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Genpath Flashcards

1
Q

What does the term pathogenesis mean?

A

Deals with how a disease develops

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2
Q

Where is smooth endoplasmic reticulum most prominent and what is its main function?

A

Most prominently found in the liver, adrenal cells, Leydig cells. Metabolic functions

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3
Q

What are the two types of secondary lysosomes?

A

Heterophagosomes and AUTOphagosomes

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4
Q

What is a heterphagasome

A

Formed by fusion of phagosomes and lysosomes. The phagosomes contain outside material like food particles

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5
Q

What are AUTOphagosomes

A

Very similar to hetero phagosomes in that they are formed by the fusion of phagosomes and lysosomes. However the phagosomes contain worn out and damaged cell organelles.

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6
Q

What are the three possible outcomes to cell injury?

A

Reversible injury; the cell recovers and returns to normal function

Apoptosis; Programmed cell removal and death

Cell death/necrosis

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7
Q

What causes reversible cell injury?

A

Brief hypoxia, Or brief anoxia. Or low concentrations of toxins.

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8
Q

What causes irreversible cell injury?

A

Heavy doses of toxins, sustained anoxia, and prolonged hypoxia

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9
Q

What happens to the nucleus of a cell when it is going through an irreversible cell injury

A

Pyknosis- Condensation of chromatin
Karyorrhexis- Fragmentation of the nucleus into nuclear dust
Karyolysis- Dissolution of nuclear structure as a result of enzymatic digestion

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10
Q

Describe the four different ways that a cell can suffer irreversible injury defined as necrosis

A

Coagulative, liquefactive, Caseous, enzymatic fat necrosis

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11
Q

What is the most common type of necrosis for a cell?

A

Coagulative necrosis

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12
Q

What causes coagulative necrosis and what is the outcome?

A

Anoxia. Cell membrane is preserved, organelles and nucleus coagulate

This happens to internal organs such as the heart, liver, and kidneys

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13
Q

What is liquefactive necrosis?

A

When the cell is completely digested by hydrolytic enzymes resulting in dissolution of tissues. They become soft and liquefy. This happens to brain, skin, and joints

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14
Q

What is caseous necrosis?

A

A special form of coagulative necrosis

The cost is tuberculosis; centre part of the tuberculosis granuloma becomes necrotic and the Cell falls apart. This happens in the lungs

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15
Q

What is enzymatic fat necrosis?

A

A special form of liquefactive necrosis caused by Lipo lytic enzymes and is limited to fat tissues usually around the pancreas. It happens in acute pancreatitis. Enzymes release into adjacent fat tissue degrading fat into glacier all and free fatty acids forming calcium soaps.

Fight club anyone?

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16
Q

What is gangrene and what is it caused by?

A

Dried out necrotic tissue, dark black and mummified- Dry gangrene

Bacterial infection, inflammation and secondary liquefaction- Wet gangrene

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17
Q

What’s the difference between physiological and pathological apoptosis?

A

Physiological occurs in foetal development; natural progression. For example the dissolution of webbing between the toes

Pathological occurs as a result of disease. For example, liver cells infected with hepatitis

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18
Q

What is fibrosis?

A

The extensive deposition of collagen that occurs in chronic inflammation; may cause tissue dysfunction. Example: arthrosclerosis

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19
Q

What’s the term used to describe the formation of new blood vessels?

A

Angiogenesis

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20
Q

Name the five groups of disease agents

A

Bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, Helminths (Invertebrate worms)

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21
Q

What is Rickettsia?

A

Non-motile, Gram negative bacteria

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22
Q

What is monosomy

A

Loss of one chromosome leading to a chromosomal abnormality a.k.a. birth defect

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23
Q

What is a trisomy?

A

A birth defect marked by the gain of an additional chromosome

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24
Q

What is turner syndrome

A

Genetic disorder caused by the partial or complete absence of one X chromosome. Would result in a short stature, learning disabilities, heart defects, delayed puberty, and infertility.

