Genetics in Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What is Human genetics

A

The science of heredity and variation in humans

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2
Q

What is medical genetics

A

The subset of human genetics that is important In medicine and medical research

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3
Q

What is the genotype

A

The written genetic make up

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4
Q

What is the phenotype

A

How the gene variations manifest within the body

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5
Q

What was the 100kg

A

100,000 patients were going to have there entire geneome processed which was funded by £300m from the government

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6
Q

Why are people referred to clinical genetics

A

Child: Birth abnormalities, Dysmorphic features, Learning difficulaties

Adult:
Diagnosis
Predictive testing 
Carrier testing 
Family history

Pregnancy:
Known genetic disorders
Abnormality detected on screening
Fetal loss or recurrent miscarriages

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7
Q

What is the purpose of different genetic tests

A

Diagnostic:
Answer specific or broad questions

Predictive testing:
Tells patient whether they will have a problem in the future

Carrier testing:
For autosomal and X-linked recessive genes

Prenatal testing:
For diagnosing and preventing genetic disease

Screening:
For testing of whole populations

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8
Q

Why are rare diseases a priority

A

Individually rare but they add up to a lot of chronic diseases
Disproportionally effect children (1/4 to 1/3 of children in hospital)
Tell us a huge amount about Biology and therefore inform us of other clinical diseases

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9
Q

What drugs act on BCR-ABL translocation gene

A

Imatinib

Nilotinib

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10
Q

What is the molecular anatomy of the body

A

Almost all inheritable information is written in DNA sequences
Some information is in other chromatin features

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11
Q

How long is a heritable information DNA sequence

A

3 x 10^9 nucleotides

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12
Q

What are epigenetics

A

Information stored outwit the genome

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13
Q

What is the stability difference between DNA and RNA

A

DNA is incredibly stable but RNA is very transient and breaks down quickly

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14
Q

How is a DNA sequence written

A

In a 5’ to 3’ direction
Written as a single strand but infers that it is a double strands as that is how DNA is written
The sense strand is the one which is written (the one which ends up in the mRNA when transcribed)

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15
Q

How many human chromosomes are there

A

46 chromosomes in 23 pairs

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16
Q

What happens in telomeres over time

A

Due to lack of telomerase as the body ages, telomeres shorten with somatic cell division and so there are a finite number of cell divisions

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17
Q

What is a chromosome ideogram

A

An idealised graphical representation of the chromosome

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18
Q

What is haploinsufficiency

A

Loss of one copy of the gene, resulting in pathological clinical presentation

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19
Q

What is a gene family

A

Most genes belong to a family of structurally related genes which may be clustered together or widely dispersed

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20
Q

What is a pseudogene

A

A gene which would have been functional a long time ago but, due to evolution, no longer is

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21
Q

What is a processed gene

A

Intronless copies of other genes which are usually remote from parent gene
The result of reverse transcription and reintegration
Occasionally remain functional but most non-functional

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22
Q

What are the types of repetitive DNA

A

Satellite DNA:
Large blocks of repetitive DNA sequence

Interspersed repeats:
Scattered around the genome

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23
Q

What are molecular genetics

A

The study of the structure and function of individual genes

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24
Q

What are clinical genetics

A

The application of genetics for diagnosis and patient care (in individuals and families

