped with a PAPI or VASI the minimum ceiling and invisibility is ___/___

A

1,500’/5

1,000’/3

103
Q

Can you except a LAHSO if the runway is wet

A

No. Consider them dry.

104
Q

Tailwind on the LAHSO runway must be calm, less than:

A

3 knots

105
Q

LAHSO minimum runaway length for the 700 and 900?

A

700 = 6,000’ (60-67)
900 = 7,000’ (70-77)

106
Q

When operating in RVSM airspace what is the recommended operating practice regarding climbs/descents?

A
  • Climb and decent rates are limited to 1000 ft./min
  • When operating within 5NM and within 2000 feet of other aircraft
107
Q

What equipment is required for RVSM?

A
  • Autopilot
  • Altitude Alerting System
  • 2 transponders (1 works)
  • 2 air data computers (2 work)
108
Q

What is the requirement for reported ceiling and vis for a circling approach?

A

1000/3 or reported weather is at least equal to the prescribed charted circling minimums, whichever is higher.

109
Q

Which crewmember should have out there SMGCS if the visibility is less than 1200 RVR

A

Both pilots !!

110
Q

When our SMGCS procedures activated at authorized airport?

A

When ceiling and visibility conditions indicate RVR is below 1200

111
Q

For operations BELOW 1600RVR a minimum of ___ operative RVR systems are required, and ___ available RVR reports are _____

A

2 operative

All

Controlling

112
Q

Standard Takeoff minimums

A

1 mile or 5000 RVR unless specified

113
Q

A MID RVR report may be substituted for an unavailable TDZ report if operations are AT or ABOVE _____ RVR

A

1600

114
Q

What is a reportable event? Who needs to report it?

A

Accident, situation, or event that causes abnormal flight operations.

The captain.

115
Q

True or false: if you will be using any RNAV procedures (SIDS, STARs), RAIM Prediction must be available

A

True

116
Q

True or false: the use of RNAV instrument approach procedures in determining minimums can be used to dispatch at both the destination and alternate airport

A

False.

The use of RNAV instrument approach procedures in determining minimum is limited to destination airport OR alternates

117
Q

Are you permitted to manually enter RNAV waypoints using latitude and longitude or a place/bearing?

A

Nooo

118
Q

What is the required equipment for any RNAV procedure? (3) And GPS operation must be verified prior to takeoff

What do you do if equipement fails?

A

1 FMS, 1 GPS, 1 Flight Director.

Use of autopilot is recommended, not required.

Notify ATC

119
Q

What 4 GPS/RNAV approaches are approved?

A
  • Standalone
  • overlay
  • GPS
  • GNSS
120
Q

When doing a GPS Overlay approach, ground-based navigation aids DO NOT have to be operational for the GPS approach? True or false

What 2 type of GPS waypoints?

A

TRUE

Fly OVER (circle), and fly BYE

121
Q

What are the two types of RNAV SIDS

A
  1. Off the runway
  2. Heading to a fix
122
Q

VNAV path smoothing happens on our aircraft at a minimum and a maximum allowable VPA of:

A

VPA of 1° to 6°

(Default is 3°)

123
Q

VNAV is used as an _____ tool at Endeavor

A

Advisory!!!

124
Q

What is the vertical deviation scale and pointer?

A

The “Snowflake”

Indicates the FMS computed VPA.

Takes multiple altitude constraints into account. Aims to keep the aircraft as high as possible for as long as possible.

doesn’t care about speed restrictions

125
Q

What are some benefits of VNAV?

A

Reduce pilot workload, crew standardization, advanced fuel management, enhanced energy management

126
Q

Mach speed is:

A

The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound (which changes with temperature)

127
Q

The effect of compressibility is an aid to the creation of _____ until the airstream of the wings surface reaches ______

A

Lift, speed of sound

128
Q

Define shockwave

A

creates a region between undisturbed and disturbed air (Pressure boundary)

129
Q

What are some concerns for operating aircraft at high altitudes and high speeds?

A

airflow sep, buffeting, loss of longitudinal stab, mach tuck

130
Q

Define critical Mach

A

Speed at which a shockwave 1st forms on the aircraft.

Varies with aircraft weight, %CG, altitude and load factor

131
Q

Define Dutch role

A

Aerodynamic characteristic of a swept wing aircraft when one wing gets ahead of the other and creates more lift, climbs and new drag production then pulls the wing back, creating a slip.

The same happens then to the other wing.

132
Q

Define coffin corner

A

Operating margin as you increase altitude - the low stall speed increases in the high stall speed decreases

133
Q

What is limiting Mach?

A

Operating speed in relation to the speed of sound. Compressibility effects create a noticeable lack of control

(Depicted on airspeed indicator by “Barber Pole” at all times)

134
Q

What factors will decrease the critical/limiting mach? (4)

A

Increased weight, increased load factor, forward CG, increased altitude

135
Q

What are the design characteristics of a high altitude airplane?

A

High stall speed, high touchdown speed, rapid increase in drag at high angles of attack during turns

136
Q

What is V1

A

Action speed

Max to abort
Minimum to continue

137
Q

What does Vr ensure

A

Rotation Speed:
Safe lift off & climb profile is met

138
Q

What does V2 ensure

A

Safety Speed:
Ensures stall protection and controllability in the air & climb profile is met

139
Q

What does VT(FTO) provide?

A

Final Takeoff Speed:

Allows aircraft to meet minimum climb gradient & provides stall protection

140
Q

On a stable approach, when will you be at Vref?

A

Crossing the threshold

141
Q

What are the 3 types of engine failure procedures, and where can they be found?

