Genetics I Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the difference between genetic and genomic medicine?

A

Genetics = study of genes and their role in inheritance; the way certain traits are passed from one generation to the next Human genetics = biological variations in humans medical genetics = biological variations in humans as it relates to health and disease clinical genetics = biological variations in humans as it relates to health and disease and how to diagnose, treat, and manage these diseases Genomics = study of an individual’s genome (all of their genes) including the interaction of those genes with each other and with the persons ENVIRONMENT (complex diseases involving genes + environment) **all medical conditions that are treated are mixture of genetics and environment EXCEPT trauma

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2
Q

Explain how the human genome project as expanded the field of medical genetics and its impact on medicine

A

HGP goal = to sequence human genome (DNA sequence) in order to identify cause and genetic component of human disease In doing so HGP has let to: biotech based products, HAPMAP project (common variant, common disease) for identifying human gene variations across populations, ethical/legal/social issues related to genetic information, encyclopedia of DNA elements (ENCODE) Future goals = cancer genome atlas, personalized medicine, rare disease project GWAS (genomic wide association studies) = rapid scan of genomes for genetic variants for specific diseases 23andMe = direct to consumer haplotyping of personal genomes

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3
Q

What clinical genetic principals should ever health professional know?

A
  1. family hx is the number one diagnostic tool for genomic disease 2. genetic terms 3. diseases common to specific ethnic groups 4. social/ethical/legal issues 5. environmental, behavioral and genetic factors 6. resources available
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4
Q

Describe the roles of genetic professionals (clinical geneticists, genetics counselor, clinical genetics lab specialist, medical biochemical geneticist. PCP)

A
  1. clinical geneticist: = a physician who provides comprehensive diagnostic, management, treatment, risk assessment, and counseling for a patient at risk of having a genetic disorder 2. Genetic Counselor = a health professional (masters degree) who assists patients in understanding medical, psychological, and familial implications of disease–uses family history to provide information on inheritance, testing, etc. and counsel the patient to promote informed decision 3. Clinical genetics lab specialist = PhD, MD, DO who runs the genetic testing for chromosomal, molecular, and metabolic conditions 4. Medical biochemical geneticist = MD specializing in treating patients with inborn errors in metabolism 5. PCP = recognizing the signs and symptoms of single gene/chromosomal and mulifactorial diseases; in complex multifactorial diseases the should use genetic tests to guide treatment plans
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5
Q

What are the consequences of not identifying a genetic disease?

A
  1. decreased quality of life (because eventually the disease symptoms come on) 2. decreased lifespan 3. risk family members not identified 4. children left behind with no knowledge of risk
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6
Q

What is the basic chromosome structure, organization, and anatomy?

A

=23 chromosomes (22 autosomes, 1 sex chromosome) 1. Structure: Typical chromo = in metaphase = 2 daughter molecules of DNA produced during S-Phase of interphase of cell cycle, separately folded and condensed along their protein axis to produce 2 sister chromatids attached at a centromere # of chromosomes = # of centromeres # of strands of DNA (molecules) = # of chromatids have associated proteins that are crucial to their structure (fragile when proteins are absent); Autosome = chromosome pa with one of each pair from the maternal origin, and one of each pair from paternal origin Sex = remaining pair; XX = female, XY = male 2. Organization = chromos are best visualized at METAPHASE after DNA is replicated and present in a condensed state. **chromos are less condensed and longer at prophase than metaphase **each chromosome pair is identified on the basis of size, shape, and banding pattern produced by a particular staining process 3. Anatomy p = short arm (‘petite’ ) q = long arm Metacentric, Acentric, or submetacentric

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7
Q

What is the difference between metacentric, acentric, and submetacentric chromosomes?

A

Metacentric = centromere is in the middle Acrocentric = centromere is near one end (leading to a short p arm which ends in structures called satilites); includes chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21, 22, Y (but Y isn’t involved in Robertsonian translocations) Submetacentric = centromere is somewhere between metacentric and acentric

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8
Q

What is the process of preparing a karyotype?

