Genitourinary Flashcards

1
Q

What is nephrolithiasis

A

kidney stones

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2
Q

what are kidney stones made up of

A

calcium oxalate stones

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3
Q

where are kidney stones deposited

A

in the collecting duct

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4
Q

where can kidney stones be deposited

A

anywhere in the renal pelvis to the urethra

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5
Q

what are 90% of the kidney stones in the form of

A

radio opaque stones

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6
Q

other than radio opaque stones what other types of kidney stones are there

A

struvite
calcium phosphate
uric acid
cysteine

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7
Q

what are risk factors of nephrolithiasis

A

chronic dehydration
kidney inherited disease
hyperPTH (hypercacaemia)
UTIs
history of previous renal stones

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8
Q

what is the pathophysiology of nephrolithiasis

A

there is an excess of solute in the collecting ducts which causes super saturated urine. This favours crystalisation. The stones forms then cause regular outflow obstruction and hydronephrosis

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9
Q

how do you treat hydronephrosis

A

surgical decompression ASAP

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10
Q

what does obstruction of regular renal outflow cause

A

dilation and obstruction of the renal pelvis, increasing damage and infection risk

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11
Q

what is the presentation of nephrolithiasis

A

loin to groin pain that is colicky - peristaltic waves
the patient cant lie still
haematuria
dysuria
can have a fever is a suprarenal infection is present

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12
Q

what is a differential diagnosis for nephrolithiasis

A

peritonitis - same symptoms except there is rigidity

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13
Q

how do you diagnose nephrolithiasis

A

1st line = Kidney, ureters, bladder X-RAY (80% specific)
GOLD = CT kidney, ureters, bladder (99% specific) and therefore diagnostic
bloods: FBC, U&E and urine dipstick

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14
Q

how do you treat nephrolithiasis

A

if symptomatic = hydrate, analgesia (didofenac) IV for severe pain
Abx if UTI present (gentamycin)
Stones normally pass spontaneously if small enough (<5mm)
elective surgical Tx is too big to pass and causing pain

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15
Q

how do you surgically remove a kidney stone

A

Endoscopic sound wave Lithotripsy
Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (keyhole)

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16
Q

what is acute kidney injury

A

Abrupt decline in kidney infection (hrs to days) characterised by an increase in serum creatinine and urea and a decreased urine output

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17
Q

what is the classification of acute kidney injury

A

KDIGO
Serum creatinine increase 26umol/L within 48hrs OR 1.5X baseline in 7 days
Urine output <0.5ml/kg/hr for 6hrs consecutive

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18
Q

how do you stage acute kidney injury

A

use AKIN
stage 1, 2, 3, and the higher the stage the reduced likelihood of kidney injury

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19
Q

what are the three causes of acute kidney injury

A

pre-renal
renal
post-renal

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20
Q

what are the renal causes acute kidney injury

A

nephron and parenchyma damage
- tubular - acute tubular nephrosis
- interstitial cell death - fever, rashes eosinophilia
- glomerular
- toxins (sepsis)

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21
Q

what are pre-renal causes of AKI

A

Hypoperfusion
total body - decreased cardiac output (shock)
liver failure - hepatorenal syndrome
Renal artery stenosis or blockage
drugs - NSAIDs, ACE-i (decrease GFR)
IV contrast

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22
Q

what are causes of post renal AKI

A

obstructive uropathy
stones
BPH - common in elderly men
Drugs - anticholinergics, CCBc
Occluded indwelling

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23
Q

what are risk factors for AKI

A

increased age, comorbidities, hypovolemia of any cause, nephrotoxicity drugs, decreased blood filtration and urine output

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24
Q

What is the pathophysiology of acute kidney injury

A

there is an accumulation of usually excreted substances
- K+ causing arrhythmias
- Urea causes pruritis, uremic frost, confusion if severe
- fluid causes oedema
- H+ causes acidosis

