genetics_block_3_20140408204917 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 classes of proteins?

A
  • Housekeeping Proteins

* Tissue-Specific Specialty Proteins

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2
Q

What are houskeeping proteins?

A

They are fundamental to maintenance of structure and function

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3
Q

What are tissue-specific specialty proteins?

A

have unique functions

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4
Q

Where dotissue-specific specialty proteins get made?

A

In 1 or different cells

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5
Q

Where do we find houskeeping genes?

A

in every cell

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6
Q

What are the two broad generalizations that can be made about the site of a disease and the site of a proteins expression?

A
  • A mutation in a tissue-specific protein produces a disease restricted to that tissue
  • housekeeping genes are in all cells; but a mutation in one will not cause all others to express pathologically.
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7
Q

What are the 2 reasons why clinical effects of mutations in housekeeping proteins are frequentlylimited to one or a few tissues?

A
  • Genetic redundancy A specific tissue may be affected because the protein inquestion is expressed abundantly there and serves a specialty function
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8
Q

How do you explain clinical heterogeneity of genetic disease using genetic variation?

A
  • allelic heterogeneity-mutation:
  • different alleles of a single gene can be compared with phenotypes of variable severity
  • locus heterogeneity-mutation:
  • A mutation in a different gene can cause a similar but distinguishible phenotype.
  • Modifier genes:
  • mutations in a separate gene causes the samemutation in another gene to have different effects.
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9
Q

What is Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A

Is an inherited error in metabolism caused by deficiency in Phenylalanine hydroxase (PAH). (Phenylalanine builds up)

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10
Q

What symptoms can be seen in loss of Phenylalanine hydroxylase?

A
  • mental retardation
  • organ damage
  • unusual posture
  • Musky odor in diaper from Phenylpyruvic Acid
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11
Q

Classic PKU is what kind of inheritance?

A

Autosoma Recessive

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12
Q

How many alleles are mutated in the PAH gene in PKU?

A

both alleles are mutated in chromosome 12the one with more milder phenotype predominates

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13
Q

What does Phenylalanine hydroxylase do in the body?

A

converts phenylalanine to tyrosine by hydroxilating the phenolic ring

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14
Q

What is the mild form of PKU?

A

hyperphenylalanemia

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15
Q

Apart from PAH, what do the other 4 genes that cause PKU do?

A

production or recycling of tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)

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16
Q

What is the normal plasma level of phenylalanine?

A
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17
Q

What does BH4do with PAH?

A

Its a cofactor for:Tyrosine —–> Cathecolamine ——-> NE & EpinephrinTryptophan ——-> 5-HT (Serotonin)

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18
Q

What doBH4-deficient patients develop?

A

profound neurological problems

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19
Q

What is BH4used for?

A

it is a cofactor for PAHit is a cofactor for Tryptophan hydroxylase and tyrosene hydroxilaseTyrosine————–>Catecholaminas————-> NE & ETryptophan —————–> 5-HT(Serotonin)

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20
Q

True of FalsePatients with PKU are usually homozygotes?

A

False - compound heterozygotes

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21
Q

What are the Clinical Features of PKU?

A
  • developmental delay in infancy
  • microcephaly
  • seizures
  • hyperactivity
  • behavioral disturbances
  • musky smell in diaper (phenylalanine metabolized to phenylperuvic acid which is peed)
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22
Q

How do you treat PKU?

A

phenylalanine diets (avoid proteins, dairy & eggs) and supplements of BH4

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23
Q

What happens if PKU is left untreated?

A

Severe Mental Retardation

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24
Q

What is Maternal Phenylketonuria?

A

It is a type of PKU that affects the unborn childIt attacks the developing CNS

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25
Q

What are the symptoms of Maternal Phenylketonuria?

A
  • microcephaly
  • mental retardation
  • heart malformations
  • growth impairment
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26
Q

What type of inheritance do most of the Lysosomal diseases have?

A

Autosomal Recessive

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27
Q

What is the treatment of lysosomal storage disease?

A

ERT: Enzyme Replacement Therapy

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28
Q

What happens with lysosomes in lysosomal storage disease?

A

They accumulate substrate inside lysosome and it leads to cellular dysfunction and cell death.

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29
Q

What kind of disease is Tay-Sachs?

A

Lysosomal Storage Disease

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30
Q

What kind of disease is Gauchers Disease?

A

Lysosomal Storage Disease

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31
Q

What kind of disease is MPS I (Mucopolysaccharidoses) disease?

A

Lysosomal Storage DiseaseType I = Hurler’s

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32
Q

What kind of disease is MPS II (Mucopolysaccharidoses) disease?

A

Lysosomal Storage DiseaseType II = Hunters

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33
Q

What is another name for MPS I (Mucopolysaccharidoses) disease?

A

Hurler’s

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34
Q

What other name does MPS II (Mucopolysaccharidoses) disease have?