A
  1. Blood cells placed in tissue culture medium with phytohemagluttinin (PHA) to agglutinate BC and stimulate lymphocyte to divide 2. Separate off RBC (want only WBC since RBC dont have any nuclear material) and incubate WBC for 3 days 3. Add Colchicine: blocks spindle formation so that cell division is blocked at metaphase; chromosomes condense, but do not organize along metaphase plate; nuclear membrane breaks down 4. Cells placed in hypotonic saline (for lysing) 5. Cells are fixed, stained, and phtographed under microscope Result: each normal metaphase chromosome can be seen as 2 chromatids held together at the primary construction site (the centromere); the specific point of attachments = the kinetocore (the site of spindle fiber attachment for drawing chromatids to opposite poles during cell divison) **** THIS IS THE NORMAL KARYOTYPING PROCESS. FOR HIGH RESOLUTION KARYOTYPING, STOP DIVISION IN PROPHASE so that the chromosomes are less condensed and longer (easier to identify more bands/chromosomes)
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9
Q

What is the purpose/what are the characteristics associated with: chromosome banding? What are the different types of chromosome banding and how do the results present? How are specific genes identified on chromosome bands?

A

= karyotyping Band = part of a chromosome that is clearly distinguishable from its adjacent segments by appearing darker or lighter or by 1 or more banding techniques **each band DOES NOT identify a unique gene, but rather a unique segment which contains HUNDREDS of genes; chromosomes are identified and aligned in pairs based on accepted nomenclature (normal banding pattern; called ideogram) into karyotypes “46XX or 46XY = normal” 1. Giesma banding = G band; most widely used (+/- for giesma) , allows for identification of DELETION OR DUPLICATION of 4mBP (not for small deletions) Dark bands = more highly condensed regions, less transcriptionally active (those genes expressed during development.. tissue specific genes) Light bands = less condensed; more euchromatin and location of more transcriptionally active genes involved in day to day activity of genes/cellular activity (ie: house keeping genes) 2. High Resolution Banding: uses compounds that interfere with condensation, leading to longer chromosomes (less condensed) = pictured at prophase/prometaphase Classification of chromosome banding: landmark = consistent and distinct morphological feature for identifying a chromosome region = area between two landmarks to identify a particular band need: 1. chromosome number 2. chromosome arm (p vs q) 3. region number 5. band number (1 = closest to centromere and increase in number as move outward)

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10
Q

What is the purpose/what are the characteristics associated with: Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization (FISH)

A

FOR: recognizing absence/presence of a particular DNA sequence Molecular probes are constructed to be precisely complementary (cDNA) to a specific sequence of a target DNA; DNA strands are denatured, exposing the nucleotide sequence of each strand, probe added and strands reanelaed, allowing the probe and DNA to complement and then the DNA now is fluorescently labeled for identification FUNCTION = to detect chromosome or specific chromosome segments; for recognition of translocations, deletions, or other STRUCTURAL rearrangements (sort of like karyotype, but more microscopic) Used for screening of prenatal amniotic fluid cells for: -anaploidy (trisomny 13,18,21,X,Y) -ID baby sex -translocations -marker chromosomes -micrdeletion syndromes (ie: di georges velecardiofacial, cri du chat) **different FISH probes can be added to identify multiple targets at the same time!

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11
Q

What is the purpose/what are the characteristics associated with: Array based comparative genomic hybridization (aCGH)

A

= used for detection and map copy numbers changes in the regions of the genome -DNA tested and reference DNA are differentially labeled and hybridized to the array. The ratio of the fluorescence of the test to reference signals are then calculated and then from this the copy and changes in the test sample relative to the reference sample can be determined USES: deletions, duplication, subtelomeric deletions, aneuploidy, genetic instability in cancer genomes (basically everything that karyotypes can do plus some) LIMITATIONS: CANNOT DETECT balanced translocations (reciprocal or inversions) or mosaicism

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12
Q

Describe what a numerical chromosomal abnormality is

A

= ploidy haploid = normal gamete; one member of each chromosome pair (normal = 23) diploid = normal autosome; 2*haploid triploid = number of chromosomes = 3*haploid due to extra set of chromosomes (n = 69); can be due to paternal = double fertilization o fertilization with a diploid sperm; or maternal = fertilization of a diploid egg anaploidy = any chromosome number that is not an exact multiple of the haploid number = extra copy of a single chromosome (trisomy) or absence of a single chromosome (monosomy)

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13
Q

How does anaploidy occur?