A
  1. Standard (ACARS & TLR)
  2. Simple Special (ACARS & TLR)
  3. Complex (Only on JEPP 10-7)
142
Q

In a “Standard” engine failure procedure no turns may be made until _____ when the weather is less than ______

A

1,000’ AFE

Less than 1000/3

143
Q

On a “Simple Special” Engine failure procedure if there is a heading under the VIA, how soon can we start the turn to that heading?

A

50’ AFE

144
Q

What is the standard means of receiving performance data?

What is the back up?

A

ACARS

Call dispatch via radio or phone

145
Q

In what manual will you find a detailed chapter on performance?

A

CFM chapter 6

146
Q

Is the company flight manual aircraft specific? What chapter?

A

Yes 700/900 together. Chapter 2

147
Q

Runway slopes approved for takeoff and landing:

A

+/-2%

148
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?

A

10 knots

149
Q

What is the maximum XW component for TAKEOFF and LANDING on a DRY runway for the 700 and 900?

A

900: 35/32
700: 28/30

150
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing on a wet runway?

A

27

151
Q

When is flex thrust prohibited? (4)

A
  • With wing/or cowl anti-ice bleeds in use
  • runways contaminated
  • warnings of windshear or downdrafts have been forecast
  • when anti-skid system is inoperative
152
Q

Can you do a flex thrust procedure on a WET runway?

A

Yes, provided that wet runway performance data is used

153
Q

True or false: to avoid giving unwanted alerts, the terrain awareness Alerting and display functions must be inhibited on takeoff, approach, or landing within 15 NM of an airport not contained in the EGPWS airport database

A

True

CFM 2-34

154
Q

Continued operations in areas where SLD conditions exist is prohibited. What must you do if you suspect you are flying in SLD? (3)

A

Wing anti-system on, Cowl anti-ice system on, leave conditions when side window icing occurs

155
Q

True or false: takeoff is permitted with frost adhering to the upper surface of the fuselage; and or the underside of the wing that is caused by cold soaked fuel.

A

True
CFM 2-40

156
Q

True or false: if the frost layer is thin enough to distinguished surface features, it is OK

A

True - but only on the 1. Upper surface of the fuselage and/or 2. the underside of the wing due to fuel cold soak

157
Q

What are the maximum permissible fuel imbalances between the Main L tank and the Main R tank?

A

During takeoff: 300 pounds

All other phases of flight: 800 pounds

Center fuel tank Quantity must be monitored throughout flight

158
Q

How much does 1 pound of jet A weigh?

A

6.75 pounds per US gallon

159
Q

True or false: takeoff with a fuel load in excess of 500 pounds in the center tank is not permitted.

A

False - It is not permitted UNLESS each wing tank is above 4400 pounds

or unless each wing tank is above 2000 pounds, the allowable zero fuel weight is reduced by the weight of the fuel in the center tank in excess of 500 pounds, and the CG is verified to be with an envelope. Dispatch must be contacted

160
Q

What is the minimum fuel for a go around?

A

600 pounds per wing
Assuming a max climb attitude of 10 degrees nose up.

161
Q

Takeoff with engine FUEL temperature indications below ___°C is prohibited

A

5°C (41°F)

162
Q

True or false: Fuel powered crossflow and Fuel gravity crossflow must be OFF for takeoff.

A

True

163
Q

What are T routes

A

Low altitude RNAV GPS routes

up to17,999’

+/- 2 nm accuracy

164
Q

What are Q routes?

A

GPS routes

18,000 to 45,000’

+/- 2 nm

165
Q

J routes

A

Like a jet victor airway

166
Q

Jumpseater standard weights (summer and winter)

A

Summer - 213
Winter - 218

Winter - 218

167
Q

What procedure is used to clear a malfunction that may be a nuisance or erroneous in nature

A

Fault reset

168
Q

A fault reset procedure is preformed in the air: TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE

169
Q

FAR 121.191 requires each flight be planned with consideration given to an engine failure enroute. Method 1 requires the aircraft to take off at a weight that ensures that if an engine failure occurs anywhere from “ XXX “ to the “ XXX “ that the aircraft’s net altitude capability will clear all obstructions “ XXX “ SM either side of the intended route by “ XXX “ feet until reaching the destination. M1METW is the maximum allowable weight at which the aircraft can take off and still comply with Method 1.

A

Departure to the destination. 5SM/1000feet

170
Q

Method 2 (driftdown) requires that if an engine failure occurs, the aircraft be able to “ XXX “to at least “XXX” suitable airport from normal cruise altitude and the aircraft’s net driftdown altitude will clear all obstructions “XXX” SM either
side of the route of flight by “XXX” feet until reaching the diversion
airport. M2METW is the maximum allowable weight at which the aircraft can take off and still comply with Method 2.

Method 2 provides a list of “XXX” suitable airports for one or more “XXX” along the route of flight. Each segment is defined by start and end points from departure, destination, or navaids along the route of flight. This method assumes that the aircraft diverts to the suitable airport when it is “XXX” the airport along the planned route.

A

driftdown, 1 suitable, 5 SM, 2000 feet, driftdown, segments, abeam.

171
Q

Types of Fatigue (and symptoms

A
  • Physical: yawning, microsleeps, nodding off, headache, nausea, slowed reaction, lack of energy, reduced speed and accuracy
  • Mental: difficulty concentrating, lapses in attention, failure to communicated, failure to anticipate, forgetfulness, poor decision making
  • Emotional: quiet or withdrawn, lack of motivation, irritable/grumpy, low morale, heightened emotional sensitivity

EDV - 2024 (17 decks)

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