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SUR 122 MP > Genitourinary (Yellowbook) > Flashcards

Genitourinary (Yellowbook) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The Pereyra needle is used in which specialty area of surgery?
    (A) Neurology
    (B) Urology
    (C) Orthopedics
    (D) Ophthalmology
A

A Pereyra needle suspension is used to treat stress incontinence a urinary condition.

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2
Q
  1. The use of distilled water during a highly invasive genitourinary procedure such as a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is prohibited for irrigation because of the potential for:
    (A) hemolysis of RBC
    (B) electrolytic dissipation of current
    (C) increase of blood pressure
    D) body fluid shift
A

(A) hemolysis of RBC

When water is used for irrigation on an invasive surgical procedure, the pressure of the water against the exposed vessels creates a hemolytic reaction and therefore destroys RBCS.

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3
Q
  1. Why is a 30-cc balloon Foley used after a TURP?
    (A) Hemostasis
    (B) Decompression
    (C) Creation of negative pressure
    (D) Aspiration
A

(A) hemostasis

Pressure from a 30-cc catheter balloon inserted after closure of the urethra helps obtain hemostasis by controlling venous bleeding.

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4
Q
  1. The three lumens of a Foley are used for inflation, drainage, and:
    (A) prevention of urine reflux
    (B) access for sterile urine specimens
    (C) continuous irrigation
    (D) additional hemostasis
A

(C) continuous irrigation

The third lumen provides a means for continuous irrigation of the bladder for a time postoperatively to prevent formation of clots in the bladder.

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5
Q
  1. The purpose of the kidney bar or kidney lift is to:
    (A) increase the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest
    (B) increase the space between the ribs
    (C) stabilize the patient
    (D) support the body in the flexed position
A

(A) increase the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest

The OR table is flexed so that the kidney elevator can be raised the desired amount to increase the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest.

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6
Q
  1. Why is the table straightened before closing a kidney incision?
    (A) To facilitate easier respirations
    (B) To create better approximation of tissues
    (C) To facilitate better circulation
    (D) To prevent nerve damage
A

(B) To create better approximation of tissues

When the kidney position is being used, the table is straightened before closure to afford better approximation of tissues. It is used for procedures on kidneys and ureters.
This is done by the anesthesiologist.

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7
Q
  1. Nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate is termed:
    (A) prostatitis
    (B) benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
    (C) balanitis
    (D) prostatism
A

(B) benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

As the male ages, the prostate gland may enlarge and gradually obstruct the urethra. This condition is known as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).

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8
Q
  1. Urethral strictures can be dilated by use of each of the following EXCEPT:
    (A) Philips filiform and followers
    (B) Van Buren sounds
    (C) Braasch bulb
    (D) McCarthy dilators
A

(C) A Braasch bulb is a ureteral catheter used to occlude the ureteral orifice during x-ray study, Urethral dilatation is accomplished using McCarthy dilators, Philips filiform and followers, and Van Buren sounds.

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9
Q
  1. A staghorn stone is one that lodges and continues to grow in the:
    (A) renal calyx
    (B) space of Retzius
    (C) ureter
    D) hilum
A

(A) Renal Calyx

A stone may lodge in a renal calyx and continue to enlarge, eventually filling the entire renal collecting system. It is known as a staghorn stone.

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10
Q
  1. In cystoscopy, the irrigating solution is:
    (A) distilled water
    (B) glycine
    (C) mannitol
    D) sorbitol
A

(A) distilled water

For a simple observation cystoscopy or retrograde pyelogram, sterile distilled water may be used,

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11
Q
  1. Rib removal for surgical exposure of the kidney requires all of the following EXCEPT a/an:
    (A) Alexander periosteotome
    (B) Doyen raspatory
    (C) Heaney clamp
    (D) Stille shears
A

(C) Heaney clamp

The Alexander periosteotome, Doyen raspatory, and Stille shears are all instruments required to remove a rib. A Heaney clamp is a hemostatic clamp used in gynecological surgery.
(Alexander periosteotome pictured)

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12
Q
  1. Penile condylomata are most successfully removed by:
    (A) dermabrasion
    (B) laser
    (C) cautery
    (D) ultrasound
A

(B) Laser
Laser ablation of condylomata is the eradication of diseased tissue by means of a laser beam. The recurrence rate with this technique is low.