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25
why does ACEi cause nephrotoxicity
causes constriction of afferent arterioles and therefore decreases perfusion to the glomerulus
26
what is the presentation of acute kidney injury
as a result of substance accumulation: uremia causes encephalopathy, pericarditis, skin manifestations fluid overload causes oedema or hypovolemic shock H+ causes metabolic acidosis K+ causes arrhythmias
27
how does hyperkalaemia present on an ECG
tall tented T waves P wave flattening Wide QRS
28
how do you diagnose AKI
establish the cause pre/utra/post with KDIGO classification - serum creatinine and urine output - check K+, H+, urea, creatinine, FBC and CRP - renal biopsy and USS for post renal
29
how do you treat acute kidney injury
treat the complications (hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis, fluid overload) treat underlying cause last resort - RRT and haemodialysis
30
how do you differentiate between a pre-renal, renal or post-renal cause of AKI using the urea: creatinine ratio
Urea: creatinine >100:1 = prerenal <40:1 = renal 40-100 = postrenal
31
what is chronic kidney disease
eGFR is less than 60mL/min/1.73m^2 for over three months (normal = 120)
32
what are the 5 stages of chronic kidney disease
1) 90+ with renal signs 2) 60-89 with renal signs 3)a 45-59, b 30-44 4) 25-29 5) <15
33
what are the 4 parameters used to determine chronic kidney disease
creatinine age gender ethnicity
34
what are risk factors for chronic kidney disease
diabetes mellitus and hypertension also glomerulonephritis, PKD, nephrotoxic drugs such as NSAIDs
35
what is the pathophysiology behind CKI
there is a decrease in GFR due to damage. this leads to an increased burden and therefore compensatory RAAS to help increase the GFR. This increases the transglomerular pressure causing shearing and loss of BM selectivity causing proteinurea and haematuria
36
what are the symptoms of chronic kidney disease
early on asymptomatic symptoms then start as substances accumulate and there is renal damage anaemia osteodystrophy neuropathy and encephalopathy CVD
37
how do you diagnose CKD
FBC - anaemia of chronic disease U+E urine dip for proteinurea USS GFR function staging 1-5 albumin: creatinine ratio
38
what is the differences between AKI and CKI
in AKI there is an increase in serum creatinine with decreased urine output and CKI is reduced GFR AKI is shorter with no anaemia and the ultrasound is often normal
39
how do you treat CKI
there is no cure so you have to treat the complications - Anaemia: EPO and Fe - osteodystrophy: Vitamin D supplements - CVD: ACEi and statins - oedema: diuretics
40
When GFR is in stage 5 what has to happen
dialysis and ultimately renal transplant will be used as a cure
41
what is benign prostate hyperplasia
non malignant prostate hyperplasia which is normal with aging
42
what are risk factors for benign prostate hyperplasia
an increase in age ethnicity - Afro-Caribbean family history cigarette smoking male pattern baldness castration is protective
43
what is the pathophysiology of benign prostate hyperplasia
inner transitional zones of the prostate (muscular, gland) proliferates and narrows the urethra
44
What is the presentation of benign prostate hyperplasia
Storage = frequency, urgency, nocturia, incontinence Voiding = poor stream, dribbling, incomplete emptying, straining, dysuria ariuria if the urethra is totally occluded leading to retention issues such as UTI, stones and hydrophores
45
how do you diagnose benign prostate hyperplasia
DRE- rectal exam - smooth and enlarged PSA - rule out prostate cancer however this can be quite unreliable
46
how do you treat benign prostate cancer
lifestyle: reduce caffeine Drugs: 1st line is alpha blocker (tamsulosin) and 2nd line is 5 alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride) last resort is surgery (transurethral resection of prostate)
47
what is the action of tamsulosin
it relaxes the bladder neck
48
what is the action of finasteride
it reduces testosterone production and therefore the size of the prostate
49
what is renal cell carcinoma
it is a proximal convoluted tubule epithelial carcinoma
50
what are the risk factors for renal cell carcinoma
smoking haemodialysis hereditary: Von hippel lindau
51
what is Von Hippel lindau disease
it is an autonomic dominant loss of a tumour suppressor gene - can cause bilateral renal and pancreas cysts - can cause cerebellum cancers
52
what are are symptoms of renal cell cariconoma
it is often asymptomatic Triad: flank pain, haematuria, abdominal mass may have left left sided varicocele patients may also have anaemia due to low EPO and hypertension as the tumour releases renin
53
how do you diagnose renal cell carcinoma
1st line - USS (ultrasound) Gold - CT chest/abdominal/pelvis (more sensitive)
54
how do you stage renal cell carcinoma
staging - Robinson staging 1-4
55
what is the treatment for renal cell carcinoma
nephrectomy (full or partial if blocked)
56
what is a Wilms tumour
it is a renal mesenchymal stem cell tumour seen in children under the age of three (rare) - nephroblastoma
57
what type of cancer is bladder cancer
it is a transitional cell carcinoma of the cancer
58
what are the risk factors of developing bladder cancer
occupational exposure to dyes/paints/rubber painter, hairdresser, mechanic smoking chemotherapy and radiotherapy age (mean age is about 33) male
59
what type of bladder cancer is a patient more likely to have if they have schistosomiasis
squamous cell carcinoma rather than transitional
60
what are the symptoms of bladder cancer
painless haematuria (micro/macroscopic) UTI symptoms without bacteriuria
61
How do you diagnose bladder cancer
flexible cystoscopy (gold standard) urinalysis biopsy CTT urogram - allows staging
62
how do you treat bladder cancer
conservative - support medical - chemo or radiotherapy surgery - TURBT - transurethral resection of bladder tumour or cystectomy as a last resort
63
what type of cancer is bladder cancer
it is a cancer of the outer zone of the peripheral prostate - adenocarcinoma - shows neoplastic malignant proliferation
64
what are risk factors for developing prostate cancer
Genetic - BRCA2 and HOXB13 increase in age Afro-Caribbean ethnicity
65
what are the symptoms of prostate cancer
lower urinary tract symptoms systemic cancer symptoms - weight loss, fatigue, pain, bone pain
66
where does prostate cancer typically metastisise to
bone, liver, lung, brain
67
how do you diagnose prostate cancer
DRE - prostate exam PSA test transrectal USS and biopsy is diagnostic use the gleason score for grading where the higher the score the worse the prognosis
