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GenOral Histo and Patho > GenOral Histo and Patho > Flashcards

GenOral Histo and Patho Flashcards

1
Q

Malignant neoplasms range from well-differentiated to undifferentiated. Malignant neoplasms composed of undifferentiated cells are said to be:

A

anaplastic

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2
Q

Which autoimmune disease is associated with the increase in caries?

a. lupus erythematosus
b. Sjogren’s syndrome
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Crohn’s disease

A

b. Sjogren’s syndrome

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3
Q

an infant with a diagnosis of osteopetrosis has dysfunctional _______________

A

osteoclasts

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4
Q

What carbs is a ketose sugar?

A

fructose

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5
Q

which of the following disorders is least likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with jaundice?

a. hepatitis
b. hemolytic anemia
c. cholelithiasis
d. glomerulonephritis
e. carcinoma of the pancreas

A

b. hemolytic anemia

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6
Q

all of the following are associtaed with chronic inflammation, EXCEPT:

a. macrophages
b. neutrophils
c. T-lymphocytes
d. B-lymphocytes
e. plasma cells

A

b. neutrophils

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7
Q

what is the most likely complication that may occur from the vegetations forming on the patient’s defective heart valve?

A

myocardial infaction

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8
Q

three key factors in the pathogenesis of pain in migraine are usually considered. which of the following is not considered a key factor?

a. cranial blood vessels
b. B- amyloid-containing plaques in the brain
c. trigeminal innervation of the vessels
d. reflex connection of trigeminal system with cranial parasympathetic outflow.

A

b. B-amyloid-containing plaques in the brain

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9
Q

the most common bacterial cause of osteomyelitis:

A

staphylococcus aureus

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10
Q

oral and genital lesions are seen in patients with

A

Bechet’s syndrome

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11
Q

feature shared by central and peripheral giant cell granulomas

A

clinical behavior

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12
Q

systemic diseases that may develop apthous ulcers

A

Celia sprue
Behcet’s syndrome
Crohn’s disease

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13
Q

characteristics of plasma cell myeloma (multiple myeloma)

A

malignant condition
Bence-Jones proteins are found in the urine
usually arises in the bone marrow
x-ray findings include “punched out” radiolucency in the bone

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14
Q

taste flavors identified as acting via closing of ion channels

A

sour

salty

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15
Q

pernicious anemia and neurologic degeneration are characteristics of lack of vitamin __

A

b12

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16
Q

type of collagen found in teeth

A

type 1

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17
Q

oral epithelium is composed of

A

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

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18
Q

most common cause of subacute endocarditis

A

viridans streptococcus

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19
Q

Generally, resistance of a bacterium to killing by heat is influenced by time and temperature employed in the growth of the culture. another factor is the ability of the organism to:

A

grow at elevated temperatures

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20
Q

the tensile strength of a healing wound depends upon

A

the formation of collagen fibers

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21
Q

staphylococci are charateristically grouped in

A

irregular clusters

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22
Q

persons having anti-a and anti-b agglutinins in their serum belong to this blood group.

A

type O

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23
Q

prolonged ischemia to an organ or tissue results in:

A

atrophy

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24
Q

a viral disease which is stress-influenced, causes local oral lesions and may also cause central nervous system disease is:

A

herpetic stomatitis

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25
Q

following the initial transient vasoconstriction, the next vascular reaction to injury in the sequence of events in inflammation is:

A

phagocytosis of bacteria and other particles

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26
Q

detergents kill bacteria by interfering with the function of the cell:

A

wall

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27
Q

seeding or transplantation metastasis would be likely in carcinomas of the (3):

A
  1. stomach
  2. ovary
  3. large bowel
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28
Q

protozoa actively pathogenic for man include:

A

leishmania donovani
plasmodium malaise
entamoeba histolytica

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29
Q

growth of these neoplasms often are influenced by hormones

A

breast carcinoma

prostatic carcinoma

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30
Q

after the initial primary attack during the early childhood period, the herpes simplex virus remains inactive most commonly in the:

A

trigeminal ganglion

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31
Q

all of the ff. statements about dentinogenesis imperfecta are true, EXCEPT:

a. it is an inherited disorder of the dentin
b. it is also known as hereditary opalescent dentin
c. it is an extremely common disorder
d. it is sometimes linked to osteogenesis imperfecta

A

c. it is an extremely common disorder

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32
Q

hairy tongue is a condition characterized by hypertrophy of the

A

filiform papillae

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33
Q

a malignant tumor developing from bone marrow, usually in long bones or the pelvis of the adolescent boys is called:

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

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34
Q

the congenital epulis of the newborn is composed of ells that are identical to those of

A

granular cell myoblastoma

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35
Q

when using the TNM method in assessing the prognosis and therapy of malignant neoplasms, the N represents:

A

the presence of regional lymph node involvement

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36
Q

what is the most probable diagnosis for a lesion that presents as a translucent, bluish, well-rounded, smooth-surfaced bulge that protrudes from one side of the floor of the mouth?

