Genetics- General Principles Flashcards

1
Q

Neurological comorbidities of Down Syndrome

A
  • Intellectual disability

- Early onset Alzheimer Disease

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2
Q

Cardiac comorbidities of Down Syndrome

A
  • Complete Atrioventricular Septal Defect
  • VSD
  • ASD
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3
Q

GI comorbidities of Down Syndrome?

A
  • Duodenal Atresia (Double-bubble sign): occurs when a portion of the duodenum doesn’t form, resulting in blockage that stops food or fluid from leaving the baby’s stomach
  • Hirschsprung Disease (Congenital Megacolon): Absences of ganglion cells in a segment of the bowel causing decreased peristalsis which results in loss of ability to move stool through the intestine.
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4
Q

Endocrine comorbidities of Down Syndrome?

A
  • Hypothyroidism (High TSH, Low T4)
  • Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (Autoimmune reaction that destroys beta-cells in pancreas therefore causing decreased insulin production)
  • Obesity
  • Short Stature
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5
Q

Oncologist comorbidities of Down Syndrome?

A

Acute Leukemia

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6
Q

Orthopedic comorbidities of Down Syndrome?

A

Atlantoaxial instability: Excessive movement at the junction between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) as a result of bony of ligamentous abnormality

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7
Q

Disease characterized by 45, XO

A

Turner’s Syndrome
(Remember they have Streak ovaries)

-Increased risk of Ovarian germ cell tumors

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8
Q

Disease characterized by 47, XXY

A
Klinefelter Syndrome
(Tall, gynecomastia, small and firm testes, small penis, sparse pubic hair, abnormal body proportions like long legs and short trunk)

-Increased risk of extragonadal germ cell tumors

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9
Q

Homodimeric calcium-binding protein that is a marker for:

  • Neural crest derivation (melanocytes and Schwann cells)
  • Langerhans cells
  • Dendritic cells
A

S-100

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10
Q

X-linked disorder characterized by easy bruising and excessive bleeding due to a deficiency in coagulation factor VIII

A

Hemophilia A

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11
Q

Location and function of enhancers?

A

Location: May be located upstream, downstream, or within introns of the gene

Function: Increase rate of transcription

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12
Q

Location and function of Silencers?

A

Location: May be located upstream, downstream, or within introns of the gene

Function: Decrease rate of transcription by binding repressor proteins

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13
Q

Location and function of the promoter region?

A

Location: 25 or 75 bases upstream from their associated genes

Function: Initiate transcription

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14
Q

Ribosome synthesis occurs primarily in what cell structure?

A

Nucleolus

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15
Q

Enzyme that repairs single-strand breaks in duplex DNA during DNA replication and repair?

A

DNA ligase

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16
Q

Enzyme that unwinds DNA at the replication fork

A

Helicase

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17
Q

Nuclear transcription factors that directly bind DNA via a leucine zipper motif

A

c-Jun and c-Fos

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18
Q

Percentage of expression in offspring for Autosomal dominant conditions when 1 parent is affected?

A

50%

  • Huntington Disease
  • Marfan Syndrome
  • MEN
  • Neurofibramatoses
  • Achondroplasia (gain-of-function mutation in FGFR3 gene)
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19
Q

Percentage of expression in offspring of Autosomal Recessive conditions when both parents are carriers?

A

25% chance the child will have disease because of getting 2 alleles

75% chance child will have 1 or more allele (be careful cause questions can ask it this way)

  • Cystic Fibrosis
  • Hemochromatosis
  • Sickle Cell Anemia
  • Classical Galactosemia
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20
Q

Mutation resulting in a single base SUBSTITUTION that results in the placement of an incorrect amino acid in a protein sequence?

A

Missense Mutation

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21
Q

Mutation resulting from DELETION/addition of a number of bases not divisible by 3 in the coding region of a gene. This dramatically changes the protein structure and often results in the formation of a stop codon.

A

Frameshift Mutation

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22
Q

Mutation that introduces a premature stop codon in a coding region, resulting in the production of a truncated protein?

A

Non-sense Mutation

23
Q

Mutation resulting from a single base substitution that does not change the amino acid. Has no effect on protein formation or function.

A

Silent Mutation

24
Q

Important Mitochondrial Inherited Diseases?