68
how do you treat prostate cancer
local - prostatectomy metastatic - hormone therapy to reduce testosterone, bilateral orchidectomy and GnRH receptor agonis leading to suppression of HPG axis (goserelin)
69
what is a side effect of Goserelin
erectile dysfunction and libido loss
70
what is the most hormone sensitive cancer
prostate cancer
71
what are the two types of testicular cancer
1. Germ cell (90%) - seminoma teratoma 2. Non germ cell - sertoli, leydig sarcoma
72
what are the risk factors for testicular cancer
cryptorchidism = undescended testis infertility family history
73
what is the symptoms of testicular cancer
painless lump in the testicle which does NOT transilluminate
74
how do you diagnose testicular cancer
urgent (doppler) USS tests (90% diagnostic) Tumour markers such as AFP and BhCG
75
what types of testicular cancer is AFP and BhCG raised in
1. AFP is raised in teratoma 2. bHCG is raised in seminomas
76
what is the treatment for testicular cancer
urgent radical orchidectomy (+offer sperm storage) always as an extra can have chemo or radiotherapy
77
what is obstructive uropathy
it is a blockage of urine flow and can affect one or both kidneys depending on the level obstruction
78
what are the causes of obstructive uropathy
benign prostatic hypertrophy - obstructions stones
79
what is the pathophysiology of obstructive uropathy
obstruction causes retention and therefore an increase in kidney, ureter, bladder pressure. This causes refluxing of the urine into the renal pelvis and causes hydronephrosis (dilated renal pelvis)
80
what are the symptoms of obstructive uropathy
With the obstruction difficulty passing urine. a slowed stream, sometimes described as a “dribble” a frequent urge to urinate, especially at night (nocturia) the feeling that your bladder isn't empty. decreased urine output. blood in your urine
81
what is the treatment for obstructive uropathy
relieve kidney pressure - catherterise and ureteral stent treat the benign prostate hyperplasia or the stones (plus infection if that has occured)
82
what are the different locations for UTI
Upper (kidney) - pyelonephritis Lower (bladder onward) - cystitis, prostatitis, urethritis, epidydymo-orchiditis
83
what organisms cause UTI
KEEPS Klebsiella Enterobacter E.coli Proteus S. Saprophytic
84
what is the most common bacterial cause of UTI
E.Coli
85
How do you diagnose UTI
1st line: urine dipstick - leukocytes, nitrites and haemoturia Gold standard: Midstream MC+S to confirm the UTI and the pathogen causing it
86
what is pyelonephritis
it is infection of the renal parenchyma and upper ureter.
87
what type of spread does pyelonephritis have
ascending transurethral spread
88
what is the usual cause of pyelonephritis
uropathic E.Coli
89
what are the risk factors of pyelonephritis
urine status - stones renal structural abnormalities catheters
90
what is the presentation of pyelonephritis
Triad loin pain fever pyuria (pus containing urine)
91
how do you diagnose pyelonephritis
1st line: urine dipstick gold: MC+S (microscopy, culture, sensitivity)
92
what is the treatment for pyelonephritis
Analgesia, paracetamol antibiotics: ciprofloxacin or co-amoxiclav
93
what is cystitis
uropathic E.coli infection of the bladder
94
what are risk factors for cystitis
Frequent sexual intercourse History of UTIs Congenital abnormality Urinary catheter Asymptomatic bacteruia DM Spinal cord injuries Pregnancy Immunodeficiency Older age Lack of circumcision
95
what are the symptoms of cystitis
suprapubic tenderness and discomfort increased frequency and urgency visible haematuria can cause confusion in elderly
96
how do you diagnose cystitis
urine dip stick urine culture and sensitivity - gold standard for diagnosis
97
how do you treat cystitis
Antibiotics - 3 days of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin (amoxicillin if the patient is pregnant)
98
what is Urethritis
it is urethral inflammation plus or minus infection
99
what is the most common way of getting urethritis
Sexually acquired infection
100
what infections can cause urethritis
Gonococcal - Neisseria gonorrhoea Non - gonococcal - Chlamydia trachomatis
101
what are non infective causes of urethritis
trauma
102
what are risk factors for urethritis
unprotected sex MSM
103
what are symptoms of urethritis
dysuria +/- urethral discharge (blood or pus urethral pain orchalgia
104
how do you diagnose urethritis
nucleic acid amplification test to detect STI Urine dip MC+S - will detect pathogen ID if UTI
105
how do you treat urethritis
Neisseria - IM ceftriaxone and azithromycin Chlamydia - Doxycycline (or azithromycin)
106
what type of bacteria is chlamydia
obligate intracellular gram negative aerobe (bacillus)
107
What type of bacteria is Neisseria
gram negative diplococcus
108
What disorder is urethritis associated with
reactive arthritis - conjunctivitis - urethritis - arthritis
109
what is epididymo-orchitis
it is inflammation of epididymis extending to the testis. Usually due to urethritis (STI) or cystitis extension
110
What ages is urethritis or cystitis causing epididymo-orchitis more common in
1. Urethritis - more in under 35 2. Cystitis - more in over 35
111
what are the symptoms of Epididymo-orchitis
unilateral scrotal pain and swelling pain is relieved with elevating testes cremaster reflex is intact positive prehns sign
112
how do you diagnose Epididymo-orchitis
Nucleic acid amplification test urine dip MC + S
113
what is the treatment for Epididymo-orchitis
dependent of its an STI or UTI STI - Ceftriaxone and azithromycin or azithromycin
114
what are the two types of Glomerulopathology
Nephrotic or nephritic
115
what are the signs of nephrotic Glomerulopathy
proteinuria hypoalbuminemia oedema - due to 3rd spacing hyperlipidemia hypogammaglobulinemia (low Ig) hypercoagulable blood - due to loss of antithrombin 3
116
what are signs of nephritic glomerulopathology
Haematuria oliguria - little urine: salt and water retention hypertension oedema - due to fluid overload
117
what causes nephritic glomerulopathology
when there is breakdown of the glomerular basement membrane - inflammation - bowman crescents
118
what can present as both nephrotic and nephritic glomerulopathology
diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis
119
what are primary causes of nephrotic syndrome
minimal change disease (MC in children) focal segmental glomerulosclerosis membranous nephropathy
120
what are secondary causes of nephrotic syndrome
diabetic nephropathy
121
what are symptoms of nephrotic syndrome