A

ranula

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37
Q

all of the following diseases have traditionally been grouped under the generic term Histiocytosis X, EXCEPT:

a. Tay-Sachs disease
b. eosinophilic granuloma
c. Letterer-Siwe disease
c. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

A

a. Tay-Sachs disease

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38
Q

all of the ff. statements concerning verrucous carcinoma are true, EXCEPT:

a. it is a rare form of squamous cell carcinoma that occurs in either the oral or laryngeal cavity
b. there is a characteristic whitish, cauliflower or coral appearance to the mass
c. typically, the lesion develops on the vocal cords of an elderly male who has been a heavy cigarettes’ smoker
d. it is known for its slow growth pattern and well-developed hyperkeratotic epithelial boundaries
e. it usually shows rapid metastasis

A

d. it is known for its slow growth pattern and well-developed hyperkeratotic epithelial boundaries

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39
Q

Pindborg tumor is also called:

A

calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor

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40
Q

a chronic skin disease that is characterized by the formation of vesicles and bullae is:

A

Pemphigus

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41
Q

not a metabolic condition associated with chronic salivary gland enlargement

A

malnutrition

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42
Q

the etiology of verruca vulgara is viral. although it is primarily a lesion of the skin, it may occur in the oral cavity, particularly on the lips and palate.

A

both statements are correct

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43
Q

a condition that mimics leukoplakia in that it seems to be a white patch is called

A

leukoedema

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44
Q

Rendu-Osler-Weber disease is a congenital hereditary form of hemangioma in which one of the earliest signs of the disease is epistaxis or nosebleeding. it is characterized by numerous spider-like telangiectasias on the face, neck , chest, lips, gingiva, buccal mucosa and tongue

A

both statements are true

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45
Q

a patient is observed to have a drooping mouth in one side and watering eye. she complains of having a loss of taste sensation on the anterior portion of her tongue. this patient is most likely suffering from:

A

bell’s palsey

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46
Q

odontogenic cysts that are always associated with the crown of an unerupted or developing tooth

A

odontogenic keratocyst

follicular cyst

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47
Q

squamous cell carcinoma is the most common oral cancer. it is a tumor of

A

keratinocytes

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48
Q

the dental lamina arises from

A

buccopharyngeal membrane

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49
Q

the ______________________ differentiates into ameloblasts

A

inner enamel epithelium in the cap stage

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50
Q

the spread of odontogenic infection to which of the spaces would most likely be considered life-threatening?

A

submandibular space

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51
Q

osteocytes are found in ____________ in mature bone

A

lacunae

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52
Q

the most important pathologic changes of carbon monoxide poisoning takes place in the

A

brain

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53
Q

fungi produce disease in man by:

A

endotoxin production

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54
Q

the iron-containing pigment derived from normal breakdown of haemoglobin

A

hemosiderin

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55
Q

oral protozoa are found to increase in the oral cavity when

A

periodontitis becomes advanced

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56
Q

one of the distinguishing characteristis of all viruses is:

A

failure to grow in the absence of living cells

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57
Q

cell type most likely associated with antibody formation

A

plasma cells

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58
Q

which statement about the DEJ is not correct?

a. the DEJ appears as a scalloped line in sections, with the convexities towards the dentin
b. the DEJ indicates the former borderline between the epithelial enamel organ and the mesenchymal dental papilla
c. no structures across the DEJ at any point from the enamel into the dentin or vice-versa
d. toward the cervix the DEJ becomes straighter

A

c. no structures across the DEJ at any point from the enamel into the dentin or vice-versa

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59
Q

when compared with a very young pulp, the aging pulp contains:

a. more cells and collagen fibers
b. fewer cells and more collagen fibers
c. more cells and fewer collagen fibers
d. fewer cells and fewer collagen fibers

A

b. fewer cells and more collagen fibers

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60
Q

which cell type is not commonly found in a human dental pulp?
a. fibroblasts and undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
b. histiocytes and macrophages
c. fat cells
d small lymphocytes and plasma cells

A

c. fat cells

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61
Q

In an inflamed pulp, certain cells generally associated with small blood vessels having nucleus and prominent nucleolus as well as granules and vacuoles in their cytoplasm, maybe identifies as:

