Genetics in Medicine 1-10 Flashcards

1
Q

True or false: Single gene disorders have a high recurrence rate

A

True

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2
Q

True or false: Environmental diseases are less common than single gene disorders

A

False

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3
Q

What is a somatic mutation genetic disorder?

A

Mutation within a gene in a defined population of cells that results in disease, e.g. breast cancer

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4
Q

Are males or females affected more by autosomal dominant inheritance?

A

Equally affected

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5
Q

What types of proteins are normally affected by autosomal conditions, and name some conditions.

A

Structural proteins, receptors, transcription factors.

Myotonic dystrophy, Marfan syndomr, Huntington disease

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6
Q

What is the definition of penetrance?

A

The frequency with which a specific genotype is expressed by those that posses it, usually given as a percentage.

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7
Q

What is meant by expressivity?

A

The extent to which a heritable trit is manisfested by an individual - variation in expression.

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8
Q

What is the risk of offspring being affected in autosomal recessive inheritance to 2 carrier parents?

A

1/4

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9
Q

Name some conditions with autosomal recessive inheritance

A

CF
Metabolic disorders
Haemachromatosis
Sickle cell disease

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10
Q

Who is affected by X-linked inheritance?

A

Males, however cannot have male to male transmission

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11
Q

Name some conditions with X-linked inheritance

A

DMD
Fragile X
Red-green colour blindness
Haemophilia

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12
Q

What are some of the difficulties with using PCR?

A

Gene may be too big

GC-rich regions are difficult to PCR - fragile X mutation has repetitive CGG sequence

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13
Q

What genetic techniques are used if we already know the identity of the mutation? And if we do not?

A

PCR

DNA sequencing
Karyotyping

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14
Q

Which direction is DNA written in

A

5’ –> 3’

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15
Q

What is satellite DNA?

A

Large blocks of repetitive sequences, found at centromeres and heterochromatic chromosomal regions

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16
Q

What occurs in transcription and translation?

A

Transcription: DNA –> RNA
Translation: RNA –> protein

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17
Q

What is an intron?

A

Non-coding region

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18
Q

What is the difference between SNV and SNP mutations?

A
SNV = variant, >1%
SNP = polymorphism, <1%
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19
Q

What are the definitions of aneuploidy, polyploidy and mosaicism?

A
Anueploidy = gain or loss of chromosome
Polyploidy = gain entire sets of chromosomes
Mocaism = diploidy (normal 2 copies) and aneuploidy
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20
Q

What is non-disjunction in meiosis?

A

Failure of chromosome / chromatid separation. Some gametes have no genetic material, others have double.

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21
Q

What is Trisomy 21? Describe some of the clinical features observed.

A

Downs syndrome.

Upward slanting eyes, protruding tongue, single palmar crease, wide sandal gap, learning difficulties

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22
Q

What is trisomy 18? Descrive the clinical features observed.

A

Edwards Syndrome.
Microcephaly, low set ears, cleft palate, clenched hands, rockerbottom feet, severe mental retardation, organ malformations e.g. umbilical / inguinal hernia, heart/kidney/eye abnormalities

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23
Q

What is trisomy 13? Describe the clinical features.

A

Patau syndrome.

Small at birth, mental retardation, microcephaly, brain defects, cleft palate, heart defects, abnormal genitalia

24
Q

What are the sex chromosome disorders, 45X and 47XXY?

A
45X = Turner's syndrome
47XXY = Klinefelter's syndrome
25
Describe some features of Turner's syndrome
Loss of ovarian function, no puberty, webbed neck, swollen hands and feet, coarctation of aorta, reduced IQ`
26
Describe some features of Klinefelter's syndrome
Testicular dysgenesis, 30-50% gynaecomastia, long limbs in adults
27
What is a molar pregnancy?
Double paternal DNA with no maternal. "Conception without an embryo"
28
Summarise which numerical abnormalities occur during: 1) meiosis 2) fertilisation 3) post-fertilisation
1_ gain/loss of single chromosome 2) gain of whole chromosome sets 3) gain or loss during mitosis
29
What is a robertsonian translocation?
Whole arm of chromosome breaks off and fuses with another chromosome
30
What is a chromosome inversion?
Chromosome broken at 2 points, then rejoined. Paricentric: occurs about centromere, pericentric: no centromere involvement
31
What is FISH used for?
Copy number imbalance, aneuploidy, confimration of G-banding and array CGH, identifying specific abnormalities in cancer
32
What is a copy number variation?
DNA segment with variable copy number compared with refernece genome.
33
What is MLPA?
Mulitplex-ligation-dependent-probe-amplification. | Mulitplex PCR, alternative to FISH
34
What is array CGH?
Genome wide screen which sees genomic imbalances at high resolutuion
35
What are the advantages of array cGH?
early diagnosis high reesolution high accuracy information on relevant genes
36
What is a gatekeeper gene?
Cancer gene that monitors and controls cell division and death, preventing accumulation of mutations.
37
What is a caretaker gene?
Cancer gene that improves genomic stability e.g. repair of mutations
38
What is a landscape gene?
Cancer gene that controls the surrounding stroll environment
39
What is a tumour suppressor gene? Name a well-known example.
Suppresses cell growth to protect cells from becoming cancerous. BRCA1/2.
40
What is an oncogene?
Regulates cell growth and differentiation. Activation mutations allows cell growth to become out of control.
41
What is Knudson's two-hit hypothesis? Name the classic example of cancer that demonstrates this.
2 mutations are required within a single cell to cause cancer. However, in inherited disease, one of the mutations already exists, therefore there is a higher risk of cancer as only one further mutation is required. Retinoblastoma
42
Which inheritance patterns do most cancer syndromes follow?
Autosomal dominant
43
Name some features that help to distinguish a familial cancer against a sporadic.
Familial = younger age of inset, FHx of same type / genetically related cancers
44
What is HNPCC, what is its inheritance pattern and what does it hold a risk for?
Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer. 60-80% risk of bowel adenoma, other cancer risks = endometrial/ovarian/stomach/ GUT. Autosomal dominant inheritance
45
What criteria is used to assess whether someone has HNPCC?
Amsterdam
46
What is Li Fraumeni Syndrome?
Mutation in P43 tumour supressor gene. 50% cancer by age 40 = breast, brain, adrenocortex, leukaemia.
47
Inheritance of haemachromatosis
Autosomal recessive
48
Term used to describe the extent to which a heritable trait is manifested by an individual
Expressivity
49
Myotonic dystrophy is inherited in an autosomal _________ fashion
Dominant
50
The classic Fragile X mutation occurs in a tract of sequence which is
Repetitive
51
This drug blocks the abnormal tyrosine kinase activity in cases of chronic myeloid leukaemia which have the classic translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.
Gleevec (Imatinib)
52
The chromosome that carries the BCR/abl fusion gene is referred to as the _____________ chromosome
Philadelphia
53
Mutations in this gene result in microcephaly
ASPM
54
The condition of diabetes and deafness is ______________inherited
Maternally
55
Small cell lung cancers which harbour EGFR/HER1 mutations can be treated with this drug.
Gefitinib
56
OLA assay stands for?
Oligonucleotide ligation assay
57
Term used to describe the process of random inactivation of one of the X chromosomes in cells with more than one X chromosome
Lyonisation