proteinuria hypoalbuminemia oedema hyperlipidemia with wt gain
122
how do you diagnose nephrotic syndrome - minimal change disease
light microscopy - no change electron microscopy - podocyte effacement and fusion
123
how do you diagnose focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
light microscopy - segmental sclerosis; less than 50% glomeruli affected
124
how do you diagnose membranous nephropathy
light microscopy - thickened glomerular basement membrane electron microscopy - sub podocyte immune complex deposition, spike and dome appearance
125
how do you treat nephrotic syndrome
steroids with variable response - minimal change disease responds well - FSG and MN responds less well
126
what are causes of nephritic syndrome
IgA nephropathy (Berger's syndrome) Post strep glomerulonephritis SLE Goodpasture's syndrome haemolytic uremic syndrome
127
what are the symptoms of IgA nephropathy
visible haematuria - looks like ribena or coke -normally occurs 1-2 days after tonsilitis viral infection (or gastroenteritis)
128
how do you diagnose IgA nephropathy
immunofluorescence microscopy shows IgA complex deposition
129
what is the treatment for IgA nephropathy
non curative: 30% progresses to ESFR BP control (ACEi)
130
what are the symptoms of post strep glomerulonephritis
visible proteinuria - 2 weeks after pharyngitis from Group A, B hemolytic strep (S.Pyogenes)
131
how do you diagnose post strep glomerulonephritis
light microscopy - hypercellular glomeruli electron microscopy - subendothelial immune complex deposition immunofluorescence shows stary sky appearance - IgG, IgM and C3 deposit along the GBM
132
what is the treatment for post strep glomerulonephritis
self limiting usually sometimes may progress to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
133
what is a differential diagnosis for IgA nephropathy
Henoch schonlein purpura - small cell vasculitis diagnosis gives the same result but the difference is that IgA is only kidney deposition, and HSP is systemic (kidney, liver, skin)
134
How do you diagnose SLE
ANA+ve and anti dsDNA positive
135
how do you treat SLE
steroids hydroxychloroquine immunosuppressants
136
how does SLE cause nephritic syndrome
lupus nephritis - ANA deposition in the endothelium
137
how does goodpastures cause nephritic syndrome
there is pulmonary and alveolar haemorrhage as well as glomerulonephritis due to autoantibodies (anti-GBM)
138
how do you treat Goodpastures syndrome
steroids and plasma exchange
139
what are causes of haemolytic uremic nephritis
normally about 5 days post infection vs shiga toxin (E.coli, shigella) - hameolytic anaemia - AKI causing uremia Thrombocytopenia
140
how do you treat haemolytic uremic nephritis
mostly self limiting - but symptoms mean a medical emergency so support with fluids and antibiotics
141
what is rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis
it is a subtype of glomerulonephritis which progresses to ESRF very fast (weeks to months)
142
how do you diagnose RPGN
inflammatory crescents in bowmans space
143
what are causes of rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis
wegner's granulomatosis (GPA) MPA (pANCA positive) Goodpastures (c-ANCA positive)
144
what is polycystic kidney disease
there is cyst formation throughout the renal parenchyma causing bilateral enlargement and damage
145
what are the types of polycystic kidney disease
FAMILIAL INHERITED Auto rec - less common, disease of infancy or prebirth with increased mortality Auto dom - mutated PKD1 (85%) or PKD2
146
what is the pathophysiology of polycystic kidney disease
PKD1+2 code for polycystin (calcium channel) When filtrate passes through nephron cilia move and the polycystin on the cilia open. calcium influx inhibits excessive growth In the mutation there is less calcium influx and therefore there is excessive cilia growth leading to cyst formation
147
what are the symptoms of polycystic kidney disease
Bilateral flank/ back or abdominal pain could have hypertension and haematuria extrarenal cysts - particularly in the circle of willis leading to berry aneurysms
148
How do you diagnose polycystic kidney disease
kidney ultrasound - enlarged bilateral kidneys with multiple cysts genetic testing family history of PKD
149
what is the treatment of polycystic kidney disease
Non curative manage the symptoms - Hypertension (ACEi) - ESRF (RRT transplant)
150
if you find a scrotal mass what do you assume it is until you prove otherwise
Cancer until proved otherwise
151
what is an epididymal cyst
it is an extratesticular cyst (above and beyond testis) that will transilluminate - smooth, extratesticular spherical cyst
152
how do you diagnose an epididymal cyst
ultrasound the scrotum
153
what is hydrocele
it is fluid collection in the tunica vaginalis - cyst that testicle sits within that will transilluminate
154
how do you diagnose hydrocele
ultrasound scrotum
155
what is varicocele
distended pampiniform plexus due to increased left renal vein pressure causing reflux -typically painless
156
how do you diagnose varicocele
clinical examination
157
what is testicular torsion
the spermatic cord twists on itself causing occlusion of the testicular artery - ischemic and gangrene of testis if not delt with
158
is testicular torsion a medical emergency
YES
159
what is a risk factor for testicular torsion
Bell clapper deformity
160
what are the symptoms of testicular torsion
severe unitesticular pain abdominal pain nausea and vomiting cremasteric reflex is lost no pain relief with elevating testis
161
How do you diagnose testicular torsion
ultrasound to check testicular bloodflow surgical exploration if there is increased risk
162
what is the treatment for testicular torsion
urgent surgery within 6 hours - surgical exploration always 1st line if clinical suspicion of testicular torsion
163
how do you overcome the bell clapper deformity
all cases require bilateral orchiopexy (fixing of testis to scrotal sac)
164
what are types of incontinence
stress urge spastic paralysis
165
what is stress incontinence
it is due to sphincter weakness - pee leaks with intraabdominal pressure rise
166
what is urge incontinence
it is detrusor muscle overactivity
167
what is spastic paralysis incontinence
neurological upper motor neuron lesion - overactive reflexes plus hypertonia of detrusor
168
is incontinence more common in females or males
females
169
what is the treatment for incontinence
surgery anticholinergic drugs
170
what is retention
it is the inability to pas urine even when bladder full - overflow incontinence
171
what are causes of retention
obstruction - stones - BPH - neurological flaccid paralysis
