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Genetics 2316 > Genetics Exam 1 > Flashcards

Genetics Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

The theory of pangenesis was first proposed by______.

a. Aristotle
b. Galen
c. Mendel
d. Hippocrates
e. none

A

d. Hippocrates

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2
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the blending theory of inheritance?

a. It believed that heriditary traits blended from one generation to the next
b. It was possible for the blending to change the trait from one generation to the next
c. It was supported by early research by Joseph Kolreuter
d. It was the prevailing theory of inheritance prior to Mendel
e. All the answers are correct

A

e. All the answers are correct

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3
Q

Mendel’s work was rediscovered in 1990 by which of the following individual(s)?

a. Carl Correns
b. Erich von Tschemak
c. Hugh de Vries
d. All the answers are correct

A

d. All the answers are correct

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4
Q

The stamen represents the ____ portion of the plant, while the ovules represent the ____ portion of the plant.

a. Female; male
b. Male; female
c. Female; female
d. Male; male

A

b. Male; female

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5
Q

Which of the following traits was not studied by Mendel?

a. flower color
b. seed color
c. pod color
d. pollen color
e. plant height

A

d. pollen color

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6
Q

When studying a genetic cross, the second generation following the initial cross is identified by which of the following?

a. P generation
b. F1 generation
c. F2 generation
d. F3 generation
e. P3 generation

A

c. F2 generation

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7
Q

Mendel’s work with monohybrid crosses provided proof of which of the following?

a. Blending theory of inheritance
b. Particulate theory of inheritance
c. Chromosomal theory of inheritance
d. Pangenesis
e. None of the answers are correct

A

b. Particulate theory of inheritance

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8
Q

Mendel’s work with single-factor crosses resulted in the development of which of the following?

a. Law of segregation
b. Law of independent assortment
c. Theory of natural selection
d. Law of biological evolution
e. All the answers are correct

A

a. Law of segregation

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9
Q

When Mendel crossed two pants that were heterozygous for a single trait, what was the phenotypic ratio of their offspring?

a. 1:2:1
b. 9:3:3:1
c. 3:1
d. 7:4
e. Varied depending on the trait

A

c. 3:1

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10
Q

When Mendel crossed two plants that were heterozygous for a single trait, what was the genotypic ratio of their offspring?

a. 1:2:1
b. 9:3:3:1
c. 3:1
d. 1:1
e. Varied depending on the trait

A

a. 1:2:1

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11
Q

An individual who has two identical alleles for a trait is said to be _____.

a. Homozygous
b. Heterozygous
c. Isozygous
d. A variant

A

a. Homozygous

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12
Q

The genetic composition of an individual is called its ______.

a. Phenotype
b. Genotype
c. Hybrid
d. Dominance
e. None of the answers are correct

A

b. Genotype

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13
Q

In a Punnett square diagram, the outside of the box represents the ______.

a. Diploid offspring
b. Haploid offspring
c. Diploid gametes
d. Haploid gametes

A

d. Haploid gametes

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14
Q

Mendel’s work with two-factor (dihybrid) crosses led directly to which of the following?

a. Chromosomal theory of inheritance
b. Particulate theory of inheritance
c. Law of segregation
d. Law of independent assortment
e. Theory of biological evolution

A

d. Law of independent assortment

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15
Q

In a dihybrid cross using Mendelian inheritance, if both parents are heterozygous for both traits, what will be the phenotypic ratio of their offspring?

a. 3:1
b. 1:2:1
c. 1:1
d. 9:3:3:1

A

d. 9:3:3:1

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16
Q

In a dihybrid testcross, the individual being examined is crossed to which of the following?

a. an individual who is homozygous dominant for one trait but not the other
b. self-fertilized
c. an individual who is homozygous for both traits
d. an individual who is heterozygous for both traits

A

c. an individual who is homozygous recessive for both traits

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17
Q

In humans, patterns of inheritance are often studied using which of the following?

a. dihybrid testcrosses
b. production of true-breeding lines
c. pedigree analysis
d. self-fertilization
e. none of the answers are correct

A

c. pedigree analysis

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18
Q

The chance that a future event will occur is called ____.

a. probability
b. goodness of fit
c. degrees of freedom
d. random selection
e. all answers are correct

A

a. probability

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19
Q

A coin is flipped 100 times, with a result of 53 heads and 47 tails. The deviation between the observed numbers and the expected 50-50 results is called ____.