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13
Q
  1. Removal of a testis or the testes is called:
    (A) orchiopexy
    (B) orchiectomy
    (C) epididymectomy
    (D) vasectomy
A

(B) Removal of the testes (orchiectomy) renders the patient both sterile and hormone deficient. Bilateral orchiectomy usually denotes carcinoma. Unilateral orchiectomy may be indicated for cancer, infection, or trauma

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14
Q
  1. Which solution is NOT used during a transurethral prostatectomy?
    (A) Normal saline
    (B) Sorbitol
    (C) Mannitol
    (D) Glycine
A

(A) Normal saline
Sorbitol, mannitol, and glycine do not produce hemolysis.
They are non electrolytic and do not cause dispersion of high frequency current with loss of cutting power as occurs with normal saline.

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15
Q
  1. Temporary diversion of urinary drainage by means of an external catheter that drains the renal pelvis is called:
    (A) vesicostomy
    (B) nephrostomy
    (C) pyelostomy
    (D) cystostomy
A

(C) Pyelostomy is entering the pelvis of the kidney with a small blade. A catheter is placed through the incision into the renal pelvis to create a short-term urinary diversion.

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16
Q
  1. The procedure to treat organic sexual impotence is:
    (A) spermatocelectomy
    (B) varicocelectomy
    (C) testicular implant
    (D) penile implant
A

(D) penile implant
A penile prosthesis is implanted for treatment of organic sexual impotence.

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17
Q
  1. Microscopic reversal of the male sterilization procedure is termed:
    (A) spermatogenesis
    (B) orchiopexy
    (C) vasovasostomy
    (D) vasectomy
A

(C) Vasovasostomy is the surgical reanastomosis of the vas deferens, utilizing the operative microscope.

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18
Q
  1. A needle biopsy of the prostate may be accomplished with a/an:
    (A) butterfly needle
    (B) angiocatheter
    (C) Tru-Cut needle
    (D) taper needle
A

(C) The Tru-Cut or Vim-Silverman biopsy needle is used to retrieve a prostate biopsy.

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19
Q
  1. A congenital condition in the male in which the urethra ends on the ventral side of the glans penis anywhere along the penile shaft, on the corona, or on the perineum is termed:
    (A) paraphimosis
    (B) phimosis
    (C) epispadias
    (D) chordee
A

(D) Chordee is when the male penis is curved ventrally with the meatus and the glans within close proximity to each other. Epispadias is when the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis. Phimosis is a congenital narrowing of the foreskin on the head of the penis. Paraphi-mosis is when the foreskin cannot be retracted from an uncircumcised penis, which can result in gangrene and amputation of the penis.

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20
Q
  1. Continuous irrigation following TURP is accomplished by use of a:
    (A) suprapubic cystotomy tube
    (B) 30-cc three-way Foley catheter
    (C) 5-cc three-way Foley catheter
    (D) 30-cc two-way Foley catheter
A

(B) 30-cc three-way Foley catheter

Following a TURP, the urologist may insert a 30-cc three-way Foley catheter. The third lumen provides a means of continuous irrigation of the bladder for a period after surgery to prevent the formation of clots. The large balloon aids in hemostasis.

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21
Q
  1. When the prostate gland is removed through an abdominal incision into the anterior prostatic capsule, it is called a ____ prostatectomy.
    (A) perineal
    (B) suprapubic
    (C) retropubic
    (D) transurethral
A

(C) Retropubic prostatectomy is the enucleation of hypertrophied prostate tissue through an incision into the anterior prostatic capsule. Good exposure and excellent hemo-stasis are obtained.

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22
Q
  1. Kidney stones are sent to the laboratory in:
    (A) saline
    (B) water
    (C) dry state
    (D) formalin
A

(C) dry state
Stones removed during surgery are subjected to chemical analysis and thus are submitted in a dry state. Fixative agents invalidate the results of the analysis.