A

= result of a nondisjunction (failure of chromosomes to separate normally during division (meiosis or mitosis) Meiotic non-disjunction: = increased risk with increased maternal age (can be meiosis I or II) Meiosis I: gametes formed have BOTH parental chromosomes that failed to separate, or NEITHER (nondisjunction occurs during anaphase I) Meiosis II: gametes contain 2 copies of ONE parental chromosome (maternal or paternal) or NONE

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14
Q

What are structural abnormalities?

A

= rearrangements in one or more chromosomes; one chromosome involved = deletions, duplications, inversions, isochromosome formation, ring chromosome formation. two or more chromosomes involved = insertion of material from one chromosome to another, or translocation or exchange of material between two chromosomes

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15
Q

what is the difference between a terminal and interstitial deletion/duplication?

A

terminal = loss or doubling of material at the end of a chromosome interstitial = loss or doubling of material within a chromosome

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16
Q

what is the difference between a paracentric and pericentric inversion?

A

paracentric = dont include the centromere; 2 breaks in one arm (both breaks are either above or below the centromere, so that an inversion occurs in only ONE arm of the choromsome (p or q))

pericentric = include the centromere; one break in each arm (first break above the centromere, second break below the centromere and then it inverts ABOUT the centremere–PERI) inversion suggests reversal of the orientation of the intervening portion between the breaks

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17
Q

What are isochromosomes? what type of abnormality?

A

a type of structural abnormality in which there is a complete absence of one of the chromosome arms (ie p or q) and complete duplication of the other chromosome arm.

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18
Q

What are translocations? What is a balanced translocation vs an unbalanced translocation? what is a robertsonian translocation vs. a reciprocal translocation?

A

In both: can be balanced or unbalanced;

Balanced = no essential chromosomal material is lost and no genes are damaged during breakage and reunion… clinically normal; BUT the balanced translocation is a CARRIER and is at risk of having unbalanced offspring;

Unbalanced = loss of genetic information

  1. Reciprocal = exchange of chromosomal material betnween two NON HOMOLOGOUS CHROMOSOMES; 3 outcomes are possible: 1). normal gametes 2). Balanced translocation 3). Unbalanced gamete with 1 extra chromosomal segment (partial trisomy) and a deletion of other chromsome segments (partial monosomy); Many unbalanced gametes are non-viable and result in early embryonic loss or spontaneous miscarriage
  2. Robertsonian = “centric”; translocation between two ACROCENTRIC chromosomes (13,14,15,21,22,X,Y) by fusion at the centromere with LOSS OF THE SHORT ARM AND SATELITES

Becasue the short arms of all 5 pairs of acrocentric chromsomes have multiple copies of genes for rRNA, loss of short arms of acrocentric chromosomes is not deleterious;

But, consequence of major chrosomal abnormalities = spontaneous abortion:

Trisomy 16 = most common chromosomal defect leading to spontanous abortion; the earlier in gestation that the abnormality occurs, the higher the liklihood that it is a chromosomally abnormal an dmore fatal;

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19
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of trisomy 21?

A

= Down Syndrome:

slanted palpebral fissurs (upward slanting), depressed nasal bridge (flat face) hearing and vision impairment, slower development (developmental milestones delayed), mental retardation (all patients!!!) congenital heart defects (major mortality); duodenal atresia, simian crease (single plamar due to hypotonia), hypotonia, excess flap of skin on back of neck;

Patients reach developmental milestones slower than children who dont have downs syndome (ie: sitting, walking, talking); no “cure” for down syndrome, just treat the symptomes (ie: heart problems, duodenal atresia, etc.)

Best outcome for pts: to live a normal family life in own home; all schools are required to have services for down syndrom patients (in regular classrooms = main streaming)

**most common cause of genetic mental retardation!!!

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20
Q

What is the etiology of trisomy 21?