a. probability
b. degrees of freedom
c. goodness of fit
d. random sampling error
e. standard error

A

d. random sampling error

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20
Q

Which of the following would be used to determine the probability of three independent events in order?

a. sum rule
b. product rule
c. chi-square test
d. binomial expansion
e. random sampling error

A

b. product rule

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21
Q

The probability that one event will occur is based on which of the following?

a. sum rule
b. product rule
c. chi-square test
d. binomial expansion
e. random sampling error

A

a. sum rule

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22
Q

In the biological sciences, the hypothesis is usually rejected if the P value is_____.

a. greater than 1
b. less than 0.30
c. less than 0.95
d. less than 0.05
e. less than i

A

d. less than 0.05

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23
Q

______ is the belief that seeds are produced by all parts of the body and transmitted to the next generation.

a. hippocrates
b. pangenesis
c. blending
d. particulate theory
e. homunculus

A

b. pangenesis

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24
Q

If two individuals with different characteristics are mated, their offspring is called a _____.

a. strain
b. true-breeding line
c. gamete
d. cross
e. hybrid

A

e. hybrid

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25
Q

If over several generations a trait does no vary in a group of organisms, that group can be called a _____.

a. dihybrid
b. hybrid
c. true-breeding line
d. variant
e. cross-fertilized line

A

c. true-breeding line

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26
Q

A cross in which a research investigates the patterns of inheritance of a single trait is called a _____.

a. monohybrid cross
b. dihybrid cross
c. two-factor cross
d. cross-fertilization
e. self-fertilization

A

a. monohybrid cross

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27
Q

In a genetic cross, the ____ represents the offspring with genetic combinations that were not found in the parental lines.

a. P generation
b. non-recombinants
c. parentals
d. non-parentals
e. none of the above

A

d. non-parentals

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28
Q

Statistical analysis determines the _______ between observed data and what was expected from the original hypothesis.

a. testcross
b. degrees of freedom
c. P values
d. complete hypothesis
e. goodness of fit

A

e. goodness of fit

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29
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder that affects lung function in humans. If a couple, who are both unaffected, have an affected chile, what is the probability their next child will be an affected girl?

a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1/8
d. 1/16

A

c. 1/8

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30
Q

The basic unit of heredity is the _____.

a. individual
b. gene
c. macromolecule
d. trait
e. none of the above are correct

A

b. gene

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31
Q

A variation of a gene is called a(n) ____.

a. species
b. morph
c. genome
d. allele
e. proteome

A

d. allele

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32
Q

Which of the following acts to accelerate chemical reactions in a cell?

a. nucleic acids
b. lipids
c. carbohydrates
d. enzymes
e. none of the above are correct

A

d. enzymes

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33
Q

The building blocks of DNA are the _____.

a. amino acids
b. carbohydrates
c. enzymes
d. nucleotides
e. lipids

A

d. nucleotides

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34
Q

The structure of a cell that contains the genetic information is called a _____.

a. nucleotide
b. genetic code
c. chromosome
d. nucleic acids
e. none of the above are correct

A

c. chromosome

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35
Q

RNA is formed by the process of ______.

a. transcription
b. translation
c. both transcription and translation
d. none of the above are correct

A

a. transcription

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36
Q

A characteristic that an organism displays is called____.

a. a gene
b. a chromosome
c. DNA
d. gene expression
e. a trait

A

e. a trait

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37
Q

Variation at the molecular level of a gene is called a(n) _____.

a. nucleotide
b. chromosome
c. allele
d. trait
e. none of the above are correct

A

c. allele

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38
Q

A species that contains two copies of each chromosome is called_____.

a. a genetic mutation
b. a morph
c. haploid
d. diploid
e. alleles

A

d. diploid

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39
Q

A cell that makes up the body structure of an organism and is diploid is ______.

a. a gamete
b. a somatic cell
c. an allele
d. rare
e. a sperm cell

A

b. a somatic cell

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40
Q

In many organisms, one set of chromosomes comes from the maternal parent, while the other set comes from the paternal parent. Similar chromosomes in these sets are said to be ______.

a. morphs
b. alleles
c. haploid
d. homologs
e. physiological traits

A

d. homologs

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41
Q

In humans, gametes are different than other cells of the body in that they are ______.

a. diploid
b. haploid
c. genetic mutations
d. morphs
e. none of the above are correct