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23
Q
  1. A Pereyra procedure is done for:
    (A) stress incontinence
    (B) chronic bladder infection
    (C) drainage of the bladder
    (D) impotence
A

(A) stress incontinence
A Pereyra procedure is a bladder neck suspension involving ureterovesical suspension with vaginourethroplasty.

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24
Q
  1. A percutaneous nephrolithotomy utilizes all of the following EXCEPT:
    (A) ultrasound wand
    (B) flexible nephroscope
    (C) lithotripter
    (D) lithotripter tub
A

(D) lithotripter tub

A percutaneous nephrolithotomy facilitates the removal of stones using a rigid or flexible nephroscope. Accessory instrumentation includes an ultrasonic wand (sonotrode), lithotripter probe, stone basket, and stone grasper. A lithotripter tub is used in extracor-poreal shock wave lithotripsy.

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25
Q
  1. Orchiopexy can be defined as:
    (A) fixation of an ovary
    (B) uterine suspension
    (C) testicle removal
    (D) fixation of a testicle
A

(D) fixation of a testicle
Orchiopexy is regarded as the transter or fixation of an imperfectly descended testicle into the scrotum and suturing it in place.

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26
Q
  1. Abdominal resection of the prostate gland through an incision into the bladder is known surgically as a:
    (A) retropubic prostatectomy
    (B) suprapubic prostatectomy
    (C) transurethral prostatectomy
    (D) suprapubic cystostomy
A

(B) suprapubic prostatectomy
After a suprapubic incision is made abdominally, an opening is made into the bladder, and the prostate is removed from above.

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27
Q
  1. A lumbar or simple flank incision for ureter or kidney surgery may include removal of which ribs?
    (A) 5 and 6
    (B) 7 and 8
    (C) 9 and 10
    (D) 11 and 12
A

(D) 11 and 12
The lumbar or simple flank incision may include removal of the 11th or 12th rib; thus, a rib set should be available.

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28
Q
  1. An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the scrotum is a/an:
    (A) hydrocele
    (B) enterocele
    (C) varicocele
    (D) hydronephrosis
A

(A) hydrocele
A hydrocele is an abnormal accumulation of fluid within the scrotum, contained in the tunica vaginalis.

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29
Q
  1. Bladder stones are crushed with a:
    (A) basket catheter
    (B) lithotrite
    (C) cautery
    (D) resectoscope
A

(B) lithotrite

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30
Q
  1. Urethral meatal stenosis is corrected by a/an:
    (A) frenulotomy
    (B) meatotomy
    (C) urethral dilation
    (D) extirpation of the penis
A

(B) Meatotomy
Urethral meatotomy is an incisional enlargement of the external urethral meatus to relieve stenosis or stricture, either congenital or acquired.

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31
Q
  1. In a penile implant, the inflation pump is located in the:
    (A) distal penis
    (B) proximal penis
    (C) scrotum
    (D) groin
A

(C) The pump is placed in the most dependent portion of the scrotum.

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32
Q
  1. Excision of the tunica vaginalis is a:
    (A) vagotomy
    (B) vasectomy
    (C) varicocelectomy
    (D) hydrocelectomy
A

(D) A hydrocelectomy
The excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis to remove the enlarged fluid-filled sac.

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33
Q
  1. Circumcision refers to:
    (A) removal of the foreskin
    (B) removal of the glans
    (C) widening of the urethral opening
    (D) lengthening of the foreskin
A

(A) removal of the foreskin

At times, the condition known as phimosis (stricture of the foreskin) causes a circumcision to be done on an adult male who was not circumcised at birth.

34
Q
  1. An alternative approach to surgical TURP utilizing a basic cystoscopic setup is:
    (A) suprapubic prostatectomy
    (B) transcystoscopic urethroplasty
    (C) perineal prostatectomy
    D) retropubic prostatectomy
A

(B) Transcystoscopic urethroplasty

Balloon dilatation of the prostatic urethra, also known as transcystoscopic urethroplasty, is an advanced alternative to transurethral prostatectomy. It is nonsurgical, and with a cystoscopic setup and balloon dilatation cath-eters, the urethra is stretched for a better urinary flow.