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25
What is the purpose of modern genetics
To understand the fundamental role of the gene in basic life processes
26
What are the types of inherited disorders
Single gene Chromosomal Mitochondrial Imprinted
27
What is the point of pharmacogenetics
To understand who will respond to different treatments and in what way
28
What are the three routes of determining a genetic diagnosis
Family tree Physical examination Genetic tests
29
What are the two ways of testing for genetic disorders
Non-genetic tests | Genetic tests
30
What are examples of non-genetic tests
Blood tests | Xrays
31
What are the advantages of testing for genetic disorders
Early diagnosis allowing for early interventions Carrier testing to inform of reproductive choices Prenatal testing to inform of reproductive choices
32
What are disadvantages of testing for genetic disorders
Is the information something which the patient actually wants to know? Will it affect other things in life such as insurance prospects?
33
What is genetic counselling
An education process which seeks to assist affected or at risk individuals to understand the nature of the genetic disorder, its transmission and the options open to them in management and family planning
34
What are pharmacogenomics
Analysing entire genomes across groups of individuals, to identify the genetic factors influencing responses to a drug
35
What are pharmacogenetics
Studying an individual's genetic make up in order to predict responses to a drug and guide prescription
36
What is multifactorial/ complex genetic classification and an example
The interaction of multiple genes in combination with environmental factors EG: type II diabetes
37
What is single gene genetic classification and an example
A mutation in a single gene Mendelian inheritance EG: cystic fibrosis
38
What is chromosomal genetic classification and an example
An imbalance or rearrangement in chromosome structure | EG: aneuploidy, deletion, translocation
39
What is mitochondrial genetic classification
A mutation in mitochondrial DNA
40
What is somatic mutation genetic classification and an example
Mutation within a gene in a defined population of cells that results in disease EG Breast cancer
41
What are the single gene modes of inheritance
Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive X-linked Mitochondrial
42
What is autosomal dominant inheritance
A trait or disease runs from one generation to the next Males and females are equally affected Chance of offspring affected 50% Affected individuals are heterozygous for the mutation Affects structural proteins, receptors, transcription factors
43
What are examples of autosomal dominant inheritance
Myotonic dystrophy Marfan syndrome Huntington disease
44
What is penetrance
The frequency with which a specific genotype is expressed by those individuals that possess it, usually given as a percentage
45
What is expressivity
Variation in expression between different people
46
What is anticipation
The symptoms of a genetic disorder become apparent at an earlier age as it is passed from one generation to the next.
47
What is a new dominant or de novo mutation
New mutation that has occurred during gametogenesis or in early embryonic development
48
What is autosomal recessive inheritance
Disease seen in one generation Does not tend to pass from one generation to the next Offspring of affected individual has low risk of disease Relatives may be asymptomatic carriers of disease Affects males and females equally Gene mutations, not chromosomes Affected individuals are homozygous or compound heterozygous for the mutation
49
What is the difference between being homozygous and compound heterozygous for a mutation
Homozygous: same type of mutation for same gene Compound heterozygous: Same gene disrupted but it's a different mutation but still means they have the disease
50
What are examples of autosomal recessive inheritance
Cystic fibrosis Many of the metabolic disorders Haemachromatosis Sickle cell disease
51
What is X-linked inheritance
Males more severely affected Females may be unaffected, mildly through to fully affected Cannot have male to male transmission Gene mutations and chromosome deletions/ duplications Carrier mother: 1/4 normal girl and 1/4 carrier girl, 1/4 normal boy and 1/4 affected boy Affected father: all daughters are carriers, all sons are unaffected
52
What are examples of X- linked inheritance
Duchenne Muscular dystrophy Fragile X syndrome Red/green colour blindness Haemophilia
53
What are the two main factors for why females can have such variable phenotypes with x linked inheritance