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25
Q

What is klinefelters syndrome

A

A genetic condition that results when a boy is born with an extra copy of the X chromosome. Adversely affects testicular growth resulting in smaller than normal testicles and leading to lower production of testosterone, reduce muscle mass, reduce body and facial hair, and enlarged breast tissue.

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26
Q

What is the difference between an autosomal dominant disorder and an autosomal recessive disorder?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder’s result in a trait being fully expressed even if only one copy of the gene is present; Marfan syndrome, familial hypercholesterolaemia

Autosomal recessive disorder’s are only expressed if the gene is inherited from both parents and parents are usually asymptomatic carriers. For example, cystic fibrosis, lysosomal storage disease, phenylketonuria

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27
Q

What is a super bug and how did it come about? Give some examples

A

Super bugs are antibiotic resistant organisms resulting from antibiotic overuse. For example: MRSA, Multi drug resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis, vancomycin resistant enterococci, Multi drug resistant pseduomonas aeruginosa, Clostridium difficile

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28
Q

What’s the difference between infection and intoxication?

A

some bacteria, all viruses, and all parasites caused an illness via infection

And intoxication results when a person eats food containing toxins that cause illness.

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29
Q

Does a fever indicate that a person is infectious?

A

No. It can be a symptom of infection as well as a symptom of non-infectious pathologies.

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30
Q

What is normal temperature and what constitutes as a low grade fever or a high-grade fever?

A

Normal: 98.6 Fahrenheit/37 Celsius

Low grade fever: up to 102 Fahrenheit/39 Celsius

High-grade fever: over 102 Fahrenheit/39°C

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31
Q

What are the effects of a prolonged high fever?

A

Can cause seizures, delirium, disorientation, and Hallucinations

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32
Q

What is the definition of an infection?

A

When an organism establishes a parasitic relationship with host

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33
Q

What is the process of infection?

A

Transmission, incubation, infection

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34
Q

What is required for a transmission of an infection?

A

A portal of entry, a mode of transportation, and a portal of exit

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35
Q

What’s the difference between principal and opportunistic pathogen’s?

A

Principal pathogens cause disease in people with intact immune systems and opportunistic pathogen’s don’t cause disease in healthy people but can cause devastating effects to people who are immuno compromised

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36
Q

What is another name for a hospital acquired infection?

A

Nosocomial infection

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37
Q

What is a vector?

A

Involving insects or animals that act as intermediaries between two or more hosts

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38
Q

What are the three lines of defense?

A

First line of defense: external barriers/secretions and microbial antagonisms

Second line of defense: inflammation

Third line of defense: immune response

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39
Q

What is a mycoplasma?

A

A very small self replicating bacteria with no cell wall that depends on the host for nutrition

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40
Q

How is fungi reproduce?

A

By budding off

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41
Q

What is the most common bacterial pathogen on the skin?

A

Staphylococcus

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42
Q

What is one of the most common bacterial pathogen’s of humans in general?

A

Streptococcus

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43
Q

What is Scarlett fever?

A

Usually follows untreated strep throat. Pyogenic exotoxin. Affects kids aged 2 to 10

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44
Q

What’s another name for streptococcal gangrene

A

Necrotizing fasciitis

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45
Q

What Graham negative anaerobic bacteria caused the bubonic plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

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46
Q

What does aids infect in the body?

A

CD m4 and T cells

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47
Q

What triggers a herpes outbreak?

A

Mucosal contact is required for the initial transmission and after the first outbreak it becomes latent in the sensory ganglia. Periodic lifetime outbreaks are triggered by a bad cold, high stress, and decreased immune function

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48
Q

Name the different types of herpes

A

Type one: cold sores
Type two: Genital
Herpetic Whitlow: herpes of the terminal phalanx (Can be type one or two)
Type three: varicella zoster ( Chickenpox/shingles)
Type for: EBV/Epstein-Barr virus/infectious mononucleosis/the kissing disease
Type five: cytomegalovirus
Type six and seven: B and T cells virus is associated with Roseola
Type eight: associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma in AIDS

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49
Q

What is another term for ringworm?