172
what is the treatment for retention
catheterize
173
is retention common in males or females
males
174
what are the storage symptoms (lower urinary tract symptoms)
Urgency Frequency Incontinence Nocturia
175
why do storage symptoms occur (lower urinary tract symptoms)
they occur when the bladder should be storing urine and therefore you need to pee
176
what are voiding symptoms (lower urinary tract symptoms)
poor stream incomplete emptying dribbling hesitancy
177
why do voiding symptoms occur
when the bladder outlet is obstructed and therefore it makes it hard to pee
178
what are risk factors for CKD and AKI
emergency surgery i.e risk of sepsis or hypovolemia CVD risk CKD -eGFR <60 diabetes mellitus heart failure age >65 years Liver disease use of nephrotoxic drugs
179
what are the different stages of CKD
1, 2, 3a, 3b, 4, 5
180
what is CKD stage 1
GFR is > 90ml/min
181
What is CKD stage 2
GFR range is 60-90 some sign of kidney damage
182
what is CKD stage 3a
45-59ml/min moderate reduction in kidney function
183
what is CDK stage 3b
30-44 ml/min moderate reduction in kidney disease
184
what is CDK stage 4
15-29ml/min severe reduction in kidney function
185
what is CKD stage 5
less than 15ml/min established kidney failure - dialysis of kidney transplant may be needed
186
what is the NICE diagnostic guideline for kidney injury
rise in creatinine of equal to or over 26umol in 48 hour over 50% rise in creatinine over 7 days fall in urine output to less than 0.5ml/kg/hour for more than 6 hours in adults (8 hours in children)
187
what are signs of intrinsic kidney injury
type 2 diabetes mellitus hypertension low urine osmolarity high urine sodium high blood potassium
188
what are levels of sodium, urea and creatinine in pre-renal kidney injury
normal sodium raised urea raised creatinine responds well to fluid therapy
189
what are signs of post-renal kidney injury
loin to groin acute colicky pain microscopic haematuria
190
what are causes of pre-renal kidney injury
hypovolaemia secondary to diarrhoea and vomiting renal artery stenosis
191
that are intrinsic causes of kidney injury
glomerulonephritis acute tubular necrosis acute interstitial nephritis rhabdomyolysis tumour lysis syndrome
192
what are post renal causes of kidney injury
kidney stone in ureter or bladder benign prostatic hyperplasia external compression of the ureter
193
what is stage 1 of AKI
increase in creatinine to 1.5-1.9 times the baseline or reduction in urine output to <0.5 ml/kg/hour for equal to or over 6 hours
194
whats stage 2 of AKI
increase in creatinine to 2.0 to 2.9 times the baseline or reduction in urine output to <0.5mL/kg/hour for equal to or over 12 hours
195
what is stage 3 of AKI
increase in creatinine to equal to or over 3 times baseline or increase in creatinine > 353.6 umol/l or reduction in urine output to <0.3 mL/kg/hour for over 24 hours
196
what are examples of nephrotoxic drugs
NSAIDs Aminoglycosides ACE-i ARB loop diuretics metformin? Digoxin? lithium?
197
how do you reduce the risk of CVD in CDK management
Atorvastatin - 20mg
198
what is the physiology of the prostate
produces testosterone and dihydrotestosterone production of PSA - liquefies semen
199
what type of cancer is prostate cancer
adenocarcinoma
200
what is the management of benign prostatic hyperplasia
1. tamsulosin 2. finasteride
201
what is the treatment for prostate cancer
localised - radial prostatectomy advanced - zoladex (GnRH agonist)
202
what is hydrocele
it is fluid in the tunica vaginalis soft, non-tender transluminous swelling
203
what are varicocele
it is abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins
204
what are signs of testicular torsion
unilateral swollen tender retracted upward prehns sign negative
205
how do you treat epididymitis
IM ceftriaxone plus doxycycline
206
what is the most common cause of scrotal swelling
epididymal cyst
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what are signs of testicular cancer
a painless lump with hydrocele and gynacomastia
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what is nephritic syndrome
it is inflammation within the kidney
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what are features which defines nephritic syndrome
haematuria oliguria proteinuria hypertension
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what causes nephritic syndrome
an inflammatory disease affecting the kidney - it can arise from both systemic and renal limited disease
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what investigations are done for nephritic syndrome
kidney biopsy - diagnostic urinalysis bloods - elevated ESR and CRP
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how do you manage nephritic syndrome
treat underlying cause blood pressure control - ACE-i/ARB corticosteroids
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why does goodpasture's disease cause glomerulonephritis
because there are autoantibodies to type IV collagen in the glomerular and alveolar membrane
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how does Goodpasture's present
shortness of breath oliguria
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how do you manage Goodpasture's disease
plasma exchange steroids cyclophosphamide
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why does IgA nephropathy cause glomerulonephritis
there is deposition of IgA into the mesangium of the kidney leading to inflammation and damage
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what is the most common cause of nephritic syndrome in high income families
IgA nephropathy
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how does IgA nephropathy present
asymptomatically with microscopic haematuria
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what is the pathophysiology behind post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
This is nephritic syndrome following an infection, 3-6 weeks prior. This is due to deposition of strep antigens in the glomeruli leading to inflammation and damage.
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how does a patient with post streptococcal glomerulonephritis present
with haematuria can also present with acute nephritis
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what is Henoch Schoenlein purpura
it is a small vessel vasculitis that affects the kidney and joints due to IgA deposition
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how does Henoch Schoenlein purpura present
Presents with a purpuric rash on legs, nephritic symptoms, and joint pain due to IgA deposition