X inactivation | X linked dominant vs X linked recessive inheritance
54
What are examples of X linked dominant and recessive inheritance
Dominant: Rett syndrome Fragile X syndrome Recessive: Red-green colour blindness Haemophilia Duchene musclular dystrophy
55
How are mitochondria inherited
All from our mother
56
How do you draw a family pedigree
Build up the tree from the bottom starting with affected child and siblings Record names, dates of birth and maiden names Choose one parent, ask about sibling and their children, then parents Always create a key with the symbols used Date and sign
57
What is consanguinity
Couples who are blood relatives Potentially share recessive gene mutations Risk of congenital birth defect 5-6% (2-3% general population) if no family history of genetic condition Seen in all ethnic groups
58
What are genome analysis methods
``` PCR DNA sequencing Array CGH Karyotyping FISH ```
59
What pathologies are analysed in genome analysis methods
Single-gene variants Copy number variants Chromosome number Structural changes
60
What is the hybridisation principle
Two DNA molecules will anneal (hybridise) into a duplex only if their sequences are complimentary according to the Watson-Crick base-pairing rules
61
What are the steps of PCR
``` Target strands forced apart by heating 94 degrees Primer anneals at 55 degrees Primer extension at 72 degrees Heat denaturation at 94 degrees Repetition ```
62
What are some applications of PCR
Detect presence or absence of a genetic sequence | Generate template for analysis of specific mutations
63
What is allele-specific mutation detection
Distinguishes two alleles that may only differ by a single nucleotide
64
What happens when the identity of a disease-causing mutation is unknown
It must be searched for by sequencing of DNA of the region of interest Pathogenic changes must be distinguished from harmless ones
65
What is an exome
The smaller, more interesting, coding part of the genome
66
What are the methods for detecting copy number variation
Whole genome: G-banding, next generation sequencing, microarrays Targeted testing: FISH, MLPA, QF-PCR
67
What are the phases of mitosis
Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
68
What is karyotyping
Determination of a karyotype by: Cell culture G-banding Variable resolution >5Mbp
69
What are the DNA-based methods for copy number
Array comparative genomic hybridisation Whole genome sequencing MLPA: multiplex ligation-dependent probe amplification Quantitative fluorescent PCR
70
Why is DNA nor always used
DNA based methods are good for dosage as cheaper and heavier and provide higher resolution Cytogenetic analysis is still needed for genome rearrangements such as translocations
71
What is cytogenetics
Study of chromosomes | Anything more than a single gene
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What are the types of CNV
Copy number variations Numerical: aneuploidy: gain (trisomy) or loss (monosomy) polyploidy: gain whole sets (triploidy or tetraploidy) mosaicism: diploidy and aneuploidy Structural: deletion duplication
73
How do cytogenetic abnormalities produce an abnormal phenotype
``` Dosage effect (loss is worse than gain) Disruption of a gene at a breakpoint/ inappropriate activation or inactivation of genes Position effect: gene in a new chromosomal environment functions inappropriately Unmasking of a recessive disorder ```
74
What are the consequences of mosaicism
``` Variable phenotype Variable lethality Non-identical identical twins Tissue-specificity lateral asymmetry Recurrence risk if gonadal ```
75
What is a microarray CGH
Genome-wide screen Hybridise sample and control DNA to a microarray BACs or SNPs or oligonucleotides Genomic imbalances at high resolution Has replaced some karyotyping as 1st line test
76
Which patients would an array CGH be used for
Moderate to severe learning and developmental disability Dysmorphic infants Pregnancies with abnormal ultrasound
77
What are the advantages of array CGH
Early diagnosis 1st line test, reduces need for other tests and avoids the diagnostic odyssey High resolution = increased diagnostic hit rate Greater accuracy of location/ size of imbalances Information on relevant genes
78
What are the disadvantages of array CGH
``` Dosage changes only Not balanced rearrangements or mutations Low level mosaics not detected Non-pathogenic and uncertain pathogenic changes detected Needs good quality DNA ```
79
What are application of molecular cytogenetics
Non-invasive prenatal testing Pregnancy loss Pre-implatation ctudies Cancer
80
What is NIPT