A
  1. Leber Hereditary Optic Neuropathy: leads to bilateral vision loss
  2. Myoclonic Epilepsy: myoclonic seizures and myopathy associated with exercise. Skeletal muscle biopsy shows irregularly shaped muscle fibers (ragged red fibers)
  3. Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy: Presents with lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes (MELAS)
25
Cause for variability in clinical presentation in mitochondrial diseases?
Heteroplasmy: the presence of different mitochondrial genomes (eg, mutated and wild type) within a single cell.
26
3 possible inheritance patterns of Down Syndrome?
1. Meiotic Nondisjunction (most common, 95%): extra comply of Ch. 21 present in every cell) 2. Unbalanced Translocation: All or part of additional ch. 21 attached to another chromosome 3. Mosaicism: Some (not all) cells have an extra copy of ch. 21, nondisjunction even early in embryonic life
27
Promotor region that binds transcription factors and RNA Polymerase II during the initiation of transcription and is located approximately 25 bases upstream from the beginning of the coding region?
TATA box
28
Responsible for unwinding of Double Helix?
Helicase
29
Responsible for removal of supercoils?
Topoisomerase II (DNA Gyrase)
30
Responsible for stabilization of unwound template strands?
Single-stranded DNA-binding protein
31
Responsible for synthesis of RNA primer?
Primase (RNA polymerase)
32
Responsible for 5’ to 3’ DNA synthesis & 3’ to 5’ exonuclease (“proofreading”) activity?
DNA polymerase III
33
Same functions of DNA polymerase III but with the additional function of removing RNA primer (5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity) and replacing it with DNA?
DNA polymerase I
34
Responsible for the joining of Okazaki fragments (lagging strand)
DNA ligase
35
Xeroderma pigmentosum, a rare autosomal recessive disorder occurs due to what defect?
Defective nucleotide excision repair of DNA damaged by UV light.
36
Probability that a sibling would be an identical HLA (human leukocyte antigen) match?
25%
37
What is it called when there are multiple phenotypic manifestations (often in different organ systems or tissues) resulting from a single genetic mutation?
Pleiotropy
38
5 step sequence of nucleotide excision repair?
1. Glycosylase: Remove defective base 2. Endonuclease: cleaves 5’ end of the corresponding empty sugar-phosphate 3. Lyase: cleaves the 3’ end of the corresponding empty sugar-phosphate 4. DNA polymerase: replaces the missing nucleotide 5. Ligase: seals the final remaining nick
39
Condensed chromatin composed of heavily methylated DNA in tight association with deacetylated histones (which cause it to have a low level of transcriptional activity)?
Heterochromatin *In contrast, Euchromatin is loosely arranged and exhibits a high level of transcriptional activity with acetylated histones
40
Steps of Post-translational modification (mRNA processing to become mature mRNA)? Note: Mature mRNA refers to mRNA that has been processed and is ready for nuclear export and translation into protein
1. 5’ capping: A 7-methyl-guanosine cap is added to 5’ end of the mRNA 2. Poly-A tail: added at the 3’ end 3. Splicing: Removal of introns by spliceosomes (This whole process occurs within the nucleus)
41
Nomal splicing code of introns?
Splice Donor Site: GU at the 5’ splice site Splice Acceptor Site: AG at the 3’ splice site Alterations in these code will affect splicing locations
42
What are the 3 stop codons?
UAA UGA UAG
43
Xeroderma Pigmentosum (Autosomal Recessive) is characterized by defective nucleotide excision repair often caused by deficiency in?
UV-specific endonuclease Affected children usually have severe photosensitivity, hyperpigmentation in sun-exposed areas, and a greatly increased risk for skin cancer.
44
Nucleosides are composed of DNA wrapped around a core of 8 histone proteins. Which histone is located outside of the histone core and helps package nuclosomes into more compact structures?
H1 Histone
45
What is the universal start codon and what does it code for?
- AUG | - Codes for methionine
46
What factor recognizes stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) and terminates protein synthesis?
Releasing factor
47
How is genomic imprinting caused?
It is caused by DNA methylation, an epigenetic process in which genes can be silenced by attaching methyl groups to cytosine residues in the DNA molecule.
48
Phenomenon in which the allele of one gene affects the phenotypic expression of alleles in another gene?
Epistasis
49
Phenomenon in which a single gene influences multiple phenotypic traits?
Pleiotropy
50
Ribonucleoprotein that is a reverse transcriptase which adds TTAGGG repeats to the 3’ end of chromosomes?
Telomerase Stem cells have long telomeres due to high telomerase activity
51
What genes encode DNA-binding transcription factors that play an important role in the segmental organization of the embryo along the cranio-caudal axis?
Homeobox genes (Hox gene) * Usually about 180 nucleotides in length * These genes typically code for transcription factors
52
Disease presenting with must body odor in toddler, intellectual disability, eczema, gait or posture abnormality?
PKU (Autosomal Recessive)
53
What is formed in DNA as a result of UV light exposure?
Pyrimidine dimers -These are recognized by endonuclease complex that initiates the process of repair by nicking the damaged strand o both sides of the pyrimidine dimmer. The damaged segment is then excised, and replacement DNA is synthesized by DNA polymerase.