A

= due to a chromosomal anomaly:

  1. 95% of time = Nondisjunctional trisomy of maternal meiosis origin
  2. mosaicism = nondisjunction occurs in a cell division AFTER fertilization (mitotic) and leads to two populations of cells: some with 46 chromos, some with 47 chromos (trisomnic group)
  3. robertsonian translocation = when all or part of the chromosome 21 becomes attached to another chromosome; result = unbalanced. MATERNAL AGE IS NOT ASSOCATED WITH TRANSLOCATION!!! (only associated with non-disjunction)

The recurrance/general risk: increases with increased maternal age EVEN THOUGH THE INCIDENCE INCREASES WITH DECREASED MATERNAL AGE (becuase more young people are having babies)

reccurance risk: depends on: 1. etiology 2. parent sex:

if due to nondisjunction: recurring risk = 1% or if maternal > 35, 2%;

if due to translocation: karyotype BOTH parents: if mom carrier = 10-15%, if father carrier = 5%; if a BALANCED 21: 21 translocation (both 21’s on one chromo, on a parent) then 100% of progeny will be trisomy

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21
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of trisomy 18?

A

= Edwards syndrome;

BEFORE BIRTH:

  • polyhydraminos
  • decreased fetal activity
  • single umbilical artery
  • growth retardation

AT BIRTH:

  • hypertonia
  • microcephaly and micrognathia
  • LOW SET MALFORMED EARS
  • cleft lip/palate
  • CLENCHED FIST (overlapping 3rd/4th fingers)
  • Rocker bottom feet
  • hypoplastic sternum (missing 12th ribs)
  • horseshoe kidney
  • malformed bowel

**DEATH WITHIN A YEAR NORMALLY

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22
Q

What is the etiology of edwards disease?

A

= trisomy 18;

due to: chromosomal anomaly

  1. nondisjuncitonal trisomy
  2. mosaicism (has a longer survival)

Recurrance risk:

in non-disjunction cases: <1%

more common in females than males

**most non-disjunction cases die from spontaneous abortions

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23
Q

What are the clincal characteristics of trisomy 13?

A

= “P” = patau

cleft liP/Palate

Polydactyl

Polycystic kidney

holoProsencephalon

also get:

abnormal midfacial and forebrain devleopment, intrauterine growth retardation, micrognathia, severe mental retardation (due to holoprosencephaly); only 5% survive first 6 months

24
Q

what is the etiology of patau syndrome?

A

= trisomy 13

= due to a chromosomal anomaly

  1. nondijunctional trisomy
  2. mosaicism
  3. translocation

Recurrance Risk of non-disjunction = <1% (due to spontaneous abortion)

25
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of triploidy?

A

VERY growth retard (if survive and born after 28 wks)

CYSTIC HYDATIFORM (large placenrta with masses resembling grapes..”moles”)

simian crease and syndactyly of 3rd and 4th fingers

atrial and ventricular septal defects

skeletal asymmetry and variable psychomotor retardation (in mixoploidy cases)

ALL CASES OF FULL TRIPLOIDY = stillborn or early neonatal death;

26
Q

What is the etiology of triploidy?

A

= all chromosomes extra (69) or 46 chromosomes but all from dad.

= Chromosomal Anomaly

  • Most cases paternally derived
  • 66% dispermy
  • 24% diploid sperm
  • 10%diploid ovum
  • 60% are 69, XXY; most of remainder is 69, XXX *usually only one maternal X chromosome remains active
  • Maternal age not a factor
  • More than 99% lost in very early pregnancy
  • Accounts for ~20% of abnormal chromosomal spontaneous miscarriages
  • 2% of all conceptions
27
Q

What test detects microdeletions?

A

FISH

28
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of Velocardiofacial syndrome?