``` Non-invasive prenatal testing Maternal blood sample Extract circulating free foetal DNA Assess aneuploidy of 13, 18, 21 Risk of aneuploidy - invasive test to confirm Reduces number of invasive tests ```
81
How is cytogenetics used in cancer
Disease specific acquired chromosome changes: Mostly translocation Several different acquired abnormal clones Diagnosis Prognosis Treatment Leukaemia: bone marrow Solid tumour: tumour tissue
82
What are the two types of translocation
Reciprocal: Break and exchange Robertsonian: Whole arm fusion
83
What is genetic bottleneck effect
Caused by: Speciation, migration, environment, disease Diversity in the form of genetic variation is reduced
84
What are exogenous and endogenous factors causing uncorrected errors
Exogenous factors: radiation, chemicals Endogenous factors: segregation (e.g. Downs syndrome, Edwards syndrome) Recombination (translocation) DNA replication errors (mispaired bases, slippage) Inadequate DNA repair mechanisms (mismatch repair, base excision repair)
85
What are the two classes of genetic variation
Variation that does not alter the DNA content as number of nucleotides is unchanged (single nucleotide replacements, balanced translocations or inversions) Variation that results in a net loss or gain of DNA sequence (can by whole chromosome or single nucleotides)
86
What is a neutral variation
DNA changes are small scale and have no obvious effect on phenotype Is common but detrimental variation is rare
87
What are the types of normal genetic variation
Single nucleotide variants (SNVs) Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) Copy number variation (CNVs) Indels (insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotides)
88
What is minor allele frequency
The frequency of the less common variant in a population
89
What are the types of exotic variants
Missense mutation: an amino acid change Nonsense mutation: change of amino acid to a stop codon Silent mutation: The codon for an amino acid is changed but the same amino acid is still coded for
90
What is the meaning of a Mendelian genetic condition
Obey Mendel's laws of segregation Dominant, recessive, X-linked Single gene influencers
91
What is the meaning of a complex genetic condition
Tends to be used vaguely to describe something with an inherited but non-mendelian component
92
What is polygenic genetics
The result of the action of multiple genes
93
What are multifactorial genetics
The result of multiple factors, usually including both genetic and environmental factors
94
What does lamna s mean
Relative risk to second children | Comparison of risk of having condition to the population risk
95
What are examples of congenital malformations which are multifactorial
Cleft lip Congenital hip dislocation Congenital heart defects Neural tube defects
96
What are examples of acquired diseases pf childhood and adult life which are multifactorial
``` Asthma Autism Cancer Diabetes Epilipsy Hypertension Inflammatory bowel disease ```
97
What is a genome wide association study
Detects common genetic variants conferring susceptibility to complex phenotypes Controls should match cases and be a representative sample of the population
98
What is a Manhattan plot
Visualisation of GWAS results All SNP results are plotted on one graph X-axis shows the position in the genome Y-axis shows the significance (-log10 of the p-value)
99
What is Alzheimer disease
Most common form of dementia after 40yr Symptoms: inability to cope, loss of memory, brain damage Shrinkage of brain, tangles of B-amyloid protein in nerve fibres of hippocampus Different genes involved in different families bur give same end result
100
What are the genetics of Alzheimer disease
Sequence variants at a polymorphic locus have a large effect on the age of onset Much of that is due to a gene implicated in heart disease (apo-lipoprotein E)
101
What are the three haplotypes of APOE and what do these confer in the genetics of Alzheimer disease
APOE*E2: protective effect APOE*E3 APOE*E4: increase in susceptibility
102
What is an allele
A variant form of genes or genetic marker
103
What is a genetic anticipation
A phenomenon whereby as a genetic disorder is passed on to the next generation, the symptoms become apparent at an earlier age with each generation
104
What is a genetic association
When one or more genotypes within a population co-occur with a phenotypic trait, more often than it would be expected by chance
105
What is a haplotype
A set of DNA variants or polymorphisms that tend to be inherited together
106
What is Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium
The situation where allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other evolutionary influences
107
What is heritability
A statistic used in breeding and genetics work that estimates how much variation in a phenotypic trait in a population is due to genetic variation among individuals in that population
108
What are hyper normal controls
Unaffected individuals selected from the extreme of a quantitative trait
109
What is linkage disequilibrium
The occurrence in members of a population of combinations of linked genes in non-random proportions
110
What is microsatellite
A tract of repetitive DNA in which certain DNA motifs are repeated typically 5-50 times
111
What is the minor allele frequency
The frequency of the less common variant in a population
112
What does monomorphic mean
Existing in one form only
113
What is population genetics
The branch of science that deals with the statistical analysis of the inheritance and prevalence of genes in a population
114
What is a quantitative trait
A measurable phenotype that depends on the cumulative actions of many genes and the environment. These traits can vary among individuals, over a range, to produce a continuous distribution of phenotypes
115
What is a genetic trio
A set of individuals comprising of a father, a mother and their child.
116
What are the different types of mutations in a gen
Large deletions or insertions Gross rearrangements Point mutations Trinucleotide repeat expansions
117
What are the types of point mutations
Silent: Change in nucleotide still codes for the same amino acid Missense: Change in nucleotide results in change in amino acid coded for Nonsense: Change in nucleotide results in formation of a stop codon causing a truncated protein to be produced Frameshift mutation: deletion/insertion of one nucleotide alters protein sequence beyond mutation
118
What is Huntington's disease
``` Neurodegenerative disorder Symptoms: Involuntary movement Psychiatric changes Cognitive loss -> dementia Neuronal loss ``` Autosomal dominant: Heterozygous CAG repeat expansions Mutational instability Anticipation
119
What is fragile X syndrome
``` One of the more common single-gene causes of mental handicap X-linked Semi dominant males severely affected Females less so Peculiar inheritance ```
120
What is a germlin mutation
Inherited from parents at birth
121
What is a somatic cell mutation
A mutation that develops in one particular cell that has divided and cloned
122
What is the function of caretaker genes
Improve genomic stability
123
What is the function of gatekeeper genes
Monitor and control cell division and death, preventing accumulation of mutations
124
What is the function of Landscaper genes
Control the surrounding environment
125
What is the penetrance of a cancer gene
Percentage of people with a gene change who develop the condition May be modified by other genetic variations May be modified by environmental factors
126
What are tumour suppressor genes
Protects cells from becoming cancerous | Loss of function increases the risk of cancer
127
What are oncogenes
Regulate cell growth and differentiation | Gain of function/activating mutations increase the risk of cancer
128
What is Knudson's two hit hypothesis
Recessive at the cellular level so both copies of the gene inactivated to have the effect Most cancer syndromes show autosomal dominant inheritance pattern
129
What are sporadic vs familial cancers
Sporadic: Onset at older age One cancer in individual Unaffected family members ``` Familial: Onset at younger age Multiple primaries in individual Other family members affected Same type/ genetically-related cancers ```
130
What is the purpose of genetic assessment
``` Diagnosis/explanation of family history Counselling of advantages and disadvantages of testing Risk of further cancers for affected case Risk of cancer for unaffected relatives Screening Prevention Treatment Research ```
131
What is retinoblastoma
``` Childhood ocular cancer Very rare 30-50 children/year in uk Classic example following Knudson 2-hit hypothesis Retinoblastoma (Rb1) gene ```
132
What is familial adenomatous polyposis
Hundreds of bowel polyps from teens onwards Accounts for about 1% of bowel cancers High risk of bowel cancer if untreated APC tumour suppressor gene Autosomal dominant inheritance Colonoscopies, total colectomy late teens/early 20s
133
What is hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
``` Accounts for about 2-3% of bowel cancers Polyps are common but not polyposis 60-80% risk of bowel adenomas or cancer from mid 20s onwards Other cancer risks Mismatch repair genes Autosomal dominant inheritance ```
134