A

Hunter’s

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35
Q

What is happening with Tay Sachs disease?

A

Lysosomes cannot degrade GM2Gangliosides

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36
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Tay Sachs?

A

Ubuquitous Hexosaminidase A Enzyme

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37
Q

With what type of inheritance is ubiquitous hexosaminidase A enzyme related?

A

with Autosomal Recessive inheritance

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38
Q

What body part is mainly affected clinically with Tay Sachs?

A

The brain since it is the predominantsite of GM2 ganglioside synthesis

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39
Q

What are the 3 components of the acitive Hex A enzyme?

A
  • HexA
  • HexB
  • Sandoff activator protein
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40
Q

What disease symptoms are clinically identical to Tay Sachs?

A

Sandhoff diseaseHex A needs Sandhoff Activator Protein thus if absent, identical symptoms of Tay Sach are to be seen.

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41
Q

What does the activator protein of the HexA enzyme do?

A

binds the ganglioside substrate and present it to the enzyme. NANA (N-acetyl neuraminic acid)

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42
Q

If there is a 4-base insertion on HexA, what kind of mutation is present? and what are the bases and where are they located?

A

A frameshift mutation. TATC insertion on Exon 11

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43
Q

In what population will we see Tay Sachsm more predominantly?

A

In Ashkenazi Jews as usual

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44
Q

What will not be made if there is a 4-base insertion/frameshift?

A

HexA will not be made

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45
Q

In Tay Sachs, when will infants begin to show signs of the disease?

A

first 3-6 months they look normal, afterwards they show signs of neurological deterioration. Usually death @ 2-4yrs

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46
Q

What is a cherry red spot in the retina a sign off? and what disease presents with this symptom?

A

Tay Sachs and it means that there is accumulation of storage material in the retina

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47
Q

Later onset of Tay Sach variants will manifest with these symptoms…

A
  • Lower motor neuron dysfunction
  • Ataxia————————————————–These occur because of spinocerebellar degeneration
  • Psychosis in 1/3 of patients
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48
Q

Later onset variants will manifest with symtoms except for?

A

vision and Intelligence that will remain normal

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49
Q

Where do GAG’s or Mucopolissaccharide chains accumulate?

A

Lysosome

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50
Q

What are GAG’s made off?

A

Long dissacharide repeating chains with two sugar molecules

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51
Q

GAG’s orMucopolysaccharide Disorders accumulate in lysosomes of tissues and cause what type of deformities?

A

Skeletal and extracellular matrix deformities

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52
Q

What type of inheritance is Hurler’s Syndrome?

A

Autosomal Recessive (its lysosomal)

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53
Q

What is deficient in Hurler’s Syndrome?

A

alpha-L-iduronidase

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54
Q

How does Hurler’s present?

A
  • corneal clouding
  • skeletal abnormalities
  • death by cardiorespiratory failure
  • by 3 years there is linear growth
  • hearing loss
  • profound mental retardation
  • coarse faciesRule of L: HurLe’s, alpha-L-iduronidae, corneaL cLouding, hearing Loss
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55
Q

What is I-Cell disease?

A

Lysosomal storage diseaseDefect in enzyme that transfers phosphate group to mannose residues in the Golgi.or…in fancy world:”There is a N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphotransferase deficiency leading to deficiency in protein trafficking”.

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56
Q

How do patients with I-Cell present?

A

unusual facial featuresskeletal changesMental retardationexcess acid hydrolases in body fluids

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57
Q

What is Classic Homocystinuria?

A

Mainly it is a deficiency in enzyme cystathionine ß-synthase (Vit. B-6)can also occur with deficiency of methionine synthase (folate = Vit. B-12)

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58
Q

What inheritance is Homocystinuria?

A

Autosomal Recessive

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59
Q

What are some of the symptoms that patients with homocystinuria will present with?

A

mental retardationosteoporosis oflong bonesDislocation of the Lensthromboembolism of the veins & arteries

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60
Q

6 causes of homocystinuria

A

Classic = defective cystathionine synthasedecrease in Methyl-H4-folate reductase: impairing methionine synthasedefects in the intracellular metabolism ofcobalamins lead to a secondary decrease in the synthesis of methyl-cobalamin (methyl-B12) and thus in the function of methioninesynthase.Defect in cobalamine absorption and transportation

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61
Q

What is alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

deficiency ina1AT secreted by the liver into plasma. It inhbits elastase(the function of elastase is to degrade alveolar walls causing COPD)Elastase is secreted by neutrophil in the respiratory track

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62
Q

What type of inheritance isalpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Autosomal Recessive

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63
Q

What happens with the Z allele inalpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

it is the most common

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64
Q

What do homozygotes with Z/Z inalpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency develop?

A

17% develop neonatal jaundice & 20% of those will develop cirrhosis

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65
Q

With what does the Z protein tend to aggregate with?