35
Q
  1. The laser used to destroy small recurrent bladder tumors is the:
    (A) CO2
    (B) argon
    (C) Nd: YAG
    (D) both A and B
A

(C) Nd: YAG

The advantages of the Nd:YAG laser in the eradication of bladder tumors are that bleeding is minimized, only sedation is required, operating time is short, and there is minimal damage to healthy

36
Q
  1. Following anastomosis of a ureter during a ureteral reimplantation procedure, a is left in place to ensure free drainage of the kidney postoperatively.
    (A) Foley catheter
    (B) ureteral catheter
    (C) T-tube
    (D) soft stent
A

(D) soft stent
The proximal stoma is transferred to the site of the anastomosis for reimplantation.

37
Q
  1. A reverse sterilization procedure in the male is called a/an:
    (A) vasostomy
    (B) vasovasostomy
    (C) epididymovasostomy
    (D) both B and C
A

(D) both B and C

Both vasovasotomy and epididymovasostomy are microscopic reanastomosis options for sterilization reversal in the male. Success rates vary from 40% to 70%.

38
Q
  1. Before insertion of a penile implant, the insertion site, as well as the implant itself, is irrigated with:
    (A) normal saline
    (B) Betadine
    (C) sterile water
    (D) kanamycin and bacitracin
A

(D) kanamycin and bacitracin

A serious complication of a penile implant is infection. Meticulous aseptic technique and careful draping are essential.
Intraoperatively and before insertion of the implant components, a prophylactic antibiotic irrigant of bacitracin is used on the implants and in the insertion sites.

39
Q
  1. To prevent thrombi from forming in the walls of the renal vein during transfer from the donor to the recipient, ____ is given just before clamping of the renal vessels.
    (A) furosemide
    (B) protamine sulfate
    (C) heparin
    (D) mannitol
A

(C) heparin
Heparin is given intravenously to the donor just before clamping the renal vessels before removal of the kidney. Immediately after the kidney is removed (and only in a live donor), 50 mg of protamine sulfate is given to reverse the action of the heparin in the donor.

40
Q
  1. The drug of choice for adequate diuresis of a living donor before, during, and after removal of the kidney is:
    (A) urea
    (B) protamine sulfate
    (C) Ringer’s lactate solution
    (D) mannitol
A

(D) mannitol

Forty-five minutes before surgery, 12.5 g of mannitol is given to the kidney donor to ensure diuresis during anesthesia induction.
The dose is repeated 5 minutes before the renal vessel is clamped to maximize diuresis and once again at the end of the procedure.

41
Q
  1. All of the following are ideal requirements of cadaver donors EXCEPT:
    (A) any age
    (B) free of infection or malignancy
    (C) normotensive up until death
    (D) under hospital observation before death
A

(A) any age
The ideal cadaver donor should be young, free of infection or cancer, and nor-motensive until just before death. There must also be family permission, and the medical examiner must unequivocally establish brain death.

42
Q
  1. Cooling and flushing of pancreas, liver, and kidneys of cadaver donors are accomplished by cannulation of the organ and infusion of large amounts of cold:
    (A) saline solution
    (B) Ringer’s lactate solution
    (C) sterile water
    (D) Sack’s solution
A

(B) Ringer’s lactate solution

Just before completion of full dissection of the donor liver, the donor is heparinized and systemically cooled. Further cooling and flushing of the pancreas, liver, and kidneys is achieved by cannulation and infusion of cold Ringer’s lactate solution via the inferior vena cava until properly cooled.

43
Q
  1. Nonconducting, isosmotic glycine irrigating solution must be used in the surgical presence of a:
    (A) cystoscope
    (B) ureteroscope
    (C) resectoscope
    (D) nephroscope
A

(C) The use of the resectoscope requires that irrigation be accomplished with a non-conducting, isosmotic solution to prevent conduction of current into the bladder, as well as to prevent hemolysis attributable to elec-troresection of tissue.

44
Q
  1. All of the following procedures may be completed through a cystoscope EXCEPT:
    (A) biopsy of bladder tumor
    (B) removal of foreign body in bladder
    (C) total removal of bladder tumor
    D) cystogram for diagnostic studies
A

(C) total removal of bladder tumor

All of the following procedures can be accomplished through a cystoscope: bladder biopsy, removal of a foreign body, insertion of radionuclide seeds, coagulation of a hemangioma with argon laser, and cystographic studies. Excision of a bladder tumor requires the use of a resectoscope.