What is the Amsterdam criteria of HNPCC
One member diagnosed with colorectal cancer before 50 Two affected generations Three affected relatives, one first-degree relative of the other two FAP should be excluded Tumours should be verified by pathologic examination
135
What is the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene
BRCA1 and 2 are involved in DNA repair Around 10% of cases of breast under 40 and around 25% of those with strong FH Common mutations in Jewish and some other founder populations Autosomal dominant inheritance Risk of breast cancer 80%, ovarian BRCA1 40%, BRCA2 10-20% Some increased risk of other cancers
136
What is Morphology
The scientific study of the structure and form of either animals and plants or words and phrases
137
What are congenital malformations
``` 2-3% of births Single malformations often isolated events More likely to be genetic if: Multiple malformations Dysmorphic Family history of similar problems ```
138
What is achondroplasia
``` around 1 in 20,000 Autosomal dominant- often new mutation Risk increases with paternal age Rhizomelic limb shortening Short stature Foramen magnum compression/hydrocephalus ```
139
What is Beckwith- Wiedemann syndrome
``` around 1 in 10,000 Large tongue Ear pits/ creases Exomphalos Hemihypertrophy Neonatal hypoglycaemia Increased risk of Wilms tumour (nephroblastoma) ```
140
What is down syndrome
``` Commonest chromosomal disorder around 1 in 800 live births Learning difficulties Congenital heart disease Hypotonia in neonates Single palmar cease Cataracts Hearing impairment Hypothyroidism Leukaemia Atlanta-axial instability Alzheimer's disease ```
141
What is Kabuki syndrome
``` around 1 in 30,000 Learning difficulties Congenital heart disease (50%) Poor growth Hearing impairment Cleft palate Premature breast development Persistent fetal finger pads (96%) ```
142
What is mosaicism
Hypo- and/or hyper- pigmented patches May follow Blaschko's lines Diagnosis often requires skin biopsy
143
What is Peutz Jeghers syndrome
``` <1 in 50,000 Gastointestinal polyps: Bleeding Obstruction Malignancies: Colorectal Gastric Pancreatic Breast Ovarian ```
144
What is Treacher-collins syndrome
``` around 1 in 50,000 Autosomal dominant Very variable Cleft palate Hearing impairment ```
145
What is Waardenburg syndrome
``` Around 1 in 250,000 Sensorineural hearing impairment Iris heterochromia Premature greying White forelock Areas of skin hypo pigmentation Congenital malformations ```
146
What is William's syndrome
``` 7q11 deletion Around 1 in 20,000 Learning difficulties Hypercalcaemia Congenital heart disease: Supravalvular aortic stenosis Peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis ```
147
What is androgenesis
Initiation of development using only paternal genetic material
148
What is parthenogenesis
Initiation of development using only maternal genetic material Common in some other animals: insects, fish and reptiles
149
What is a hydatidiform mole
Androgenetic Mostly homozygous 46, XX Proliferation of abnormal trophoblast tissue Can develop into malignant trophoblastic tumour No remaining embryo
150
What is an ovarian teratoma
``` Parthenogenetic conceptions Derive from oocytes which have completed first or both meiotic divisions Diploid Wide spectrum of differentiated tissues: -predominantly epithelial -no skeletal muscle -no membranes/ placenta ```
151
Why do uniparental conceptions fail
Different roles of maternal and paternal genes in determining developmental fate Karyotype and gene dosage are normal Genomic imprinting
152
What is genomic imprinting
Mothers and fathers somehow imprint their genes with a memory of their paternal or maternal origin Mechanism ensures the functional non-equivalence of m and p genomes Not encoded in the DNA nucleotide sequence (epigenetic) Depends on modification to the genome laid down during gametogenesis (spermatogenesis vs oogenesis)
153
What is angelman syndrome
Facial dysmorphism (prognathism, wide mouth, drooling, smiling/laughing appearance) Mental handicap (microcephaly, absent speech) Seizure disorder Ataxic, jerky movements
154
What is prader-willi syndrome
``` Infantile hypotonia (feeding problems, gross motor delay) Mental handicap Male hypogenitalism/ cryptorchidism Small hands and feet Hyperphagia (resulting in obesity) Stereotypic behaviour ```
155
What causes prader-willi and angelman syndrome
Deletion of chromosome 15 (q11-q13) De novo Recurrence risk is very low Deletion on maternal copy in angelman syndrome Deletion on paternal copy in Prader-Willi syndrome
156
What is uniparental disomy
When an offspring inherits two copies of one gene from now parent and none of that gene from the other parent