A

histiocytes

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62
Q

the odontoblasts, whose cell bodies are located in the odontogenic zone of the pulp, have a cytoplasmic extensions into the dentinal tubule that is characterized by

A

microtubules and occasional mitochondria and vesicles

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63
Q

the body (anterior 2/3) of tongue is formed by which of the ff embryonic structures?

a. tuberculum impar
b. lateral lingual swellings
c. copula
d. hypobranchial eminence

A

b. lateral lingual swellings

64
Q

which of the ff cranial bones are formed almost exclusively by endochrondral ossification

a. nasal conchae
b. sphenoid bone
c. mandible
d. temporal bone

A

b. sphenoid bone

65
Q

the first ossification center of the mandible in a six week old human embryo is found which one of the ff locations?

a. future coronoid process
b. future condylar process
c. future mental foramen
d. future mandibular foramen

A

c. future mental foramen

66
Q

which statement about the TMJ is not correct?

a. the articular spaces are lined with a synovial membrane, an incomplete lining of fibroblasts, some histiocytes and lymphatic wandering cells
a. the articular spaces are filled with viscous synovial fluid
c. the synovial fluid is made up of extravasate and substances produced by cells of the synovial membrane
d. the synovial membrane is synonymous with the articular capsule of the joint
e. small synovial villi protrude into the articular spaces

A

d. the synovial membrane is synonymous with the articular capsule of the joint

67
Q

which statement about the tonsil is not true?

a. all tonsils have a covering of stratified squamous epithelium
b. tonsillar epithelium may be unevenly invaded by lymphocytes
c. the tonsillar mucosa may be arranged in crypts or in folds
d. tonsils have only efferent lymphatic vessels

A

a. all tonsils have a covering of stratified squamous epithelium

68
Q

the myelin sheath in the white matter of the central nervous system are formed by

A

oligodendrocytes

69
Q

which statement about the nerve fibers is not correct?

a. several axons of small dm maybe surrounded by single folds of a sheath cell and are called unmyelinated nerve fibers
b. oligodendrocytes and Schwann cell are sheath cells
c. sheath cells wrap themselves around the thicker axons by numerous concentric wrappings and form myelin sheaths
d. axonal conduction of the impulse is progressively slower in axons with target dm and thicker myelin sheaths

A

d. axonal conduction of the impulse is progressively slower in axons with target dm and thicker myelin sheaths

70
Q

the epidermis consists of all of the ff types, except?

a. stratified keratinizing epithelial cells (keratinocytes)
b. goblet cells
c. Langerlans cells
d. melanocytes

A

b. goblet cells

71
Q

the actual process of keratinization does not include

A

transfer of melanin granules through the extensions of melanocytes into the keratinocytes

72
Q

which of the ff is not ectodermally derived?

a. hair cortex
b. hair medulla
c. internal root sheath
d. external root sheath
e. hair papilla

A

c. internal root sheath

73
Q

the esophagus and the small intestine have in common that in both:

A

the muscularis mucosae consists of continuous layer of smooth muscle between the mucosa and submucosa

74
Q

the proximal convoluted tubules differ from the distal in that the proximal

A

has acidophilic cells with “brush borders” (microvilli)

75
Q

which of the ff cells is not part of the semiconiferous epithelium?

a. sertoli cells
b. spermatogonia
c. primary spermatocytes
d. spermatids
e. leydig cells

A

e. leydig cells

76
Q

the cells in the parathyroid gland that are responsible for the secretion of parathyroid hormones and are arranged in cord-like clusters:

A

chief cells

77
Q

in the mature dental tissues, the only tissue whose cells are lost is

A

enamel

78
Q

in the most general terms, the direction of enamel prisms is

A

perpendicular to the tangents of the outer enamel surface

79
Q

the primary enamel cuticle is

A

a basement membrane-like structure

80
Q

aerobic microbia metabolism is characterized by which of the ff end products?

a. fatty acids
b. lactic acid
c. hydrogen and pyruvate
d. carbon dioxide and water
e. water only

A

d. carbon dioxide and water

81
Q

which of the ff cell are more abundant in chronic inflammation than in acute inflammation?

a. plasma cells
b. eosinophils
c. neutrophils
d. normoblasts
e. basophils

A

a. plasma cells

82
Q

which of the ff is a very serious complication of an infant delivered of a mother with gonorrhea?

a. toxemia
b. a perforated palate
c. hutchinson’s incisors
d. congenital gonorrhea
e. ophthalmia neonatorum