A

Tinea corporis

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50
Q

What is tinea versicolour

A

Superficial fungal infection which leads to hypo pigmented or hyper pigmented patches on the skin

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51
Q

What is lymphangitis

A

Inflammation of the lymph vessels

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52
Q

What is lymphadenitis

A

Inflammation of one or more lymph nodes

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53
Q

What is lymphoedema

A

Increase lymph fluid in the tissues

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54
Q

What is Lymphadenopathy

A

Enlargement of the lymph nodes

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55
Q

What are the four stages of lymphoedema

A

Stage zero: latent, heaviness aching and fatigue in Limb
Stage one: soft, pitting, reverses with elevation, fibrosis begins
Stage two: no pitting. No reversal with elevation. Skin changes. Chronic inflammation. Recurrent bacterial and fungal infections
Stage III: lymphostatic elephantitis

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56
Q

What is Stemmer sign

A

A thick skin fold over the second toe denoting lymphoedema

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57
Q

Name the four key components in the inflammation process

A

Changes in circulation of blood, changes in vessel wall permeability, white blood cell response, release of soluble mediators

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58
Q

What is the first response to injury?

A

Circulatory changes

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59
Q

What is the term pavementing mean?

A

Term used to describe vessel wall changes in the process of inflammation; it is when leucocytes adhere to the endothelial cells

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60
Q

What is transudate

A

Protein rich edema

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61
Q

What is histamine

A

A chemical mediator for inflammation ; Released by mast and platelets; causes increased blood vessel permeability. It is a vasodilator and a bronchoconstrictor. Last less than 30 minutes

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62
Q

What is Bradykinin

A

Plasma proteins formed by the hagemen factor. Same effects as histamine but at a slower pace. Increased blood vessel permeability. Vasodilator and bronchoconstrictor. An important difference between this and histamine is that bradykinin causes pain

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63
Q

What is the chemically mediated complement system?

A

The complement system is when several proteins are activated in cascade acting on one another. There are three pathways that activate the cascade;

classical pathway-Activated by antigen antibody complexes

Alternative pathway- Activated by bacterial endotoxins, fungi, snake venom

Lectin pathway- Activated by binding of lectin to bacteria

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64
Q

What are AAD’s? arachidonic acid derivatives

A

arachidonic acid derivatives Derived from phospholipids of the cell membrane that form Leukotrienes and Prostaglandins.

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65
Q

What is another name for leukocytes?

A

Polymorphonuclear neutrophils

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66
Q

What is the precursor to a mast cell?

A

Basophils

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67
Q

What are the two main phagocytic cells?

A

Monocytes/macrophages and neutrophils

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68
Q

What are possible causes of inflammation ?

A

Infectious, chemical, physical, immune

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69
Q

What type of cell holds the edges of damaged tissue together?

A

Myofibroblasts

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70
Q

What is an Angioblast?

A

Precursor of blood vessels; proliferate from small blood vessels at the edges of damaged tissue. Appear 2 to 3 days after injury. By DAY6 new blood vessels are formed. They allow for oxygen and nutrients to flow to the injured site and provide a route for scavenger cells to remove tissue debris and scabs

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71
Q

What is the role of a fibroblast?

A

They produce extracellular matrix. Made up of fibronectin and collagen

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72
Q

What are the components of granulation tissue?

A

Fibroblasts, angioblasts, macrophages, and myofibroblasts

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73
Q

What is a natural killer cell?

A

Large granular lymphocytes that are not T nor B lymphocytes.The function is to kill viruses, infected cells, and tumour cells. They bind to potential target cells and release cytotoxic granules and cytokinesis.

Natural killer cells burst forth from the tonsils, lymph nodes and spleen and destroy infected and cancerous cells while the immune systems T and B cells are still mobilizing.