45
Q
  1. After incision is made into the scrotum during a vasectomy, the forceps used to grasp the vas and bring it to the surface for surgery is the:
    (A) Allis
    (B) Babcock
    (C) Kelly
    (D) mosquito
A

(A) Allis
The vas is located by digital palpation of the upper part of the scrotum. A small incision is made over the vas. An Allis forceps is inserted into the scrotal incision to grasp the vas.

46
Q
  1. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
    (ESWL) disintegrates stones by introducing shock waves into the body through the medium of:
    (A) water
    (B) air
    (C) gas
    (D) saline
A

(A) water

A noninvasive approach to urolithiasis management is the use of ESWL. This device disintegrates stones by introducing shock waves into the body, utilizing a specially treated water as a medium.

47
Q
  1. Laser lithotripsy utilizes the tunable pulse-dyed laser known as:
    (A) diode
    (B) Nd: YAG
    (C) Candela
    (D) argon
A

(C) The Candela laser, a tunable dye laser, allows the operator to dial the desired wavelength within a limited range. It has the ability to disintegrate stones without damaging surrounding tissue. The technique may be used during an ureteropyeloscopy or nephroscopy.

48
Q
  1. The inability to control urination is:
    (A) reflux
    (B) urinary incontinence
    (C) hydrocele
    (D) chronic bladder infection
A

(B) urinary incontinence

most commonly caused by loss of sphincter control at the bladder neck.

49
Q
  1. The radiographic diagnostic test used to outline the structures of the kidney, ureters, and bladder is known as:
    (A) MRI
    (B) retrograde pyelogram
    (C) GU radiograph
    (D) KUB
A

(D) KUB
is a radiograph of the kidneys, ure-ters, and bladder.

50
Q
  1. Overabsorption of irrigation fluid that may result in vascular overload is known as:
    (A) extravasation
    (B) intravasation
    (C) hemolysis
    (D) hydronephrosis
A

(A) Extravasation

the absorption of irrigation fluids into the vascular system, which results in fluid overload and can result in cardiac arrest.

51
Q
  1. All are urethral catheters EXCEPT:
    (A) whistle tip
    (B) spiral tip
    (C) Braasch bulb
    (D) three-way Foley
A

(D) A three-way Foley is used for irrigation and hemostasis.

52
Q
  1. When performing an ileal conduit for urinary diversion, the ureters are implanted into:
    (A) bladder
    (B) ileum
    (C) trigone
    (D) large intestine
A

(B) ileum
An ileal conduit is urinary diversion away from the bladder before or after a radical cystectomy, in which the bladder and surrounding tissue have been removed as a treatment for cancer.

53
Q
  1. If a patient is undergoing a right nephrectomy for a right renal tumor, the position is:
    (A) a right lateral kidney
    (B) a left lateral kidney
    (C) supine
    (D) prone
A

(B) a left lateral kidney
The patient is placed in a right lateral position with the flank over the table break with the operative side up.

54
Q
  1. What syringe is used to evacuate bladder, prostate, or stone fragments?
    (A) Cystoscope
    (B) Ellik
    (C) Toomey
    (D) Both B and C
A

(D) Both B and C

Small pieces of tissue or stones are released into the irrigation fluid in the bladder and evacuated with the Ellik evacuator or Toomey syringe.

55
Q
  1. Which of the following dilators is used to dilate the urethra?
    (A) Hanks
    (B) Hagar
    (C) Cysto
    (D) Van Buren
A

(D) The Van Buren is the dilator commonly used to dilate the urethra.

56
Q
  1. Which incision is used when doing a TURP?
    (A) Suprapubic
    (B) Retropubic
    (С) Pfannenstiel
    (D) None of the above
A

(D) None of the above

57
Q
  1. Insertion of a suprapubic catheter into the bladder for drainage away from the vaginal and urethral area is:
    (A) Foley catheter
    (B) ileal conduit
    (C) cystostomy
    (D) Stamey procedure
A

(C) Cystostomy

an opening made into the urinary bladder through a low abdominal incision with insertion of a suprapubic catheter.