A

= DiGeorge’s Syndrome

“CATCH 22” Cleft palate Abnormal face Thymic aplasia (T-cell deficiency) Cardiac defects Hypocalcemia (secondary to parathyroid aplasia) DUE TO DELETION ON CHROMO 22

Velopharyngeal incompetence

  • Cleft palate
  • Speech & feeding problems

Cardiac Defects

  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Interrupted aortic arch
  • Ventricular septal defect
  • Truncus arteriosus

Facial Appearance

  • Asymmetric crying facies
  • overfolded ears
  • micrognathia
  • recessed jaw
  • bulbous nasal tip
  • long face

Small or absent thymus gland (immunodeficiency)

Learning Problems

hypocalcemia

  • Requires multidisciplinary approach monitor serum calcium, lymphocytes, & ultrasounds renal and heart in neonatal perior

Karyotype, FISH, or CGH for diagnosis

29
Q

What is the etiology of velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge)?

A
  • >95% - 22q11 microdeletion
  • ~94% de novo deletion
  • 6% inherited deletion
  • Remaining 5%
    • Smaller 22q11.2 deletion
    • Chromosomal rearrangement of 22q11.2

TBX1 mutation​
* ​

Recurrence Risk
* De novo - minimal

* 50% if inherited (AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT) 

*

30
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of 47XYY?

A

=”hyper males”

  • Phenotypically Normal
  • Fertile
  • Dull mentality (decreased IQ)
  • Explosive behavior, behavioral problems
  • Accelerated growth mid childhood
  • Tall, thin stature
  • Increased length vs breadth
  • Narrow head
  • Long fingers and toes
  • Facial asymmetry: large teeth, long ears, prominent glabella
  • Poor fine motor coordination (occasional fine intentional tremor)
  • Acne
  • Tall stature not apparent until 5 or 6
  • Poor development of pectoral and shoulder girdle musculature
  • Distractability, hyperactivity and tempor tantrums
  • Not juvenile delinquents
31
Q

What is the etiology of 47XYY?

A
  • Non-Disjunction in male Meiosis II usually de novo ( transmission from father to son is rare)
  • Fertile
  • Karyotype Transmission is rare
  • NOT ASSOICATED WITH MATERNAL AGE
32
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of 47XXY?

A

= Klinefelter syndrome

  • Hypogonadism
  • Infertility (TESTICULAR ATROPHY)
  • 15-20% Decreased IQ
  • 20-50% moderate intention tremor
  • later onset of speech

problems in articulation and language expression

  • Behavior problems (immaturity, insecurity, shyness, unrealistic boastful and assertive activity)
  • Long limbs (decrease upper to lower body segment ration and tall slim statures)
  • Obese as adults w/o testosterone replacement
  • Gynecomastia (breast development excess gonadotropin)
  • Hyalinization & fibrosis of seminiferous tubulues (excess gonadotropin)
  • Testes and penis small
  • Need testosterone (less than ½ normal value in normal males)
33
Q

What is the etiology of Klinefelter’s syndrome?

A

= 47XXY

**MOST COMMON CAUSE OF MALE INFERTILITY

  • Non-heritable (infertility)
  • Meiotic non-disjunction (can be maternal or paternal, equally)
  • 22% mosiacs (better testicular fxn because they are 50% XXY 50% XY)
  • 75% identified by karotype
  • Most common cause of hypogonadism and infertility in males
  • Other varients like XXYY and XXXY (more likely to be mental retarded and demonstrate behavioral issues)
  • Diagnosis in childhood important because need for testosterone (more usual deveoplment and prevent some problems)
  • Presence of inactived X
34
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of Turners Syndrome?

A
  • Small Stature
  • Sexual infantilism
  • Webbed neck
  • Cubitus valgus (abnormal bending of elbow)
  • Gonadal dysgenesis with hypoplasia ( loss of germ cells on the developing gonads of an embryo, leading to extremely hypoplastic (underdeveloped) and dysfunctioning gonads mainly composed of fibrous tissue, hence the name streak gonads)
  • Transient congenital lymphedema (puffniness over dorsum of hands and feet)
  • Cystic hygromas (of fetal neck) resolves in gestation but are reflected after birth as ptergium colli (webbed neck)
  • Broad, shield chests, widely spaced nipples
  • Abnormal promiant ears, narrow maxilla
  • Small mandibles
  • Horshoe kidney, double or cleft renal pelvis, ureteral implantion abnormalaties
  • Cardiac anomalies: biscupid aortic valve, coarctation and aortic valvular stenosis
  • Normal ovarian development in fetal life, primary follicles absent, ovary degenerates quickly
    • Estrogen replacement needed (gradually increased to mimic adolescence) cycling therapy in adulthood
    • Pregnancy only possible via artificial reproduction techniques
    • Increased risk of Gonadoblastoma (Mosaicism if male tissue remains) 45 X, 46 XY (exploratory laprotomy needs to be done)
  • Normal IQ
    • Delays in visual spatial organization and math frequent
  • No mental retardation (more likely autosomal)