A

b. haploid

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42
Q

_______ is the use of gene sequence to synthesize a functional protein.

a. Loss-of-function mutation
b. Gene expression
c. The human genome project
d. Proteonomics
e. None of the above

A

b. Gene expression

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43
Q

The differences in inherited traits among individuals in a population are called _____.

a. species variation
b. genetic mutations
c. genetic variation
d. natural selection
e. none of the above

A

c. genetic variation

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44
Q

Genetics is the branch of the biological sciences that deals with both heredity and variation. True/False

A

True

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45
Q

Science is conducted using a process called the scientific method. True/false

A

true

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46
Q

Gene expression involves the process of transcription and translation. True/False

A

`True

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47
Q

Which of the following began with the work of Gregor Mendel in the 19th century?

a. population genetics
b. trasmission genetics
c. molecular genetics

A

b. trasmission genetics

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48
Q

DNA stores the information needed for the synthesis of cellular _______.

a. proteins
b. carbohydrates
c. lipids

A

a. proteins

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49
Q

Both genes and the ______ influence the traits of an organism.

a. genome
b. environment
c. population

A

b. environment

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50
Q

A nitrogenous base that occurs in RNA but not in DNA.

a. deoxyribose
b. ribose
c. pentose
d. cytosine
e. uracil

A

e. uracil

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51
Q

What does the term antiparallel refer to when describing the double helix of DNA?

a. the 5’ to 3’ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5’ to 3’ direction of the other strand
b. base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands
c. one strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines
d. the twisting nature of DNA creates nonpararllel strands

A

a. the 5’ to 3’ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5’ to 3’ direction of the other strand

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52
Q

Liver cells are different physiologically than muscle cells because liver cells contain genes unique to liver cells that are not in muscle cells. True/False

A

False

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53
Q

Identify direction information flows in a biological system.

a. DNA -> protein -> RNA
b. Prophase -> Telophase
c. DNA -> RNA -> protein
d. ATP -> ADP
e. RNA -> DNA -> protein

A

c. DNA -> RNA -> protein

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54
Q

When a bacterial cell takes up foreign DNA, this process is called _______.

a. trasnduction
b. conjugation
c. transformation
d. morphogenesis
e. restriction

A

c. transformation

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55
Q

Why does the DNA double helix have a uniform diameter?

a. deoxyribose sugars pair with ribose sugars
b. purines pair with pyrimidines
c. nucleotides pair with amino acids
d. phosphates pair with nitgrogenous bases
e. nitrogenous bases are found outside of the double helix

A

b. purines pair with pyrimidines

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56
Q

Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will by thymine?

a. 24
b. 12.
c. 31
d. 38

A

b. 12

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57
Q 
DNA is replicated during this stage of the cell cycle.
a. P
b G0
c. M
d. G2
e. S
A

e. S

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58
Q 
According to Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis, how many genes are necessary for this pathway?
  Enzyme A   Enzyme B
A----------->B----------->C
a. 1
b. 3
c. 0
d. 2
A

d. 2

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59
Q

Humans have how many chromosomes?

a. 92
b. 46
c. 23
d. 32
e. 25

A

b. 46

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60
Q

The primary conformation of a protein refers to:

a. sequence of nucleotides in a gene
b. sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
c. the number of nucleotides in a gene

A

b. sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

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61
Q

Which of the following is an organic compound?

a. CO2
b. H2O
c. HCl
d. CH4

A

d. CH4

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62
Q

Regions outside the nucleus of the atom that are occupied by electrons are termed _____.

a. shells
b. loci
c. realms
d. spheres
e. orbitals

A

a. shells

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63
Q

Which of the following is a carbohydrate?

a. fat
b. glycogen
c. polynucleotide
d. fatty acid
e. phospholipid

A

b. glycogen

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64
Q

Which of the following is a nucleic acid monomer?

a. H+
b. fat
c. nucleotide
d. DNA
e. deoxyribose

A

c. nucleotide

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65
Q

The basic structural and functional unit of life is the:

a. molecule
b. cell
c. organelle
d. atom
e. cytoplasm

A

b. cell

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66
Q

Prokaryotic cells

a. have no cytoplasm
b. have no nucleus
c. have no cell membrane
d. have no DNA
e. have no ribosomes

A

b. have no nucleus

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67
Q

The nuclear division of cell reproduction is called _____.

a. cytokinesis
b. apoptosis
c. mitosis
d. cell cycle
e. plasmolysis

A

c. mitosis

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68
Q

The universal “energy currency” of cells is the molecule called ________.