Without natural killer cells, threatening conditions can get a strong foothold before the adaptive immune system response kicks in.

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74
Q

What is major histocompatibility complex?

A

These are Cell markers on the surface of our body’s cells that are unique to each of us and tell our immune system that the cells are self. Ie fingerprint

75
Q

What is the term used to describe the part of the antigen that binds to the antibody?

A

Epitopes

The greater amount of epitopes that a bacterium has the more places that an antibody can bind and therefore the greater the immune response produced

76
Q

What were major histocompatibility complex previously called?

A

Human leucocyte antigen a.k.a. HLA’s

They are inherited. They can predispose or increase an individual susceptibility to certain diseases

77
Q

Are vaccinations considered active or passive immunity?

A

Active immunity.

78
Q

What secondary lymphoid organs do T and B’s lymphocytes enter the blood circulation to colonize?

A

The spleen and lymph nodes

79
Q

Are there more t or B lymphocytes in the body?

A

2/3 of all lymphocytes are T cells

80
Q

What are T-helper cells?

A

Master regulators. 75% of all T cells. CD4 cells. Assist B cells to mature and produce antibodies recruiting protein mediators called Lymphokines.

Activates macrophages, helps other T cells recognize and destroy virally infected cells, helps natural killer cells kill infected cells. HIV destroys helper T cells

81
Q

What are T suppressor cells?

A

They suppress the activation of the immune system and prevent pathologic self reactivity.

82
Q

What are cytotoxic T cells?

A

They express CD8 antigen on their surface and mediate the killing of virus infected or tumour cells

83
Q

What are the type of B lymphocytes?

A

Plasma cells or memory B

84
Q

What are memory B cells?

A

Circulate among the blood, tissues and lymphoid system for a year or longer; responsible for rapid and sustained immune response that occurs with repeated exposure to the same antigen. They remember what happened.

85
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

Fully differentiated B lymphocytes that produce immuno globin’s. The surface of plasma cell is coded with immuno globin’s a.k.a. antibodies

86
Q

What antibody is responsible for eliminating parasitic infections and functions during allergic reactions?

A

IgE

Activates mast cells to release histamine and is associated with anaphylaxis, hives, allergy induced asthma

87
Q

What is another name for acquired immunity?

A

Humoral

88
Q

What type of immune responses do be lymphocytes produce in comparison to that of T lymphocytes?

A

B produces a humoral immune response and t produces a cellular immune response

89
Q

Your patient comes to you complaining that their child has a sore throat, fever, really red tongue that looks almost like a strawberry and a rash everywhere but their palms and soul. What condition does the child most likely have?

A

Scarlett fever; group a strep/strep pyogenes

90
Q

What is the term that is used to define an increase in the size of the tissues that is caused by an increase in the number of cells?

A

Hyperplasia

91
Q

Define Neoplasia

A

Uncontrolled growth of cells whose proliferation Cannot be adequately controlled by normal regulatory mechanisms operating in normal tissue. They do not achieve the same level of differentiation

92
Q

Where would you see a normal type of hyperplasia occur?

A

Increased breast size in pregnancy, bone callus formation, wound healing a.k.a. scars

93
Q

What is metaplasia

A

A reversible and benign but abnormal change in which one normally differentiated cell type is replaced by another for example in smokers lungs columnar epithelial cells change to squamous epithelium

Or in Barrett’s oesophagus the screen this epithelial of the oesophagus changes to granular epithelial of stomach

94
Q

What is dysplasia

A

Possibly reversible change that often proceeds malignancy characterized by altered morphology. Disorganization of cells and marked variability in nuclear size and shape. Increased often abnormal mitosis

95
Q

What is anaplasia

A

The most advanced form of displeasure with complete loss of differentiation and is characterized by malignant cells only

96
Q

What is carcinoma in situ

A

Cancer that has stayed in place where it began and has not spread to neighbouring tissues

97
Q

What is the definition of meta-stasis

A

Implantation of cancer cells into non-contagious sites

98
Q

What are the three main pathways of metastasis

A

Via the blood, via the lymph, via seeding of the surface of the body cavities

99
Q

What is tumour angiogenesis

A

And blood vessels from the surrounding tissue grow into the solid tumour eating in its survival and growth.