58
Q
  1. Discharge of urine from the urinary bladder is called:
    (A) plasma flow
    (B) albumen urea
    (C) renal clearance
    (D) micturition
A

(D) Micturition refers to urination.

59
Q
  1. What is the condition in which the urethral meatus is located on the top side of the penis?
    (A) Penile implant
    (B) Hypospadias
    (C) Epispadias
    (D) Meatotomy
A

(C) Epispadias
a rare condition in which the urethral meatus is located on the top side of the penis.

60
Q
  1. This procedure is performed on a patient with chronic and end-stage renal disease to aid in filtering the blood and removing ingested toxins.
    (A) Arteriovenous (AV) fistula
    (B) AV shunt
    (C) Peritoneal dialysis
    (D) All of the above
A

(D) AV shunt and AV fistula are used to access the vascular system for hemodialysis.
During peritoneal dialysis, a silastic tube is implanted in the suprapubic peritoneal space.

61
Q
  1. The tissue covering of the kidney that keeps it in its normal position is:
    (A) glomerulus
    (B) renal pelvis
    (C) Gerota’s capsule
    (D) loop of Henley
A

(C) Gerota’s capsule

Gerota’s capsule is the tissue covering of the kidney. The glomerulus is a network of capillaries that help filter the kidney. The renal pelvis is the funnel-shaped structure within the kidney, and the loop of Henley helps to reabsorb filtered water, sodium, calcium, chlo-rine, and potassium in a normal kidney.

62
Q
  1. Which of the following instruments is used to dilate the urethra?
    (A) Hank
    (B) Hagar
    (C) Bakes
    (D) Van Buren
A

(D) Van Buren

63
Q
  1. The first step of urine production where fluids are dissolved and forced through the membrane is:
    (A) glomerular filtration
    (B) peritoneal dialysis
    (C) hemolysis
    (D) osmosis
A

(A) glomerular filtration

Glomerular filtration is the first step of urine production. Peritoneal dialysis is used for renal failure. Hemolysis is rupturing of RBCs, and osmosis is the movement of fluid from a higher concentration to a lower concentration.

64
Q
  1. The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is:
    (A) renal pelvis
    (B) nephron
    (C) renal calyx
    (D) Gerota’s capsule
A

(B) Nephron
The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. The renal pelvis is the funnel-shaped structure within the kidney. The renal calyces are the chambers of the kidney where urine passes, and Gerota’s capsule covers the kidney.

65
Q
  1. A procedure to remove urinary calculus is:
    (A) ileal conduit
    (B) laparoscopic nephrectomy
    (C) ESWL
    (D) TURP
A

(C) ESWL

ESWL is used to remove kidney stones.
An ileal conduit follows a total cystectomy.
A laparoscopic nephrectomy removes the kid-ney, and a TURP is a transurethral resection of the prostate.

66
Q
  1. The trigone includes:
    (A) openings of both ureters
    (B) urethral opening in the bladder
    (C) Both A and B
    (D) connection of the kidney to ureter, ureter to bladder, and bladder to urethral meatus
A

(C) Both A and B
The trigone includes the openings of both ureters and the urethral opening in the bladder.

67
Q
  1. Rupturing of RBCs and releasing their contents into the surrounding bloodstream is caused by:
    (A) hemolysis
    (B) extravasation
    (C) hydronephrosis
    (D) distribution
A

(A) hemolysis
Hemolysis is the rupturing of RBCs, which releases their contents into the blood-stream. Extravasation is too much fluid entering the bloodstream. Hydronephrosis is enlargement of the kidney due to failure. Distribution involves dividing and spreading.

68
Q
  1. The catheter placed in the bladder through a surgical opening in the abdomen for urinary diversion is:
    (A) Coude
    (B) Robinson
    (C) suprapubic
    (D) none of the above
A

(C) suprapubic
A suprapubic catheter is placed in the bladder through an opening in the abdomen.
A Coude is an indwelling catheter with a curved tip. A Robinson is a straight catheter.

69
Q
  1. How many cubic centimeters (Cc) of sterile water is used to fill a 16-Fr 5-cc Foley catheter?
    (A) 1-5
    (B) 5-6
    (C) 8-10
    (D) 10-12
A

(C) 8-10

8-10 cc of sterile water are used to fill a
5-cc Foley.