a. ATP
b. NADH
c. FADH

A

a. ATP

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69
Q

An atom’s atomic mass is the total mass of all its electrons, protons, and neutrons. True/false

A

False

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70
Q

You have some limp carrots. To make them crisp again, which would you soak them in

a. strong salt solution
b. pure water

A

b. pure water

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71
Q

How many chromosomes are in the final cells that are produced in humans during meiosis?

a. 46
b. 92
c. 10
d. 23

A

d. 23

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72
Q

Okazaki fragments are DNA fragments found during:

a. translation
b. transcription
c. DNA replication

A

c. DNA replication

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73
Q

How many replication forks are associated with a replication bubble?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

b. 2

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74
Q

an alternative form of a specific gene

A

allele

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75
Q

a building block of polypeptides and proteins; it contains an amino group, a carboxyl group and a side chain

A

amino acid

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76
Q

the accumulation of genetic changes in a species or population over the course of many generations

A

biological evolution

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77
Q

organic molecules with the general formula C(H2O); an example of a simple carbohydrate is the sugar glucose

A

carbohydrate

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78
Q

Human Genome Project

A

launched in 1990
3 billion base pairs
accuracy > 99.99%

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79
Q

evolution and development; all animals develop same

A

evodevo

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80
Q

formation of embryo

A

embryogenesis

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81
Q

which genes are expressed

A

differentiation

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82
Q

artificial life

A

synthetic life

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83
Q

codes for proteins that we can’t live without

A

essential genes

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84
Q

DNA fingerprinting

A

a technology for identifying a particular individual based on the properties of their DNA

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85
Q

Mammalian cloning

A

experimentally, this refers to the use of somatic cell nuclei and enudeated eggs to create a clone of a mammal

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86
Q

Recombinant DNA

A

describes DNA molecules that are produced by molecular techniques in which segments of DNA are joined to each other in ways that differ from their original arrangement in their native chromosomal sites

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87
Q

Gene cloning

A

the production of many copies of a gene using molecular methods such as PCR or the introduction of a gene into a vector that replicates in a host cell

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88
Q

Gene therapy

A

the introduction of cloned genes into living cells in an attempt to cure or alleviate disease

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89
Q

Gene programming

A

a model of programming which uses the ideas of biological evolution to handle a complex problem

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90
Q

Genetics

A

study of heredity and variation

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91
Q

Gene

A

unit of heredity

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92
Q

Macromolecules

A

Nucleic acids, proteins, carbohydrates, lipids (fats)

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93
Q

Polymers

A

made from smaller molecules that are called monomers

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94
Q

Purines

A

A, G

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95
Q

Centromere

A

holds the 2 DNA molecules together

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96
Q

DNA backbone

A

made up of sugar-phosphate

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97
Q

“workhorses” of cells

A

proteins

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98
Q

Tubulin/microtubules

A

cell shape and movement

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99
Q

Metabolism

A

the totality of an organism’s chemical reactions; consisting of catabolic/anabolic pathways which manage the material and energy resources of the organism

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100
Q

Myosin

A

muscle contraction

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101
Q

Insulin

A

regulate blood glucose

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102
Q

Enzymes

A

biological catalysts

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103
Q

Delta G

A

change in free energy

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104
Q

Catabolic enzymes

A

breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones; exergonic

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105
Q

Exergonic

A

releases energy -

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106
Q

Endergonic

A

takes in energy +

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107
Q

Anabolic enzymes

A

involved in synthesis of large molecules from smaller ones; endergonic

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108
Q

Genetic material

A

DNA

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109
Q

makes up chromosomes

A

DNA

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110
Q

specific regions of DNA that specify synthesis of proteins

A

genes

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111
Q

DNA found in?