100
Q

What are common sites for meta-stasis

A

Lymph nodes, liver, lungs, bone and brain

101
Q

What are some exceptions to the oma rule meaning that they are not benign even with that suffix?

A

lymphoma, glioma, Seminoma

102
Q

What is a teratoma

A

Derived from germ cells and contain tissues that are formed from all three germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm

103
Q

Describe the grading system for malignancy

A

Grades 1 to 3; lower grades are more closely resembling normal cells and higher grades have poor differentiation. Microscopic evaluation is based on the degree of cellular differentiation

104
Q

What are some clinical signs of cancer?

A

Anorexia/cachexia, Blood disorders (Anemia/thrombosis), Immunosuppression, fever, nausea/vomiting, Cancer pain a.k.a. night pain

105
Q

What is atopy

A

Genetically predisposed condition where IGE antibodies produced to common environmental allergens a K a topic dermatitis

106
Q

What is a macule

A

A small flat skin lesion less than 2 cm. Example: freckle

107
Q

What is a patch

A

A flat larger skin lesion. Example: childhood rash caused by measles

108
Q

What is a papule

A

A slightly elevated smaller than 1 cm skin lesion. Example: eczema

109
Q

What is a nodule

A

Slightly elevated skin lesion greater than 1 cm. Example: mole

110
Q

What is a tumour

A

A nodule greater than 5 cm

111
Q

What is a vesicle

A

Fluid filled elevation of the epidermis smaller than 1 cm. Example: herpesvirus lesion/cold sore on the lip

112
Q

What is a Bulla

A

A fluid filled elevation of the epidermis greater than 1 cm. Example: burns

113
Q

What is a pustule

A

A vesicle filled with pus. Example: impetigo

114
Q

What is an ulcer

A

A defect of the epidermis. Example: syphilitic Chancer

115
Q

What is a crust

A

A skin defect covered by coagulated plasma. Example: scab

116
Q

What are scales

A

Cureton layers covering the skin as flakes or sheets that can be scraped away. Example: seborrheic keratosis, psoriasis

117
Q

What are squames

A

Large scale’s. Example: ichthyosis

118
Q

What is excoriation

A

Superficial skin defects caused by scratching

119
Q

What is a fissure

A

Sharp edged defect extending deeper into the dermis. Example: athletes foot

120
Q

What is impetigo

A

A superficial skin infection characterized by superficial pustules caused by streptococcal or staphylococcus aureus

121
Q

What is folliculitis

A

Common skin infection limited to hair follicles and caused by staphylococcus aureus

122
Q

What is a furuncle

A

Another term for a boil; skin infection and beating hair shaft and spreading two parafollicule tissue

123
Q

What is a carbuncle

A

A larger boil as a result of spread of injection to adjacent hair follicles

124
Q

What are dermatophytoses

A

Fungal infection of the skin; most common sites are feet, head, nails, axilla, and groin

125
Q

What is tinea pedis

A

Athletes foot; fungal infection between the toes

126
Q

What is tinea unguium

A

Fungal infection that is chronic in the nail

127
Q

What is tinea corporis

A

Ringworm; fungal infection on the skin appearing a circular or irregular shaped patches

128
Q

What is tinea cruris

A

Jock itch; fungal infection of the groin area

129
Q

What is tinea capitis

A

Scalp ringworm; fungal infection typically affecting children and causing local hair loss

130
Q

What is candida albicans

A

Fungal infection in the common cause of thrush in children

131
Q

What is another term for lice

A

Pediculosis

132
Q

What are scabies

A

I contagious skin disease caused by Sarcoptes scabiei. They burrow into the epidermis

133
Q

What is another term for contact dermatitis

A

Exogenous eczema

134
Q

What is another term for dandruff

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis. Affects 10 to 20% of the population. Often occurs at the nasolabial folds, eyebrows, upper chest and scalp

135
Q

What is another name for a senile wart

A

Seborrhetic keratosis. Common and benign

136
Q

What is the most common type of malignant skin tumour?