A

e. ophthalmia neonatorum

83
Q

which of the ff organisms is the most likely to be cultured from chronic bilateral ulcerations at the corners of the mouth?

a. mucos
b. candida
c. brucella
d. treponema
e. aspergillus

A

b. candida

84
Q

abscess formation is particularly characteristic of infections with which of the ff microorganisms

a. viruses
b. rickettsiae
c. streptococcus
d. staphylococcus
e. gonococci

A

d. staphylococcus

85
Q

a patient with which of the ff diseases is predisposed to develop osteosarcoma?

a. osteomalacia
b. osteopetrosis
c. Paget’s disease of bone
d. osteogenesis imperfecta
e. osteomyelitis

A

c. Paget’s disease of bone

86
Q

which of the ff is a significant effet of pheothromocytoma?

a. myxedema
b. acromegaly
c. glycosuria
d. hypertension
e. AOTA

A

d. hypertension

87
Q

which of the ff structures are ectomesenchymal in origin :

a. branchial arch arteries
b. dental papillae
c. branchiomeric nerves

A

dental papillae

88
Q

what do the glossopharyngeal nerve, stylopharyngeus and upper pharyngeal muscles, and the greater cornu of the hyoid bone have in common?

A

they are all derived from the third branchial arch

89
Q

the oronasal membrane, located between the nasal sac and the embryonic oral cavity structure consisting of

A

ectoderm only

90
Q 
which of the ff are viral disease?
I. mumps
II. influenza
III. scarlet fever
IV. herpes simplex
V. whooping cough
A

mumps
influenza
herpes simplex

91
Q

inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the ff.

a. salt vaccine
b. tetanus toxoid
c. sabin’s oral vaccine
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

salt vaccine

92
Q

hyperglycemia, glycosuria, hyperlipemia, ketonuria are characteristics of:

A

diabetes mellitus

93
Q

antibiotic for oral candidiasis

A

nyastatin

94
Q

acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by what microorganism?

A

staphylococcus

95
Q

microorganism most predominant in the normal oral flora?

A

streptococcus

96
Q

the fastest, safest, and most effective method to sterilize a metal impression tray with a solder that melts at a temp above 175 degrees Celcius?

A

autoclaving

97
Q

herpangina is pathologic condition associated with which virus?

A

coxsackie virus

98
Q

elements that are usual constituents of inflammatory infiltrate (3)

A

fluids
neutrophils
macrophages

99
Q

leukocytosis is apt to be present in what condition/s?

A

acute abscess

osteomyelitis

100
Q

therapeutic agents classed as braod-spectrum antibiotics (2)

A

tetracycline

chloramphenicol

101
Q

reactions that require prior sensitization (4)

A

anaphylaxis
arthus reaction
contact dermatitis
erythroblastosis fetalis

102
Q

irreversible pathologic changes (2)

A

autolysis

infarction

103
Q

a bacterium known for as large polysaccharide capsule

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

104
Q

the predisposition of an individual to sensitization is a characteristic of:

A

atopic allergy

105
Q

the progression of impetigo in children involves streptococci and

A

staphylococci

106
Q

peptic ulcer MOST commonly occurs in the

A

lesser curvature of the stomach

107
Q

type of infection commonly transmitted by blood and blood-derived product is

A

hepa B

108
Q

protection against encapsulated bacterial pathogens is mediated mainly by

A

humoral immunity

109
Q

serum sickness syndrome is an example of

A

a systemic arthus reaction

110
Q

in amyloidosis of the tongue, the amyloid is deposited primarily in the

A

stroma connective tissue

111
Q

submerging dental instruments for 15 minutes in a cold disinfecting solution is unacceptable as a sterilizing method because during this interval cold disinfectants:

A

are not sporicidal

112
Q

aspiration of material from carious teeth may cause:

A

lung abscess

113
Q

hepatitis b surface antigen in a patient’s serum indicates that the patient is

A

potentially infectious

114
Q

miliary tuberculosis results from spread of tubercle bacili by way of

A

bloodstream

115
Q

a benign tumor arising from voluntary muscle is

A

rhabdomyoma

116
Q

the MOST feared consequence of graft therapy in a patient with an immunodeficiency is

A

graft versus host reaction

117
Q

left-sided heart failure or shock may be associated etiologically with

A

pulmonary emboli

118
Q

the nuclear material of a bacterial cell is typically characterized as a _______ within a nuclear membrane

A

single, double-stranded DNA molecule not confined

119
Q

myotic organisms are characteristically found microscopically within reticuloendothelial cells in