A

aggregates with the RER of hepatocytes which causes formation of bead-like necklaces of mutant alpha-1-antitrypsin polymers.It results in increased elastase activity in lungs (alveoli elastin loss)

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66
Q

What is the effect of smoking in alpha-1-antitrypsin?

A

It oxidizes methionine causing a decrease in affinity of alpha-1-antitrypsin for elastase by 2,000 folds.

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67
Q

What type of disease is I-Cell?

A

Lysosomal storage disease

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68
Q

What causes Acute Intermittent Porphyria?

A

Its caused by mutation in the gene encoding forporphobilinogen deaminase (PBGD)

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69
Q

What kind of inheritance is Acute Intermittent Porphyria?

A

Autosomal Dominant

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70
Q

What causes Acute Intermittent Porphyria to show symptoms?

A

When heme levels drop in hepatocytes

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71
Q

How is Acute Intermittent Porphyria exacerbated?

A

Barbituates (Drugs)Steroidsreducing dietssurgery

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72
Q

What happens if exposed to precipitating factors?

A

increase of synthesis of P450, dropping heme levels and reducing the heme synthetic pathway also, via feedback inhibition of heme onδ-amino-levulinic acid (ALA) synthetase

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73
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Acute Intermittent Porphyria?

A

acute episodes of a variety of gastrointestinal and neuropathicsymptoms; between episodes, the patient is healthyAbdominal pain is the most common symptom (Vomiting)Mental disturbance: (Confusion, Emotional upset, Hallucinations and psychosis)

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74
Q

What is Familial Hypercholesterolemia?

A

is oneof the type 2 familial hyperlipoproteinemias characterized by elevationof plasma cholesterol carried by LDL.

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75
Q

What is the inheritance of Familialhypercholesterolemia?

A

Autosomal Dominant

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76
Q

What is damaged in Familialhypercholesterolemia?

A

Mainly LDL receptors4 possible proteins may cause Hypercholesterolemia or Hyperlipidemia

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77
Q

What are the four proteins associated with Familialhypercholesterolemia?

A
  • LDL receptor mutation: Chromosome 19 Mutations in the LDL receptor binding domain of ApoB-100: Chromosome 2
  • impairs LDL binding to its receptor by ApoB-100 PCSK9 protease activity leads to degradation of the LDL receptor: Ch 1 Mutation in ARH adaptor protein, links the receptor to the endocytic machinery of the coated pit causing clustering of the LDL receptor-ApoB-100 complex in clathrin-coated pits: Ch 1
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78
Q

What is the most important gene abnormality in FamilialHypercholesterolemia? Why?

A

PCSK9 protease geneMutation of this gene will cause the disease but some variants lower the plasma LDL cholesterol level giving some protection from coronary hearts disease

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79
Q

What are some symptoms of Familial Hypercholesterolemia?

A

premature heart diseasexanthomas (homozygous for the gene)arcus corneae (fat deposits in cornea)

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80
Q

What is deficient in Cystic Fibrosis?

A

pancreatic enzymes

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81
Q

How do you restore normal digestion in Cystic Fibrosis?

A

pancreatic enzyme supplement

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82
Q

What is wrong with Cystic Fibrosis males?

A

They lack a vas deferens and therefore are infertile

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83
Q

How is the stool of CF patients?

A

Greasy, lighter in color,

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84
Q

What is the major cause of Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Psudomonas aeruginosa

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85
Q

What are the 2 muscular dystrophies resulting from defects in dystrophin gene?

A
  • Duchenne

* Beckers

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86
Q

What type of inheritance is Duchenne and Beckers?

A

X-Linked

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87
Q

What are the clinical features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

gower maneuvers High lvs of creatinine kinase (CK)

  • boys are normal first year of life
  • slow developing progression of muscle weakness
  • gait
  • lumbar lordosis
  • Wheelchair bound by age 12 joint contracture pseudohyperthrophy: increase in the size of calf (calf muscles replaced by fat and fibrous connective tissue)
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88
Q

Greatly elevated Creatinine levels may indicate what disease?

A

Duchenne Muscle Dystrophy

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89
Q

What are the clinical features of Becker’s Muscle Dystrophy?

A

sames as Duchennes but at a slower onset

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90
Q

Genetically, Duchenne and Becker’s exemplify what?

A

Allelic Heterogeneity (different mutation same gene)

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91
Q

Deletions in the codon for Duchenne MD is due to what?

A

a frameshift mutation

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92
Q

Deletions in the codon for Becker’s MD is caused by?

A

In-frame mutation

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93
Q

What is the frequency for DMD and Becker’s?

A

60%

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94
Q

What is Ehrler-Danlos Syndrome?

A

genetic defect in collagen structure, synthesis, secretion,or degradation.

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95
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Ehrler-Danlos?

A

HypermobilityHyperelasticitySkin fragilityTendency to bleedAortic AneurysmCigarette Paper skin

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96
Q

What do Type 1 and Typer 2 Ehrler-Danlos have in common?