A

Basal cell carcinoma. Good prognosis.

137
Q

What is the type of skin tumour that has the worst prognosis?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

138
Q

What is squamous cell carcinoma often preceded by?

A

Actinic keratosis and carcinoma in situ

139
Q

What is Lentigo

A

Immaculate or popular that is pigmented but does not respond to the skin.

140
Q

What are the ABCDs of diagnosing a malignant melanoma?

A

A: asymmetry of the pigmented lesion
B: irregular borders
C: color; varies from dark black to dark brown to red
D: diameter of the lesion; one should worry at the lesionexceed 6 mm in diameter

141
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Dermal tumour composed of blood vessels and perivascular connective tissue. Scene and people diagnosed with aids. Herpes virus type eight cells have been isolated from Kaposi’s sarcoma cells and it has been proposed that the virus causes tumours and immuno suppressed hosts

142
Q

Name and describe the four types of diseases of the nail

A

Onychogryphosis: Nail deformity with no known cause
Koilonychia: Spoon shaped mail; due to iron deficiency anaemia
Onychomosis: Chronic fungal infection of the nails
Paronychia: Bacterial infections of the cuticle

143
Q

What is hirustism

A

A hormonal or idiopathic Excess of hair

144
Q

What is alopecia

A

Loss of hair from the scalp. Alopecia areata is focal where as diffuse Alopecia is broad and affects males more than females

145
Q

What is trichotillomania

A

A psychological urge to pull out your hair

146
Q

What is the body’s response to specific invaders?

A

The adaptive or acquired response

147
Q

What is the substance that triggers the immune response?

A

Antigen

148
Q

What is the main role of antibodies?

A

To take antigen/microbes for destruction by immune system cells

149
Q

What are the two types of Maine working cells and immune system? And what do they do?

A

T lymphocytes can recognize hidden organisms and destroy cells well be lymphocytes differentiate into memory or plasma cells to create antibodies

150
Q

What type of basil is produced that acts immediately against antigens once contact with T-helper cells has occurred and how did he sell stop antigens from infecting other cells?

A

Plasma cells; create antibodies that mark them for destruction

151
Q

Considering adaptive immunity, why is the secondary response to a previously identified pathogen so much faster than the primary response?

A

Because memory cells exist that remember the pathogen from the last infection

152
Q

What is MHC?

A

Major Histocompatibility complexes ; The cells fingerprints that identifies the self from non-self

153
Q

What is a cutaneous papilloma

A

A skin tag. Benign.

154
Q

What is urticaria

A

Hives; skin rash with red, raised, and itchy bumps

155
Q

What are corns?

A

Hard dick and areas of the skin that form as a consequence of rubbing, friction, or pressure on the skin

156
Q

What types of embolisms can occur?

A

Pulmonary, arterial, gas, fat, tumour

157
Q

Name acquired heart defects

A

Endocarditis: rheumatic, non-bacterial thrombotic, acute infective, subacute infective

Myocarditis
Pericarditis

158
Q

What is GERD

A

Affects the lower oesophageal sphincter with heartburn and may lead to barrettes oesophagus which is a pre-cancerous condition

159
Q

What is pyloric stenosis

A

Infantile condition in which Pyloric sphincter is enlarged;leads to narrowing of opening leading into duodenum; infant throws up often

160
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease

A

Formation of ulcers in the stomach, duodenum and to some extent in the esophagus; leads to pain in the epigastric area

161
Q

What is gastric Adenocarcinoma

A

Stomach cancer; a malignant cancer that develops in the gastric glands

162
Q

What is gastroenteritis

A

Information of the G.I. tract that involves the stomach and small intestine; symptoms may include diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Fever, lack of energy and dehydration may also occur

163
Q

What is constipation?