A

histoplasmosis

120
Q

a number of fungi that commonly cause superficial skin infections belong to the genus

A

trichophyton

121
Q

long-standing chronic renal insufficiency may produce

A

parathyroid hyperplasia

122
Q

the eclipse stage of viral infection is characterized by

A

absence of demonstrable virus particles

123
Q

the genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by

A

conjugation

124
Q

B-lymphocytes recognize specific antigens by virtue of

A

membrane-bound immunoglobulin

125
Q

the first clinical manifestation of herpes simplex virus type I infection is usually

A

gingivostomatitis

126
Q

causes of atrophy include: (4)

A

disuse
pressure
loss of innervation
decreased nourishment

127
Q

malignant bone tumors likely to be encountered in children or young adults include: (2)

A

ewing’s sarcoma

osteogenic sarcoma

128
Q

thrombotic occlusion of a coronary artery may result in (3)

A

infarction of the myocardium
fibrosis of the myocardium
conductive changes

129
Q

Adenocarcinoma is the predominant type of malignant neoplasm in all of the ff EXCEPT

a. cervix uteri
b. stomach
c. prostate gland
d. breast
e. colon

A

a. cervix uteri

130
Q

the vegetative lesion of infective endocarditis consist of masses of microorganisms enmeshed in a network of fibrin. the most common site for formation of such lesions when caused by Streptococcus viridans is:

A

previously damaged mitral valve

131
Q

when clinical manifestations of advanced portal cirrhosis appear, they consist of

A
  • obstruction of the portal circulation with splenomegaly and ascites
  • generalized edema due to reduced albumin production by the liver and subsequent decrease in serum albumin levels
  • development of esophageal varices as a collateral venous return to bypass the diseased liver
  • testicular atrophy and gynecosmatia due to inability of the liver to inactivate estrogens
132
Q

poorly calcified enamel

A

enamel lamellae

increased lines of Retzius

133
Q

the root growth theory of eruption proposes that eruption is due to the push of the

A

proliferating periodontal ligament

134
Q

the dental follicle plays an important role in the formation of (3)

A

bone of the alveolar socket

cementum over the root of the tooth

fibrous periodontal ligament

135
Q

antibacterial substances secreted in saliva include

A

lysozyme

immunoglobulins

peroxidase

136
Q

fixation of a mass to surrounding tissue suggests:

A

malignancy

137
Q

squamous epithelium ma proliferate in a dental granuloma. this proliferation most frequently develops into:

A

an apical radicular cyst

138
Q

the cell seen in allergic inflammatory states

A

eosinophils

139
Q

a boy, age 22 months, has been receiving radiation therapy for a neoplasm involving the palate and infratemporal fossa. which of the ff dental anomalies may occur as a result of the radiation therapy?

A

microdontia

140
Q

in Addison’s disease a characteristic oral finding is

A

macular areas of brown pigmentation

141
Q

the study of the causation or of various causative factors of disease is termed:

A

etiology

142
Q

the forecasting of how the specific pathologic process will terminate based on the known life history of the disease plus the individual’s ability to adequately respond to the therapeutics is termed:

A

prognosis

143
Q

a positive tuberculin test means that the patient

A

has a hypersensitivity tot he tubercle bacillus and its products

144
Q

the majority of antibodies have a half-life closest to:

A

1 month

145
Q

chickenpox is produced by the varicella virus, which is the same agent or related to the agent, causing

A

herpes zoster

146
Q

the important functions of the bacterial cell wall are

A

to give the bacterium its shape

to protect the bacterium by resisting physical changes

147
Q

resistance to penicillin in a bacteria has been shown to be caused by:

A

an enzyme produced by the bacteria

148
Q

the principal compounds fermented by microorganisms which result in the accumulation of products such as alcohol and organic acids are:

A

carbs

149
Q

which of the following is not suitable for cultivation of viruses

A

blood agar

150
Q

the efficiency of disinfectant depends upon the (3)

A

concentration of disinfectant

concentration of microorganisms

length of exposure

151
Q

factors that an contribute directly to the pathogenesis of an infection that is caused by a particular bacterium include/s:

A

AOTA

152
Q

the main funtion of IgE antibodies appears to be:

A

participation in allergic reactions

153
Q

immunization of an individual by an antigen, which elicits an antibody response may occur by which routes?

A

injection

ingestion

inhalation

skin or mucosal contact

154
Q

the embryological stomodeum is lined by

A

ectoderm

155
Q

which oral epithelium type is keratinized?

A

attached gingiva

GenOral Histo and Patho (1 decks)

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