A

The mutations are linked to loci that contain the COL5A1 gene orCOL5A2 genes; encoding the alpha chains of type V collagen,leading to defective type V collagen

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97
Q

What is the frequency of Type 1 and 2 Ehrler-Danlos Syndrome?

A

1/30,000

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98
Q

What is the frequency of Type 3 Ehrler-Danlos Syndrome and how does it presents?

A

1/5,000Patient may have arterial or uterine rupture

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99
Q

What type of collagen is associated with type 4 EDS and where would you find it?

A

Reticular Type 3 CollagenFound in vasculature and skin

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100
Q

What is the deficiency found in type 6 EDS?

A

Lysyl Hydroxylase

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101
Q

Whats wrong in Type 7 EDS?

A

Can’t turn procollagen to collagen

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102
Q

With what can we associate type 8 EDS?

A

Dermatosporaxsisskin fragility

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103
Q

Of the two dystrophies resulting from a mutation in the dystrophin gene, which is more severe?

A

Duchenne: more severe/lack of dystrophinBeckers: less severe

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104
Q

What is the defect gene in Ehrler-Danlos Syndrome?

A

Col3A1

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105
Q

What is the major risk with type 3 Ehrler-Danlos Syndrome?

A

Death

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106
Q

What is Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

is a group of inherited disorders that predispose to easy fracturing of bones, even with little trauma, and to skeletal deformity

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107
Q

What are the 2 broad classes of mutations in alpha chains of Type 1 collagen for Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A
  • Null Mutation

* Missense Glycine Substitution Mutation

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108
Q

What is a null mutation?

A

Reduces the amount of type 1 collagen made

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109
Q

Give 2 examples of Null mutations

A
  • promoter mutation

* splice signal mutation

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110
Q

What is aMissense Glycine Substitution Mutations?

A

Mutations that alter the structure of type 1 collagen*Mutation is worse the closer to the C-terminus of the alpha chain

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111
Q

How do you get the more severe form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta II?

A

If a Gly is substituted with a Glu, Ala, Val, Asp, or Arg in the C-terminal 2/3 of the molecule

112
Q

How do you get the more severe form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta I?

A

substitutions in the N-terminal ¼ of the protein.

113
Q

In what type of Osteogenesis Imperfecta does the fetus die in utero?

114
Q

Describe clinical features of Osteogenesis Imperfecta I.

A
  • Blue Sclera
  • Bone deformity is absent or minimal
  • Collagen structure is normal but in few amounts
115
Q

Describe Type II Osteogenesis Imperfecta.

A

It is the most severeLethal in/after birthCollagen improperly formedIt is a new mutation (recurrence in the family is low)

116
Q

Describe Type III Osteogenesis Imperfecta.

A

Blue ScleraProgressive bone deformity (Severe)Collagen is improperly formedSpinal curvaturehearing loss

117
Q

Describe Type 4 Osteogenesis Imperfecta.

A

White ScleraMild to moderate bone deformityBarrel shaped esphagusCollagen is improperly formed

118
Q

What type of inheritance is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Autosomal Dominant

119
Q

How common is Alzheimer’s in women?

A

twice as common

120
Q

What is the phenotype of Alzheimers?

A

Clinical features are characterized by a progressive deterioration of memory and of higher cognitive functions, such as reasoning, in addition to behavioral changes

121
Q

What happens if there is a mutation in PSEN1 or PSEN2?

A

Mutations in PSEN1 or PSEN2 can lead to a gain of functionresulting in increased Ab42 peptide production

122
Q

For what is PSEN 1 (Presenilin 1) required?

A

its required for gamma-secretase cleavage of Beta Amyloid Precursor Protein (BAPP) derivatives.- could beacritical cofactor protein of γ-secretase.

123
Q

What does presenilin 2 (PSEN 2) do?

A

Same as PSEN 1

124
Q

What does APOE (Alipoprotein E) used for?

A

It is a necessary component for binding VLDLs to their receptors

125
Q

Why is thee4 allele a major risk factor for?

A

Developing Alzheimer’s Disease

126
Q

Why do diseases of mitochondrial DNA occur?

A

defects of single genes

127
Q

How are mitochondrial diseases inherited? can males pass the disease?

A

They are inherited from the mother and males cannot pass it.

128
Q

What are the 3 types of mutations for mitochondrial diseases?

A

–Missense mutations in coding regions of genes that alter the activity of oxidative phosphorylation proteins. Point mutations in rRNA and tRNA genes that impairtranslation of mitochondrial proteins. Rearrangements that cause deletions and duplications inmtDNA.

129
Q

What is MELAS?

A

It stands for Mitochondrial Encephalomyopathy, Lactic Acidosis and Stroke-like Episodes

130
Q

What is MELAS?