70
Q
  1. When performing a penile implant, the reservoir is placed in the ____ , the cylinders in the ____, and the pump in the ____.
    (A) scrotum, penis, abdomen
    (B) penis, scrotum, abdomen
    (C) abdomen, penis, scrotum
    (D) abdomen, scrotum, penis
A

(C) abdomen, penis, scrotum

The reservoir of the penile implant is placed in the abdomen. The cylinders are placed in the penis and the pump in the scrotum.

71
Q
  1. Transrectal seed implantation is performed for cancer within the prostate. The physicians involved with the treatment include all ЕХСЕРТ:
    (A) radiation oncologist
    (B) OB/GYN
    (C) GU
    (D) medical physicist
A

(B) OB/GYN
An OB/GYN surgeon is not needed during a transrectal seed implantation.

72
Q
  1. A vesicovaginal fistula is a fistula between the:
    (A) vagina and intestines
    (B) vagina and anus
    (С) vagina and bladder
    (D) vagina and rectum
A

(С) vagina and bladder

73
Q
  1. A TVT sling is used for:
    (A) urinary stress incontinence
    (B) kidney stones
    (C) kidney tumor
    (D) both B and C
A

(A) urinary stress incontinence
A TVT sling is used for urinary stress incontinence.

74
Q
  1. All are true regarding a kidney transplant ЕХСЕРТ:
    (A) the right kidney is usually taken because it is the smaller one, and the larger kidney is left for the donor patient
    (B) Gibson incision is used
    (C) mannitol is used
    (D) a kidney transplant is the transplantation of only a cadaver donor kidney into the recipient’s iliac fossa
A

(D) A liver donor’s kidney can also be transplanted. It is not only a cadaver donor.

75
Q
  1. The most common tumor of the kidney in children is:
    (A) Wilms tumor
    (B) neuroblastoma
    (C) nephrosarcoma
    (D) glioblastoma
A

(A) Wilms tumor

76
Q
  1. The incision used in a simple open nephrectomy is:
    (A) Gibson
    (B) low transverse
    (C) subcostal flank
    (D) McBurney’s
A

(C) subcostal flank
A subcostal flank incision is made in a simple open nephrectomy. A Gibson incision is used for renal transplantation or as an extraperitoneal approach for distal ureters.
A low transverse or Pfannenstiel incision is used for a cesarean section or a suprapubic prostatectomy. A McBurney’s incision is used for an open appendectomy.

77
Q
  1. When placing a patient in lithotomy position, which of the following is the MOST acceptable technique?
    (A) Arms placed on arm boards placed at 110 degrees
    (B) Legs placed in stirrups one at a time
    (C) Both legs placed in stirrups simultaneously
    (D) Hips placed above the lower break of the table
A

(C) Both legs placed in stirrups simultaneously

78
Q
  1. Which prostatic approach requires the need of a resectoscope?
    (A) Perineal
    (B) Suprapubic
    (C) Retropubic
    (D) Transurethral
A

(D) Transurethral

79
Q
  1. Which type of laser is typically used for stone fragmentation in the ureter?
    (A) Argon
    (B) Krypton
    (C) Carbon dioxide
    (D) Holmium: YAG
A

(D) Holmium: YAG

The argon and krypton lasers are used in retinal surgery. Carbon dioxide is used for neurosurgical and reconstructive surgeries.

80
Q
  1. Necrotizing fasciitis confined to the perineum and scrotum is known as:
    (A) cellulitis
    (B) Gerota’s fasciitis
    (C) boil
    (D) Fournier’s gangrene
A

(D) Fournier’s gangrene

81
Q
  1. A cystectomy with ileal conduit was performed. The surgical technologist anticipates the need for a stoma:
    (A) pouch to collect body fluids
    (B) flange to create an artificial orifice
    (C) pouch to heal the wound
    D) collar to provide suction for drainage
A

(A) pouch to collect body fluids

A stoma pouch is used to provide a leakproof system to collect body fluids while maintaining a healthy wound around the stoma opening.

SUR 122 MP (18 decks)

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