157
What is DNA methylation
``` Post-synthetic DNA modification Epigenetic (does not alter DNA sequence) DNA methyltransferases Reversible Has to be maintained after replication Occurs at CG dinucleotides Involved in gene regulation Usually unmethylated CG islands at promotor region but if methylated then gene is silenced ```
158
What is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
``` Fetal overgrowth (high birthweight >5kg) Organomegaly (exomphalos) Asymmetry Tumour risk Sporadic occurence Epigenetic abnormalities Too much IGF2 in pregnancy ```
159
What is Russel-silver syndrome
Growth retardation (fatal, persistent postnatal growth failure) Triangular face (brain size more preserved Asymmetry Sporadic occurrence Too little IGF2 in pregnancy
160
What is hypothesis independent genetic research
Without any prior knowledge we can identify which genes, proteins and pathways are involved in development and disease Gene identification allows accurate diagnosis and counselling Gene identification gives us a starting point for deciphering its function Identifies targets for therapy
161
How is genetics used in medicine
``` Diagnosis: presymptomatic, prenatal, preimplantation Counselling Treatment Therapy Personalised medicine Prevention ```
162
What are the types of prenatal diagnosis
Amniocentesis (17 weeks) Chorionic villus sampling (11 weeks) NIPD- New non-invasive method based on NGS of mothers blood (10 weeks)
163
What is classic gene therapy
Introduction of functional genes, in the form of DNA to replace mutated genes Can repair mutated genes, silence overactive genes, provide immune cells with the tools needed to recognise and kill cancer cells and infections
164
What is genetic counselling
A communication process which deals with human problems associated with the occurrence or the risk of occurrence of a genetic disorder in a family
165
What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Thickening of the heart muscle due to irregular pattern of muscle cells, can obstruct valves or affect heart rhythm Not same as hypertrophy Lifestyle implications Medications, implantable devices, surgery Small risk of sudden death from arrhythmia usually Screening from 10-12 Autosomal dominant
166
What is human genetics
The science of heredity and variation in humans
167
What is medical genetics
The subset of human genetics that is important in medicine and medical research
168
What is molecular genetics
The study of the structure and function of individual genes
169
What is clinical genetics
The application of genetics to diagnosis and patient care in individuals and families
170
What does nt mean
Nucleotide
171
What does bp mean
Base pair
172
What is a karyotype
The number and visual appearance of the chromosomes in the cell nuclei of an organism
173
What are the chromosome landmarks
Centromere: middle bit Arms: Short (p) and long (q) Telomere: ptel and qte
174
What is a telomere
TTAGGG telomeric repeat sequence Made by telomerase (TERT) which is inactive in somatic cells Telomeres shorten somatic cell division so finite number of cell division to senescence Chromosomes are unstable without telomeres
175
How do cancer cells bypass senescence
Telomerase (TERT) reactivation
176
What are pseudoautosomal regions
Regions that are present on the X and the Y chromosomes
177
What is the SRY gene
Sex determining region which determine production of testis and male traits
178
What is the mitochondrial genome layout
Circular not linear | Cytoplasmic not nuclear
179
What is in the human genome
``` Single copy sequences: -genes Repetitive sequences: -interspersed repeats -satellite DNA: large blocks of repetitive sequences, heterochromatin ```
180
What are Genes comprised of
``` Functional units of DNA: -Genes are expressed : -transcribed into RNA -Translate RNA into protein (not all) Components (exons, introns, regulatory sequences - promoters, enhancers, locus control regions) ```
181
What is the Alphoid DNA's role
Required for assembly of centromere
182
What is an example of intragenic pathology
Duchenne Muscular dystrophy
183
What are the features of large deletions or insertions
Effects may vary May be missed by PCR based screening methods if heterozygous Examples: Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (deletion) Charcot-Marie-tooth disease (duplication)
184
What is an example of a gross rearrangement mutation
Haemophilia A
185
What is a single-nucleotide indel
Insertion or deletion of a single nucleotide
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What is the hyper mutability of CG dinucleotides