A

•MELAS is a condition that affects many of the body’s systems, especially the brain, nervous system (encephalo-) and muscles (myopathy)

131
Q

What kind of disease is MELAS?

A

Mitochondrial Disease

132
Q

What do patients with MELAS have an accumulation of?

A

They have Lactic Acid buildup or Lactic Acidosis

133
Q

Patients with MELAS will suffer from a repetition of this symptom….

A

Stroke-like symptoms that may damage the brain

134
Q

What is Myoclonic Epilepsy with Ragged-Red Fibers (MERRF)?

A

is a multisystem disorder characterized by myoclonus, which is often thefirst symptom, followed by generalized epilepsy, ataxia, weakness, anddementia.

135
Q

When does the onset of MERRF occur?

136
Q

What are the 4 features to clinically diagnose MERRF?

A
  • Myoclonus Generalized epilepsy Ataxia Ragged red fibers(RRF) in the muscle biopsy
137
Q

What is the most common mutation found inover 80% of affected MERRF individuals?

A

an A-to-G transition at nucleotide 8344

138
Q

What gene that makestRNALys is thegene most commonly associated with MERRF?

A

The mtDNA gene

139
Q

In MERRF, since mutations are usually present in all tissues, how are these mutations detected?

A

They are detectedin mtDNA from blood leukocytes.

140
Q

What is anAutosomally transmitted deletions in mtDNA?

A

It is a syndrome caused by mutations in two nuclear genes

141
Q

What is the phenotype forAutosomally transmitted deletions in mtDNA?

A

It resembles chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia(CPEO) (paralisys of eye muscles)

142
Q

What ismtDNA depletion syndrome?

A

disease involvingmutations in any of six nuclear genes that lead to a reduction in thenumber of copies of mtDNA in various tissues.

143
Q

How ismtDNA depletion syndrome inherited?

A

Autosomal Dominant

144
Q

What is so special aboutKearns-Sayre syndrome and Pearson syndrome?

A

They are mitochondrial diseases that are not typically maternally inherited due to heteroplasmy

145
Q

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is homoplasmic or heteroplasmic?

A

homoplasmic

146
Q

Is MERRF homoplasmic or heteroplasmic?

A

heteroplasmic

147
Q

What is the most common mitochondrial DNA mutation ?

A

3243A>G (normal nucleotide = A, which is substituted by G) in the tRNAleu(UUR) gene

148
Q

To what different diseases can3243 A>G (normal nucleotide = A, which is substituted by G) in the tRNAleu(UUR) gene lead?

A
  • diabetes anddeafness

* chronic progressive externalophthalmoplegia (CPEO) cardio-myopathy or myopathy

149
Q

Name 1 example of a mitochondrial disease that is multifactorial.

A

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

150
Q

What is Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy?

A

Its the rapid, painless bilateral lossof central vision due to optic nerve atrophy in young adults

151
Q

In LHON, in what sex is there increased penetrance?

A

Males have a 50%

152
Q

In LHON, what increases the chances of blindness?

A

Alcohol and tobacco use

153
Q

This disease is a trinucleotide repeat of CGG

A

Fragile X Syndrome

154
Q

This disease is a trinucleotide repeat of CAG

A

Huntingtons Disease

155
Q

This disease is a trinucleotide repeat of GAA.

A

Friedreich Ataxia

156
Q

This disease is a trinucleotide repeat of CTG

A

Myotonic dystrophy 1

157
Q

What is anticipation?

A

refers to a pattern of inheritance in whichindividuals in the most recent generations of thepedigree develop the disease at an earlier age and/orwith greater severity as it is transmitted through afamily.

158
Q

What causes anticipation?

A

the intergenerational expansion of therepeats upon passage from one generation to the next

159
Q

What causes the slipped mispairing mechanism thought to underlie the expansion of unstable repeats?

A

an insertion thatoccurs when the newly synthesized strand aberrantly dissociates from the template strand during replication synthesis.Once DNA synthesis is resumed, the misaligned molecule will contain one or more extra copies of the repeat

160
Q

What are the 3 pathological mechanisms that occur in unstable repeat expansions?

A

Class 1 Diseases due to the expansion of noncoding repeats that cause a loss of protein function Class 2 Disorders resulting from expansions of noncoding repeatsthat confer novel properties on the RNA​Class 3
* Diseases due to repeat expansion of a codon

161
Q

What is impaired in class 1 of the pathologic mechanisms in unstable repeat diseases?

A

There is impaired transcription of pre-mrna of affected gene

162
Q

What is Fragile X Syndrome?

A

Occurs when CGG repeats exceed 200, it triggers excessivemethylation of cytosines in the promoter, thus silencingtranscription from the gene.

163
Q

When do you have the pre-mutation of Fragile X?

A

you get FXTAS when you have 60-200 CGG repeats

164
Q

How does FTAX manifests?

A

It manifestsas late-onset, progressive cerebellar ataxia and intention tremor dueto the formation of intranuclear neuronal inclusions.