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how do you treat Henoch Schoenlein purpura
Managed with corticosteroids and ACE-I/ARB
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what is nephrotic syndrome
this is where there is an issue with the filtration barrier, with the podocytes being primarily implicated, which results in leaking of protein into the urine
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what is the triad which characterises nephrotic syndrome
proteinuria - >3g/24 hours hypoalbuminaemia - loss of albumin in urine Oedema - loss of oncotic pressure
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what are the primary causes of nephrotic syndrome
Minimal change disease Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis Membranous nephropathy
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what are some secondary causes of nephrotic syndrome
diabetes drugs autoimmune neoplasia infection
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how does nephrotic syndrome present
oedema frothy urine
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what investigations are done for nephrotic syndrome
Urinalysis Urine Protein: creatinine ratio- to quantify the degree of proteinuria Blood tests- renal function, elevated lipids Renal biopsy- gives cause
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what is the management for nephrotic syndrome
Management Fluid and salt restriction Loop diuretics- to manage oedema Treat cause ACE-I/ARB to reduce protein loss Manage complications
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what are the complications of nephrotic syndrome
hyperlipidaemia - loss of albumin increases cholesterol formation = treat with statins VTE - due to increased clotting factors = treat with heparin
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how do you treat minimal change disease
high dose steroids such as prednisolone
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what can focal segmental glomerulosclerosis be secondary to
HIV Heroin Lithium
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what should all patients with focal segmental glomerulosclerosis receive
ACE-i or ARBs to control blood pressure
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how do you manage membranous nephropathy
Managed with ACE-I/ARB in all. In patients with high risk of progression, prednisolone and cyclopshosphamide.
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what antibody is found in 70-80% of membranous nephropathy patients
Anti phospholipase A2 receptor antibody
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what are the differences between nephritic and nephrotic syndrome
nephritic has slight proteinuria, hypertension and haematuria, with oedema, low GFR and can have a rash, abdominal pain and N&V nephrotic has high proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia and high level of oedema. It can have a reduced or normal GFR and hyperlipidaemia
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what percentage of nephrotic syndrome shows no visible change on biopsy
25% of cases
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what is the most common GU tract malignancy
bladder cancer
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what is the most common bladder cancer
90% are urothelial carcinomas
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where does urothelial carcinoma spread to
the iliac and para-aortic nodes and then to the liver and the lungs
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what are risk factors for bladder cancer
Smoking increases risk 2-4 times, accounts for half of male cases of bladder cancer Age over 55 Pelvic radiation Exposure to occupational carcinogens Bladder stone- due to chronic inflammation
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what is the management for bladder cancer
T1 - transurethral resection or local diathermy T2-3 - radical cystectomy T4 - palliative chemotherapy and radiotherapy
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where are 90% of renal cancers found to be arising from
proximal tubular epithelium (carcinomas)
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what is the epidemiology of renal cancer
mean age of diagnosis is 55 2:1 male to female diagnosis ratio
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where does renal cancer spread to
bone liver lungs
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what are risk factors for renal cancer
haemodialysis smoking hypertension
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how does renal cancer present
Classic triad of symptoms: haematuria, flank pain, palpable abdominal mass
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what investigations are done for renal cancer
Bloods: polycythaemia from erythropoietin secretion Raised BP: due to renin secretion Ultrasound CT/MRI CXR- shows cannon ball mets
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what score is used to predict survival in renal cancer
Mayo prognostic risk score
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what are the 4 stages of the mayo prognostic risk score
Stage I: partial or radical nephrectomy Stage II: radical nephrectomy Stage III: radical nephrectomy and adrenalectomy Stage IV: systemic treatment
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what is the definition of a UTI
Defined as the presence of microorganisms in the urinary tract which produces clinical features. It can affect the lower tract causing cystitis (bladder), urethritis and prostatitis, and the upper causing pyelonephritis. It can also occur from untreated urolithiasis
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what are the 5 most common UTI causing pathogens
The 5 most common pathogens can remembered with KEEPS: Klebsiella E coli- most common causing >50% of cases Enterococci Proteus Staphylococcus coagulase negative
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what is the treatment for pyelonephritis
Antibiotics: cefalexin for 7-10 days. Trimethoprim or amoxicillin if sensitive. Analgesia- paracetamol
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what is prostatitis most commonly caused by
E.coli
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what are risk factors for cystitis
History of UTI Diabetes Frequent sexual intercourse Pregnancy
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what is the presentation of prostatitis
Very tender prostate: on DRE intensely tender prostate gland Systemic Sx: fever, chills, malaise Voiding Sx