C is methylated in to C-CH3 Undergoes deamination to T Mismatch repair turns G to A so it matches T
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How is a molecular change described unambiguously
Reference sequence needed Genomic DNA (g.) cDNA (c.) Protein (p.)
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What is a polymorphism
Variant that's more common than 1%
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What is a rare variant
Variant that's less common than 1%
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What is the process of FISH
1 Prepare short sequences of single stranded DNA that match a portion of the gene desired (called probes) 2 Label probes by attaching colours of fluorescent dye 3 Probes are able to bind to the complementary strand of DNA wherever it may reside on a person's chromosomes 4 When a probe bends to a chromosome, the fluorescent tag provides a way to see that DNA location
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What is FISH used for
Locus specific probes: used to determine on which chromosome the gene is located or how many copies of a gene exist in a particular genome Alphoid or centromeric repeat probes: Used to determine if individual has correct number of chromosomes. Can be used in combination with locus specific probes to determine whether individual is missing genetic material. Whole chromosome probes are collections of smaller probes which each bind to different sequences along the length of chromosome. Allows each chromosome to be labelled unique colour resulting in a full colour map of the chromosome known as a spectral karyotype. Useful for examining chromosomal abnormalities.
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What is array CGH
An ultra high resolution way of objectively and quantitatively detecting whether a patient's DNA has losses (deletions) or gains (duplications, triplications etc) which are pathogenic and therefore explain clinical problems
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What is the process of array CGH
Genomic BAC, P1, cosmic or cDNA clones are used for hybridisation and fluorescence ratios along the length of chromosomes provide a cytogenetic representation of the relative DNA CNVs Fluorescence ratios at arrayed DNA elements provide a locus by locus measure of DNA Copy number variation and represent a means of achieving increased mapping resolution
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What are the two methods of prenatal testing
Amniocentesis | Chorionic villus sampling
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How is an amniocentesis performed
A sample of amniotic fluid is removed from uterus by insertion of a long thin needle through abdomen into uterus to withdraw a small amount of fluid which is then sent to lab for evaluation. It can be tested for genetic abnormalities, infection, signs of lung development
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How is Chorionic villus sampling performed
CVS removes a small sample of placenta tissue from uterus which is sent to the lab for testing. Sample can be taken by: -A catheter through vagina, passed through the cervix and into uterus -A needle through the abdomen which withdraws placenta tissue Ultrasound used in both methods to guide.
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What is non disjunction in meiosis
Failure of chromosome or chromatid to separate
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What are the advantages and disadvantages of array CGH
Advantages: - Early diagnosis - High resolution (increased diagnostic hit rate) - Greater accuracy of location/size of imbalances - Information on relevant genes Disadvantages: - Dosage changes only not balanced rearrangements or mutations - Low level mosaics not detected - Non pathogenic and uncertain pathogenic changes detected - Needs good quality DNA
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What happens in Quantitative fluorescent PCR
PCR amplification of short tandem repeats using fluorescent primers
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What is locus heterogeneity
A single disorder, trait or pattern of traits caused by mutations in genes at different chromosomal loci
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What is allelic heterogeneity
Different mutations at the same locus lead to the same or very similar phenotypes
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What is dysmorphology
The study of human congenital malformations (birth defects) particularly those affecting the anatomy (morphology) of the individual