165
Q

What does FMRP regulate?

A

regulates the translation of proteins required forthe formation of synapses

166
Q

What is Freidreich Ataxia?

A

is the most common inherited spinocerebellar ataxia

167
Q

How is Freidreich Ataxia inherited?

A

Autosomal Recessive

168
Q

What 2 symptoms follow Freidreich Ataxia?

A
  • Cardiomyopathy

* Type 2 Diabetes

169
Q

What is wrong in Freidreich Ataxia?

A

There is a defect is in expression of the frataxin gene due to expansionof GAA in intron 1, the GAA repeats result in the inhibitionof transcriptional elongation.

170
Q

Where can Frataxin be found?

A

In the mitochondria, it is a mitochondrial protein

171
Q

What does Frataxin do in the mitochondria?

A

It is involved with iron metabolism

172
Q

What happens if Frataxin activity is lost?

A

there will be:

  • increased levels of mitochondrial iron
  • impaired heme synthesis
  • reduced activity of Fe-S-containing proteins (complexes 1-3 of mitochondrial respiratory transport chain)
173
Q

What is Myotonic Dystrophy 1?

A

condition with the mostpleiotropic phenotype of all the unstable repeat expansion disorders

174
Q

What are some of the clinical features of Myotonic Dystrophy-1?

A

Myotonia (muscle weakness) Cardiac conduction defects Testicular atrophy Insulin resistance

175
Q

What is the mutated gene in Myotonic Dystrophy-1?

176
Q

What does DMPK code for?

A

a protein kinase

177
Q

In Myotonic Dystrophy, there is a repetition of a trinucleotide…what is this trinucleotide? what is the mutated level for this trinucleotide?

A

CTG in 3’ UTRmore than 50 = mutation

178
Q

How does the pathogenesis of Myotonic Dystrophy-1 result?

A

•esult from the binding ofRNA-binding proteins to the CUG repeats

179
Q

What kind of inheritance is Huntington’s Disease?

A

Autosomal Dominant

180
Q

What are some of the clinical presentations of Huntingtons’s Disease?

A
  • Chorea
  • loss of cognition
  • psychiatric abnormalities
181
Q

What is the trinucleotide repeat for Huntington’s Disease?

182
Q

Why is the expansion of the trinucleotide so special in Huntington’s Disease?

A

Becuase it is a novel function of the huntingtin gene.

183
Q

Name a striking cellular hallmark of AD.

A

the presence of insolubleaggregates of the mutant protein in nuclear inclusionsThese inclusions may actually be protective as it is the solublenonaggregated form of the mutant protein that promotes abnormalinteractions between the polyglutamine tract and a number oftranscriptional regulators to alter the transcription of manygenes.

184
Q

Why does deficient genetic treatment occur?

A

gene is not identified or pathogenesis is not understood

  • the mutant locus is unknown prediagnostic fetal damage
  • the disease occurs too early in the development severe phenotypes are less amenable to intervention
  • if patient is too severe there may be no longer a viable good protein.
185
Q

How do you treat Familial Hypercholesterolemia heterozygotes?

A

combined use of:

  • cholestyramine: abile acid-binding resin
  • HMG CoA reductase: an inhibitor of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase
186
Q

What is the most common cause of Vitamin-responsive enzyme defects?

A

due to mutations thatreduce the normal affinity (top) of the enzyme protein (apoenzyme) for the cofactor needed to activate it

187
Q

What does PTC treatment use?

188
Q

What does Ataluren do?

A

It is anew drug designed to enable the formation of a functioning protein in patients with genetic disorders due a nonsense mutation

189
Q

What is protein augmentation?

A

it is used inproteins whose principal site of action is in theplasma or extracellular fluid•

190
Q

What disease is treated with protein augmentation?

A

Hemophilia and Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency

191
Q

How is protein augmentation used in Hemophiliacs?

A

Patients are treated with aninfusion with plasma fractionsenriched for factor VIII; replacing an extracellular protein: a1-antitrypsindeficiency

192
Q

What is Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency (ADA deficiency)?

A

Is a deficiency that results in an accumulation of deoxyadenosine, which, in turn, leads to: a build up of dATP in all cells, which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and prevents DNA synthesis, so cells are unable to divide

193
Q

What does Adenosine Deaminase do?

A

It converts adenosine to inosine and deoxyadenosice to deoxyinosine.

194
Q

What are the most susceptible cells to ADA deficiency? and why?

A

T cells and B cells, because they are among the most mitotically active cells.

195
Q

How are patients with ADA deficiency treated?

A

With bone marrow transplantation & ERT

196
Q

What is Gaucher’s Disease?

A

Its alysosomal storage disorder due to a deficiency of glucocerebrosidase

197
Q

What inheritance is Gaucher’s Disease?

A

Autosomal Recessive

198
Q

What population is most prevalent to Gaucher’s Disease?