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what investigations are done for prostatitis
Urinalysis and culture- shows blood and WBCs, and bacteria Blood cultures- in patients who are febrile
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what is prostatitis
inflammation and swelling of the prostate gland
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how do you manage prostatitis
ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin for 14 days
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what is the most common bacterial STI
chlamydia trachomatis
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how does chlamydia present in men
Men- testicular pain voiding symptoms, dysuria 50% are ASX
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how does chlamydia present in women
Women- vaginal discharge and dysuria white, yellow or green discharge 70% are ASX
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how do you diagnose STIs
nucleic acid amplification test
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how do you manage chlamydia
avoid sex until the treatment is finished contact tracing single 1g dose of azithromycin plus 7 days of doxycycline
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what is the second most common STI in the UK and what is it caused by
Gonorrhoea and its caused by neisseria gonorrhoea
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what is the presentation of gonorrhoea
more likely to be ASX Men: dysuria, frequency, discharge Female: vaginal discharge dysuria, pelvic pain
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what investigations are done for gonorrhoea
NAAT Microscopy: shows gram-negative diplococci Culture: all infected areas with a swab
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how do you treat gonorrhoea
single ceftriaxone IM dose
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what is urolithiasis
it is the presence of crystalline stones in the urinary tract
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where are the three places youre most likely to find crystalline stones in urolithiasis
pelvicoureteric junction pelvic brim vesicouretral junction
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what are the stones made from in urolithiasis
supersaturated urine - mostly formed of calcium oxalate
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what are the risk factors of urolithiasis
Dehydration High salt intake Obesity- lowers pH Congenital horseshoe kidney Oxalate rich diet Gout- uric acids stones
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how does urolithiasis present
Most are asymptomatic Causes severe colicky unilateral pain from loin to groin Associated with nausea and vomiting Haematuria- 85% of cases Assume ruptured AAA until proven otherwise!
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what investigations are done for urolithiasis
KUBXR- first line and diagnostic for 80% of stones Non contrast CTKUB- gold standard Urine dip stick- for haematuria Blood tests- raised calcium and phosphate
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what is the management for urolithiasis
Strong analgesia- diclofenac Antibiotics Tamsulosin/nifedipine- relaxes smooth muscle and helps expulsion Percutaneous nephrolithotomy- used to expulse stones over 10mm
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what can be given to help prevent urolithiasis
thiazide diuretics- this helps with recurrent stones by reducing calcium levels Hydration, reduce salt and oxalate intake
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what type of cancer is kidney cancer
renal cell carcinoma - arises from the renal parenchyma or cortex
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what are the risk factors for kidney cancer
Smoking Male sex >55yo Black/Native American ethnicity Obesity Hypertension Family history
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what are the signs and symptoms of kidney cancer
More than 50% asymptomatic Haematuria Flank pain Palpable abdo mass Non-specific systemic symptoms Signs of hepatic dysfunction Myoneuropathy Lower limb oedema Scrotal varicocele Derm manifestations/vision loss
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how do you diagnose kidney cancer
Elevated creatinine (reduced clearance) Haematuria and/or proteinuria Abdo/pelvic US (mass) CT abdo/pelvis (mass) MRI abdo/pelvis (mass)
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what is the differential diagnosis for kidney cancer
Benign renal cyst Ureteric cancer Bladder cancer Upper urinary tract urothelial tumour Angiomyolipoma Oncocytoma Secondary mets Congenital renal parenchymal abnormalities Renal infarction Renal infection
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how is kidney cancer managed
surgery
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what are the complications of kidney cancer
Anaemia Hypercalcaemia Erythrocytosis SIADH Hepatic dysfunction
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what are the symptoms of prostate cancer
Nocturia Urinary frequency Urinary hesitancy Dysuria Abnormal digital rectal examination PSA more widely used Asymmetrical, nodular prostate Haematuria Weight loss/anorexia Lethargy Bone pain Palpable lymph nodes
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how do you diagnose prostate cancer
raised PSA prostate biopsy
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what are the differential diagnosis for prostate cancer
BPH Chronic prostatitis
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how do you manage prostate cancer
Active surveillance Androgen deprivation therapy External-beam radiotherapy Brachytherapy Radical prostatectomy
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what are risk factors for testicular cancer
Cryptochidism Gonadal dysgenesis Family/personal history Testicular hypertrophy White ethnicity HIV infection
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what are signs of testicular cancer
Lump/enlargement of one testicle Feeling of heaviness in the scrotum Dull ache in the abdomen or groin Sudden collection of fluid in the scrotum Pain or discomfort in a testicle or the scrotum Enlargement/tenderness of the breasts Back pain
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what are the complications of testicular cancer
infertility
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what is the differential diagnosis for testicular cancer
Testicular torsion Epididymo-orchitis Scrotal hernia Hydrocele Epididymal cyst Haematomas Spermatocele Intratesticular benign cysts Syphilitic gumma