A

Bell movements that are in frequent or hard to pass. Complications from constipation may include hemorrhoids, anal fissures, or faecal impaction

164
Q

What is coeliac disease

A

Gluten sensitive enteropathy or sprue. It is a hyper sensitivity to gluten/gliadin

165
Q

What is the difference between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease

A

Ulcerative colitis is the information of the mucosa of the colon and rectum with ulcerations whereas Crohn’s disease is a chronic transmural information of the G.I. tract most often involving the ileum and the colon

166
Q

What is irritable bowel syndrome

A

GI disorder that causes a domino pain, bloating, constipation, and diarrhoea it is not an inflammatory disease

167
Q

Name how to contract the different types of hepatitis.

A

Hepatitis A: contaminated food and drink
Hepatitis B: blood transfusion, exposure to contaminated blood and blood products/sexual contact. Can lead to a hepatocellular carcinoma
Hepatitis C: blood transfusion, exposure to contaminated blood and blood products or sexual contact. Less severe than hepatitis B
Hepatitis D: coinfection or following a pre-existing HBV infection
Hepatitis C: transmitted by faecal oral route
Hepatitis G: transmitted by infected blood or blood products

168
Q

What is cirrhosis

A

And end-stage liver disease. Chronic liver disease. Formation of fibrous scars

169
Q

What is haemochromatosis

A

Excessive accumulation of iron in the body. I can be genetic or secondary due to excessive iron uptake or blood transfusions

170
Q

What is cholelithiasis

A

Gallstones. Cholesterol stones and pigmentary stones.

171
Q

What is Cholecytisis

A

Gallbladder information as a result of gallstones which enters to be closer which allows entry of bacteria; may cause biliary obstruction producing obstructive jaundice due to hyperbilirubinemia

172
Q

What is another term for jaundice?

A

Icterus

173
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder of copper metabolism, characterized by excessive deposition of copper in the liver, brain, and other tissues

174
Q

What are urinary tract infection

A

Graham negative bacteria and circulating blood and those entering urinary tract from outside. More common in women

175
Q

What is acquired cystic kidney disease?

A

Kidney disease that develops in later stages of end-stage kidney disease. Most common occurrence is in patients that have started to undergo dialysis

176
Q

What is cystic renal dysplasia?

A

Congenital anomaly that occurs in babies during early kidney devel in utero. Usually affects one kidney

177
Q

What is polycystic kidney disease?

A

Developmental disorder that causes kidneys to enlarge and contain numerous Fluid filled cyst’s

178
Q

What is pyelonephritis

A

Can be a cute or chronic; bacterial infections of the kidney. Acute is due to suppurative infection and can evolve into chronic. Chronic is when the kidney parenchyma Is destroyed and the kidney itself becomes smaller

179
Q

What is Glomerulonephritis

A

I need a logic disorder causing kidney information and damage of the glumeruli

180
Q

What is diabetic nephropathy

A

What about disease affecting the kidneys as a result of diabetes. Patients present with polyuria, glycosuria, proteinuria. May lead to chronic renal failure

181
Q

What is urolithiasis

A

Bladder stones. Formation of urinary stones which are composed of calcium, struvite, uric acid or cystine. In renal pelvis or urinary bladder. The symptoms hematuria and urinary colics. Larger stones mechanically extracted using lithotripsy or ultrasound targeting.

182
Q

What is cystitis

A

Bacterial infection of the urinary bladder. It can be a
cute which is mucosal haemorrhage visible during cystoscopy or it can be chronic which includes hemorrhage, ulceration, and or thickening

183
Q

What are the phases of scar tissue formation?

A

Inflammation, proliferation, and remodelling

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