A

Ashkenazi Jews

199
Q

What gene is affected in Gaucher’s disease?

A

Lysosomal Cerebrosidase

200
Q

What kind of gene is lysosomal cerebrosidase?

A

housekeeping gene

201
Q

In Gauchers diseaseIn what organelle does glucerebrosidase accumulate? What type of cell is mostly affected?

A

It accumulates in Lysosomes and usually in Macrophages

202
Q

What does the accumulation of glucocerebrosides in lysosomes of macrophages cause?

A

enlargement of the liver and spleen; also replacement of the bone marrow by lipid-laden macrophages.Compromises production of RBC’s and platelets leading to anemia and thrombocytopenia

203
Q

What is Enzyme Replacement Therapy?

A

Is atargeted augmentation of an intracellular enzyme

204
Q

What is Decitabine use for and how does it work?

A

Is use for Sickel Cell patients. Its function is to decrease the methylation that occurs on CpG.

205
Q

What is deficient in Krabbe Disease?

A

B-galactocerebrosidase

206
Q

What is the early and late onset of Krabbe?

A

Early: first month and die before age 2Late: 6 months and die before age 3

207
Q

What is nuclear transplantation?

A

Transfer of diploid nucleus from an adult donor somatic cell into an oocyte cytoplasm to generate a cloned embryo.

208
Q

What is reproductive cloning?

A

Reimplanting an embryo obtained by nuclear transplantation into the uterus of a surrogate mother.

209
Q

What is therapeutic cloning?

A

Use of embryonic stem cells to form differentiated cell types of the body in culture i.e. grow an ear or kidney etc…

210
Q

Why is cord blood better than bone marrow?

A

Is more tolerant of histo-incompatible blood than donor cell.Wide availability of cord blood.

211
Q

What are the risk of insertional mutagenesis?

A

Cancer, oncogene activation, inactivation of tumor suppressor etc.

212
Q

What is the role of retrovirus in DNA transfer?

A

target cell must undergo division for integration to occur

213
Q

What is the role of adenoviruses?

A

infect a wide variety of dividing and nondividing cells

214
Q

What is the role of adeno-associated viruses?

A

Widespread in humnas so no adverse immune effects. Use to TX Hemophilliacs B patients

215
Q

For what is Nuchal Translucency Test use for?

A

To test for All 3 types of Trisomies (13,18&21)

216
Q

High levels of Inhibin A indicate what?

A

Down Syndrome

217
Q

What do high and low levels of AFP indicate?

A

High levels indicate NTDs and Low levels indicate + All 3 trisomies

218
Q

What do high and low levels of Free Beta HCG indicate?

A

High levels indicate Down Syndrome and low levels indicate trisomies 13 and 18

219
Q

What do low levels of PAPP-A indicate?

A

+ for all 3 trisomies

220
Q

What do low levels of UE3 indicate?

A

+ for all 3 trisomies

221
Q

At what time is Amniocentesis performed?

A

15-16 weeks

222
Q

What type of testing can be drawn from Amniocentesis fluid extract?

A

Karyotyping, DNA testing & AFP from fetal urine

223
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage from performing an Amniocentesis?

224
Q

At what time is Chorionic Villus Sampling performed?

A

10-12 weeks

225
Q

How is Chorionic Villus Sampling performed?

A

Transcervical or Transabdominal needle

226
Q

What is the fluid type obtained in a Chorionic Villus Sampling?

A

Fetal trophoblastic cells

227
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage from performing a Chorionic Villus Sampling?

228
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage from performing a Maternal Serum Screening?

A

No risk to fetus

229
Q

When is Maternal Serum collected for screening?

230
Q

What does Maternal Serum test for?

A

Down Syndrom and NTD

231
Q

What are the risk associated with Ultrasounds and fetal echo?

A

No risk to either the baby or the mother.

232
Q

At what time is sex of fetus usually able to be determine with and ultrasound?

233
Q

What type of prenatal testing are recommended in the first trimester?

A

Nuchal Translucency, PAPP-A & Free Beta-HCG

234
Q

What type of prenatal testing are recommended in the second trimester?

A

Ue3, AFP and Free Beta-HCG

235
Q

What are the major cause of NTD?

A

Folic Acid deficiency

236
Q

What are the 2 chromosomes related to Burkett’s Lymphoma?

A

Chromosome 8 & 14 translocation

237
Q

What is characteristica about Burkett’s Lymphoma & what population is more susceptible?

A

Ch[8:14]= activated pro to-oncogene = Tumour in the jaw. Seen in Equatorial Africa.

238
Q

Describe a bening mass

A

slow growing, no invasive.

239
Q

Describe a malignant mass

A

fast growing invades proximal & distal tissues.

240
Q

Describe Sarcoma

A

Mesenchymal origin i.e. bone, ct, muscle, nervous system.

241
Q

Describe Carcinomas

A

Epithelial origin i.e. cell lining intestine, bronchi, mammary ducts.