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what are complications of benign prostatic hyperplasia
UTI renal insufficiency bladder stones haematuria sexual dysfunction acute urinary retention overactive bladder
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what are possible complications of pyelonephritis
renal failure sepsis renal abscess formation emphysematous pyelonephritis parenchymal renal scarring recurrent UTIs
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what is the pathophysiology behind chronic pyelonephritis
there is a slow progressive renal damage due to chronic inflammation or infection. This causes thinning of the adrenal cortex with scarring The scarring can be in one or both kidneys and it often causes atrophic tubules with no glomeruli
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what is the most common mechanism of renal scarring in chronic pyelonephritis
vesicoureteral reflux
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what are causes of chronic pyelonephritis
Recurrent infections resulting from anatomical abnormalities Vesiculoreteral reflux Inadequate treatment/recurrence of acute pyelonephritis
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what are risk factors for chronic pyelonephritis
Acute pyelonephritis Vesicoureteral reflux Obstruction Renal caliculi DM
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what are signs or symptoms of chronic pyelonephritis
Nausea Elevated blood pressure Weight loss Fatigue Malaise Cloudy urine Fever Back/flank pain + tenderness
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How is chronic pyelonephritis diagnosed
renal function tests electrolyte panel FBC renal ultrasound kidney-ureter-bladder X ray CT abdomen
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what is a differential diagnosis for chronic pyelonephritis
Acute pyelonephritis Renal caliculi Renal cancer
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how is chronic pyelonephritis managed
no specific treatment available renal damage isnt reversible can help to repair anatomical or functional problems
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what are the possible complications of chronic pyelonephritis
AKI Hyperparathyroidism Acute pyelonephritis Obstruction CKD
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what are the symptoms of cystitis
Dysuria Urgency Frequency Suprapubic pain Abdo pain Fever Vaginal discharge Vaginal pruritis Dyspareunia (painful intercourse) Structurally or functionally abnormal bladder
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what are the possible complications of cystitis
Pyelonephritis Preterm delivery Urinary retention Recurrent UTIs
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what are risk factors of prostatitis
UTI benign prostatic enlargement urinary tract instrumentation or manipulation
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what are possible complications of urethritis
Chronic non-gonococcal urethritis Genitourinary abscess Urethral stricture/fistula Reactive arthritis Disseminated gonococcal infection Epididymitis Acute conjuctivitis Pneumonia
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what are causes of urethritis
N gonorrhoeae (gonococcal urethritis) C trachomatis M genitalium U urealyticum
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what are the differential diagnosis of urethritis
UTI Candida balanitis or vaginitis Non-infectious urethritis Nephrolithiasis Interstitial cystitis Reactive arthritis Chronic prostatitis
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what is the pathophysiology behind nephritic syndrome
Largely triggered by immune-mediated injury exhibiting both humoural and cellular components A variety of non-immunological metabolic, haemodynamic and toxic stress can also induce glomerular injury
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what are signs and symptoms of Polycystic kidney disease
Renal cysts Hypertension Abdo/flank pain Haematuria Palpable kidney/abdo mass Headaches Dysuria Urgency to pee Suprapubic pain Fever Cardiac murmur Abdo hernia or rectus abdominis diastasis Hepatomegaly
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what drug can be given to help slow progression of cysts in polycystic kidney disease
Tolvaptan
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what are possible complications of PKD
Cardiac complications GORD Ruptured intracranial aneurysm sepsis complications during pregnancy
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what are the signs and symptoms of a epididymal cyst
Lump Multiple, may be bilateral May be painful if large Well defined and will transluminate since fluid filled Testis palpable separate to the cyst
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what is a communicating hydrocele
patent processus vaginalis connects the peritoneum with the tunica vaginalis, allowing peritoneal fluid to flow freely between both structures. Risk of inguinal herniation
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what is a non communicating hydrocele
processus vaginalis closed, more fluid produced by tunica vaginalis than is being absorbed
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what are risk factors for hydrocele
Male sex Prematurity/low birth weight Infant (<6mths) Late descent of testes Increased intraperitoneal fluid/pressure Inflammation/injury within scrotum Testicular cancer Connective tissue disorders
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how do you manage hydrocele
surgery if large or uncomfortable aspiration can be considered
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what are possible complications of hydrocele
Haematoma Inguinal hernia Pain in inguinal area radiating to abdomen Lower extremity oedema Testicular atrophy Hydronephrosis Infertility
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what is varicocele associated with
Abnormal gonadotropin levels Impaired spermatogenesis Histological changes to sperm Infertility
321
Describe the lower neural pathways involved with filling of the urinary bladder, including the nerve root levels involved
there is sympathetic innervation via hypogastric nerve (T10-L2) which causes relaxation of detrusor muscle via the beta 1 receptors .There is also contraction of the IUS via alpha 1 receptors
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what is the nerve responsible for somatic control of micturition including the nerve root
S2-4 - pudendal nerve