*** NO MENTAL RETARDATION; IF THERE IS, THEN LOOK FOR AN X-AUTOSOME TRANSLOCATION!!!

35
Q

What is the etiology of Turners Syndrome?

A

= 45X0

= PATERNAL SEX CHROMOSOME MISSING!

NO relationship to MATERNAL AGE

Sporadic

little increased recurrance risk

Most embryonic deaths (birth incidence low)

Mosiacs have lesser degree of malformation

36
Q

How are genes organized and whats the process of gene expression through transcription and translation?

A
  • Gene = chromosomal region that contains the information to encode a protein and also to direct its expression at the correct levels in the proper temporal and spatial manner
    • composed of DNA (linear polymer of nucleotides whose order determines the information content of a gene
    • fundamental unit of inheritance/genetic info
    • contain coding information and regulatory elements (enhancers, promoters, splicing signals) that regulate the levels and temporal seuqence of mRNA expression and its stability
  • locus = position on a chromosome of a gene or other chromosome marker
  • Alleles = alternate forms of a gene that can be distinguished by their alternate phenotypic effects or by their molecular differences
    • a single allele for each locus is inhertied separately from eah parent
  • Expressivity = severity/intensity of the phenotype of an ellel
  • Penetrance = frequency at which a gene expresses any observable phenotype

Regulatory sequences:

  1. Promoters = specific sites of transcription initiation
  2. Enhancers = regulatory elements more distant to the gene, but may be involved in tissue expression
  3. Methylation = represses the expression of a gene

DNA –> RNA –> protein

once mRNA is made, it is processed:

  1. polyA tail to 3’: for stability
  2. cap to 5’: required for efficient tranlation of the transcript
  3. RNA splicing: introns excised

translation = occurs in cytoplasmic ribosomes

37
Q

How do mutations cause disease? what are the different types of genetic variations?

A

mutation = DNA sequence variation from normal **DOES NOT IMPLY PATHOGENIC**; a change in DNA sequence may/may not cause a change in amino acid sequence;

  • polymorphism = a sequence change in more than 1% of the population (non-pathogenic)
  • single base substitution: can cause premature termination of protein syntehsis, change of amino acid, suppress termination of a protein translation, alter level of gene expression or alter patterns of mRNA splicing via:
    • translocation: 2 separate genes of chromosome segments brough together
    • deletions: a few nucleotides to long stretches of DNA (can change reading frame)
    • insertions/duplications = of a few nucleotides to long stretches of DNA (can change reading frame)
    • Point mutations = single bp change in DNA (silent = doesn’t change the amino acid therefore non-pathogenic)
      • Missense = substitutes one amino acid for another (may or may not be pathogenic)
      • non-sense = creates a STOP codon in place of an amino acid; ALWAYS PATHOGENIC (*“stop the nonsense”)
    • Splicing = disrupts the consensus splice site sequence or creates alternative sites (expected to be pathogenic)
    • *
38
Q

What is allelic heterogeneity? locus heterogeneity?

A

Allelic = different mutations affecting THE SAME GENE (SAME LOCUS) but result in DISTINCT CLINICAL SYNDROMES (same gene, different mutation/syndome)

  • “version” of the gene that is present at any given locus (occur within the same chromosome)
  • each allel has a specific and unique nucleotide sequence

Locus = mutations on different genes (DIFFERENT LOCUS) result in the SAME CLINICAL SYNDROME

  • mutations in completely unrelated gene loci cause a single disorder
39
Q

What is direct vs indirect molecular diagnostic testing?