242
Q

Describe hematopoetic & Lymphoid

A

bone marrow & lymph nodes.

243
Q

What is require to deactivate a tumor suppressor gene?

A

a 2 hit mechanism.

244
Q

What is special about a Proto-oncogene?

A

It only requires a single mutation to go from normal to malignant.

245
Q

What are the 2 chromosome involve in CML?

A

Chromosome 22 & 9 (Philadelphia Chromosomes)

246
Q

What is commonly use to TX CML?

A

Imatinib(Gleevac) tx on tyrosine residue blocks ATP signals.

247
Q

Is MEN-2 AD or AR?

248
Q

MEN-2 represents a mutation in what gene?

A

RET Gene for receptor tyrosine kinase

249
Q

Does MEN-2 representa a LOF or GOF mutation?

A

GOF Mutation

250
Q

With what type of tissue and/or organs is MEN-2 associated?

A

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid and Phenochromocytomas of adrenal medulla —–> Over secretion of NE and Epi —-> Increase in HR, BP etc…

251
Q

What is Retinoblastoma?

A

Mutation of Rb on Chr. 13

252
Q

What is the normal function of Rb?

A

Normal function of Rb is to regulate G1/S phase; its normally not phosphorylated so it binds E2F and PREVENTS transcription.

253
Q

What are the 2 possible types of mutation in Rb?

A

In inherited retinoblastoma (dominant trait), there are multiple bilateral tumors, having an early age of onset—one Rb1 mutation isinherited, and any mutation in the second allele would leadto cancer.orIn sporadic retinoblastoma, there are single unilateral tumors, having a late age of onset—two “hits” of the Rb1 mutation need to take place.

254
Q

What are the 2 types of tumor suppressor genes?

A

-Gatekeeper = regulate proto-oncogene function. **Regulate various cell cycle points. Also regulate apoptosis.-Caretakers = Act more indirectly by maintaining genome integrity. **Correct mutations during DNA replication & Cell division.

255
Q

Is Li-Fraumeni AR or AD mutation?

256
Q

What is mutated in Li-Fraumeni Syndrome?

A

Ch 17 –> TP53 a transcription factor that induces the synthesis of P21 use in cell cycle arrest.

257
Q

How is TP53 active?

A

when phosphorylated

258
Q

What is the function of Mdm2?

A

it inhibits TP53 by keeping it in the cytoplasm, so it doesn’t activate P21.

259
Q

With what type of cancer is BRCA1 associated with?

A

BRCA1 on Ch 17 is associated with Breast and Ovarian cancer. Through the ATM cell cycle arrest pathway.

260
Q

With what type of cancer is BRCA2 associated with?

A

BRCA2 on Ch 13 is associated with Breast cancer, gallbladder, pancreatic, male breast cancer.

261
Q

Are BRCA 1 & 2 oncogenes or tumor suppressor?

A

Tumor suppressors

262
Q

What are the type of inheritance? Mutation? Chromosome? associated with Familial Adenomatuous Polyposis (FAP)?

A

ADMutation in APCgeneChromosome 5

263
Q

What is the function of APC?

A

The normal function = gatekeeper (binding beta catenin to phosphorylateand degrade; stops its oncogene activity) mutated APC = uncontrolledbeta catenin activity and c-myc transcription

264
Q

What is FAP?

A

Develop colon cancer by age 40. It starts with THOUSANDS of benign polyps in large intestine =predisposition for cancer.

265
Q

What is HNPCC?

A

Hereditary Non Polyposis Colon Cancer - Colon-rectal Cancer

266
Q

What is the mode of inheritance in HNPCC?

267
Q

What is the defect in HNPCC?

A

Defect in DNA MisMatch Repair of normal tumor suppressor genes:MLH1MSH2MSH6Microsatellite Instability: from RER+ phenotype

268
Q

What is Xeroderma Pigmentosa?

A

AR mutation. Ineffective nucleotide excision repair, UV light produce thymine dimers can’t be fixed.

269
Q

What is Bloom Syndrome?

A

chromosomes instability

270
Q

What are some of the possible clinical manifestations of Xeroderma Pigmentosa?

A

Skin cancer, cataract, neurological abnormalities etc…

271
Q

What are some of the possible clinical manifestations of Bloom Syndrome?

A

growth deficiency, immune deficiency and increased cancer.

272
Q

What is Ataxia telangiectasia?

A

AR chromosome instability. Causes Cerebellar ataxia and telangiectases

273
Q

What is Fanconi Anemia?

A

Mutation in 8 different loci; chromosomes instability. Can cause Anemia and Leukemia.

274
Q

What does Fanconi, Ataxia Telangiectasia, Bloom and Xeroderma have in common?

A

They are all Caretaker genes.

275
Q

Whats and example of an inherited oncogene that may cause cancer?

A

RET gene —-> MEN-2