A

Direct analysis = identification of specific genetic sequences or alterations/mutations (genotype) in a patient affected with or at risk for specific genetic disorder; **requires knowledge of normal gene sequeence to identify mutants **

Indirect analysis = linkage analysis = identification of a specific sequence changes close to (ie: linked) the gene of interest. Linkage analysis **DOES NOT detect causitive mutations within a specific gene. **Used when the sepcific gene of interest is unidentified, but known to be localized to a particular chromsomal location. Used less and less frequently in diagnostic situations as more and more genes are identified.

40
Q

How does PCR work? What is it used for?

A
  • FOR: targed mutation analysis
  • IN GENERAL: powerful technique for selective and rapid amplificiation of target DNA flanked between two nucleotide primers
  • METHOD:
    • heat separates DNA strands and hybridizes primers;
    • DNA segments amplified using Taq polymerase + deoxynucleotides
    • Temperature is raised to stop and lowered to start the reaction
    • DNA amplified each cycle
  • APPLICATIONS: genetic analysis (identifies specific disease causing mutations)
  • LIMITATIONS: must know sequence infomration to synthesize oligonucleotide primers
41
Q

How does Sanger sequencing work? what is it used for?

A
  • for comprehensive gene sequencing: look at larger regions of gene for insertion/deletion: can’t be found via sequencing
    • sequence DNA segment to attempt to identify a mutation
  • METHOD: DNA fragments separated so lengths vary by one nucleotide; read sequences as complement bands; automation of base by base sequencing
  • APPLICATION: used on PCR reaction products; allows for direct assessment of gene of interest
  • LIMITATIONS:
    • expensive
    • can’t detct large deletions or duplications
42
Q

What tests could be used to detect a copy number change (deletion/duplication)?

A
  • FISH
  • tri-nucleotide repeat expansion
  • MLPA
  • aCGH
43
Q

How do restiction Endonucleases work? What can they be used for?

A
  • used to digest DNA to produce smaller segments for analysis: RFLPs
  • different alleles of same gene can have different restriction sites resulting in different restiction patterns for the same gene segment
    • can ID the specific alleles in a gene , but you just need to know DNA/restirction sites
    • allele-specific oligonucleotide probe
44
Q

How are SNPs used in molecular diagnostics?

A
  • Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs)
  • every human carriers 99% of same base residues on both chromosomes, but SNPs occur when DNA sequence variations in a single nucleotide (ATC or G) in a genome sequence is altered.
    • encodes for much of the diversity among humans (including differences in disease susceptibility)
    • most SNPs have no effect on cell function, but others predispose people to disease or influence response to drug
  • SNPs are evolutionarily stable: not changing much from generation to generation, making them easier to follow in population studies;
  • SNPs array = useful for detection of all CLASSIC deletion/duplication syndromes because SNPs are variants useful for tracking or identifying genes (usually occur in introns)
  • used for comparing regions of the genome between cohorts (such as with matched cohorts with and without a disease) in genome-wide association studies.
45
Q

How are common molecular disagnostic techniques used in genetic testing?

A
  • diagnosis of known syndrome
  • carrier testing
  • presymptomatic testing
  • predisposition testing
    • to assess risk and occurance of disease
46
Q

How is genetic testing useful in diagnostic testing?

A
  • can be direct or indirect (linkage) testing for a specific genetid disorder based on symptoms
  • send the sample to the lab and await confirmation
  • EX: HD, Fragile X
47
Q

How is genetic testing useful in carrier testing? what is the purporse of carrier testing? what is a good example of when carrier testing should be used?

A
  • indentifies individuals who are gene carriers (but not affected
    • applies to recessive, dominant, X-linked disorders
    • applies to family or population studies
  • PURPOSE OF CARRIER TESTING
    • to allow individuals to make informed decisions in regard to ris of a particular geentic disorder in his or her offspring
      • usually no health benefit to carrier, just to abstain from a defect in offspring
  • EX: cystic fibrosis (autosommal recessive) = 23 common deletions
48
Q

How is genetic testing beneficial for pre-symptomatic testing? what is the purpose of pre-symptomatic testing? what do the results suggest? what is an example when it should be done?

A
  • used to determine if an individual will develop that genetic disease in future (even though dont currently present the symptoms)
  • If non-carrier: NOT AT RISK TO DEVELOP DISEASE
    • normal family planning
  • if a carrier: increased medical surveillance, treatment if avialable, prenatal testing/ other reporductive choices
  • EX: huntingtons disease (before symptoms present)
49
Q

How is genetic testing allow for predisposition testing? what is the purpose of predisposition testing? what is an example of when it should be done?

A
  • a risk estimate based on genotype; not absolute that disase will devleop, just at risk
  • ie: inherited thrombophilia (factor V Leiden)
    • increased risk of thrombosis, but not all carriers develop symptoms;
    • important during pregnancy when you are already at an increased risk for thrombosis
50
Q

How can genetics be used in pharaceuticals? what are some examples of the relationship between genetics and pharmaceutics?

A
  • Pharmacogenetics = study of genetics variations that cause a variable durg response
    • drugs affect people in different ways (based on the individual): can be +/- benefit and +/- toxicity
  • Pharmacogenomics = development of medical pharmacologic treatments that incorporate individual genetic variations
    • “the use of genetics to modulate therapy”
    • EX: cytochrome p450 and warfarin
  • EX: Genetic variations in CYP2C9 (hepatic enzymes) affects the speed/way that warfarin is metabolized and thus different patients will have different starting doses
  • EX: irinotecan (chemotherapy durg) = processed in the liver in which the drug is activated/deactivated based on genotype and can cause toxicity
    • FDA recommends genotyping ALL pts prior to irinotecan to decrease its toxic effect
51
Q

What are the clinical and molecular features of huntingtons disease and fragile x?

A
  1. Huntingtons Disease
  • neurodegnerative disease associated with choreatic movement and progressive neurologic sequelae due to loss of STR neurons (in caudate and putamen)
  • Autosommal Dominant
  • caused by expansions of CAG trinucleotide repeats
    • after a certain number of repeats, the protein doesnt function normally and the diease presents
    • INVERSELY RELATED TO AGE OF ONSET (increase of repeats = decreased age of onset)
      • since you increase the number of repeats through pregnancy, it is possible for kids to show symptoms BEFORE parent (if they have more expansions)
  • Juvineille Onset HD: 5% of affected patients
    • 80% = PATERNAL inheritance
    • much more repeats than normal HD inherited
  1. Fragile X
  • X-linked disorder (more severe in MALES) due to amplificaiton of unstable trinucleotide CGG repeat
    • increase the number of repeats = decreased age of onset
  • Diagnostic testing:
    • for syndrome (fragile X)
    • for FXTAS (Fragile X-Associated Tremor)
    • For premature ovarian failure
  • Premutation of FMR1 gene = FXTAS
    • Full mutation of FMR1 gene = NO FMR1 protein made, thus fragile X syndromatic phenotype
52
Q

What are the characteristics of AD inheritance?

A
  • Phenotype appears in EVERY generation and every affected individual has an affect parent (VERTICAL TRANSMISSION);
    • exceptions:
      • De Novo mutations: mutation what was NOT inherited (first in family to have conditions
      • Incomplete penetrance = have gene but DO NOT SHOW ANY SYMPTOMS
      • Variably Expressivity = even though inherit gene, not everyone shows the same symptoms/features;
        • may have milder ones causing mislabeling
  • Phenotypically NORMAL parents DO NOT transmit the condition to their offspring
    • EXCEPTIONS:
        1. gonadal mosaicism: mutation is in the reproductive cell of one parent, but rest of their cells are without the mutation (so they appear normal, but then they can transmit the disease)
        1. Incomplete Penetrance: parent has the gene but it is not being expressed in any way
        1. late age of onset of disease: parent hasnt reached age of onset yet
  • Male and Female are equally affected
  • Male –> Male transmission
    • distinguishes it from X-linked
      *
53
Q

What is a pure dominant vs. incomplete dominant?

A

pure = homozygous affected has same clinical picture as heterzygote

Incomplete = homozygous affected = more severe form than heterozygote

54
Q
A
55
Q
A