A

primarily in nucleus of cell

  • mitochondria of eukaryotes
  • chloroplasts of prokaryotes
112
Q

Interprets and carries out instruction for DNA

A

RNA

113
Q

Human cells

A

2N= 46 chromosomes

114
Q

human chromosome contains

A

more than a 100 million nucleotides and 1000-2000 genes

115
Q

Gene expression

A

occurs in two steps: transcription and translation

116
Q

Transcription

A

genetic information in DNA copied into a nucleotide sequence of RNA

117
Q

Translation

A

nucleotide sequence in RNA converted into amino acid sequence of a protein

118
Q

RNA polymerase

A

an enzyme that synthesizes a strand of RNA using a DNA strand as a template

119
Q

characteristic an organism displays

A

trait

120
Q

appearance of organism (color of a flower)

A

morphological traits

121
Q

function of organism (ability to metabolize sugar)

A

physiological traits

122
Q

the observable traits of an organism

A

phenotype

123
Q

the genetic composition of an individual especially in terms of the alleles for particular genes

A

genotype

124
Q

Molecular level

A

genes expressed

125
Q

Cellular level

A

proteins function

126
Q

Organismal level

A

traits observed

127
Q

Populational level

A

genes/traits within a particular species

128
Q

Microevolution

A

change in gene and allele function in a population

129
Q

differences in inherited traits among individuals within a population

A

gene variation

130
Q

contrasting forms within a single species

A

morphs

131
Q

Genetic variation result of various types of changes at molecular level

A
  1. gene mutations
  2. changes in chromosome structure
  3. changes in chromosome number
132
Q

who provided foundation for science of genetics

A

Gregor Mendel

133
Q

sexually reproducing species are haploid or diploid?

A

diploid

134
Q

two copies of each chromosome, one from each parent

A

homologues

135
Q

What is the relationship between an allele and a gene?

A

genes are a sequence of DNA. chromosomes are the structure DNA takes in a cell each cell have 2 version of each gene, and these versions are called alleles

136
Q

What is the advantage of sexual reproduction?

A

genetic variation

137
Q

What cells are diploid?

A

somatic cells

138
Q

What cells are haploid?

A

gametes

139
Q

somatic cells in humans

A

46 chromosomes, 23 chromosome pairs

140
Q

Gametes

A

sperm and egg cells

141
Q

genetic makeup of a population can change over time

A

evolution

142
Q

members of a species compete for essential resources

A

natural selection (Darwin)

143
Q

neutral mutations

A

unrelated to survival; genotypic change, not phenotypic change

144
Q

Transmission genetics

A

study how traits passed from one generation to the next; oldest field of genetics

145
Q

Mendel’s particles of inheritance

A

gene

146
Q

Molecular genetics

A

study of the gene itself (organization, function, regulated)

147
Q

Population genetics

A

study of genetic variation and its role in evolution; genetic composition of populations and how it changes over time

148
Q

first to conceive idea of heredity

A

Hippocrates

149
Q

“seeds” produced by all parts of the body

A

pangenesis

150
Q

Theory of preformationism

A

entire organism contained fully developed in one of the sex cells

151
Q

mini human

A

homunculus

152
Q

Blending theory of inheritance

A

traits blend together generation after generation; Mendel’s ideas and conclusions replaced this

153
Q

Particulate theory of heredity

A

parents transmit to their offspring discrete inheritable factors

154
Q

Wilhelm Johannsen

A

genotype/phenotype

155
Q

detectable inheritable feature of an organism

A

character

156
Q

variant of an inheritable character

A

trait

157
Q

always producing offspring with same traits as parents when self fertilized

A

true breeding

158
Q

mating or crossing between two individuals that have different characteristics

A

hybridization

159
Q

two identical alleles for a given trait PP or pp

A

homozygous

160
Q

two non identical alleles for a given trait Pp

A

heterozygous

161
Q

crossed two variants that differ in only one trait

A

monohybrid cross

162
Q

true-breeding parental plants of a cross

A

P generation

163
Q

hybrid offspring of P generation

A

F1 generation

164
Q

progency of cross of F1 generation

A

F2 generation

165
Q

filial

A

F

166
Q

Mendels principles of heredity

A
  1. law of segregation
  2. law of independent assortment
  3. law of dominance
167
Q

sorting of alleles into separate gametes

A

law of segregation

168
Q

genes sort independently

A

law of independent assortment

169
Q

a cross in which an experimenter crosses an individual that is heterozygous recessive for two genes to an individual that is homozygous recessive for the same two genes

A

dihybrid cross

170
Q

abnormally high extracellular levels of Cl-

A

defective ion channels

171
Q

lethal dominant alleles

A

less common than lethal recessives

172
Q

laws of inheritance

A

used to predict outcomes of genetic crosses

173
Q

chance that an event will occur in the future

A

probability

174
Q

predict odds two or more independent events will occur

A

product rule

175
Q

probability an event can occur in two or more independent ways

A

sum rule

176
Q

used to determine probability of a particular outcome with specific characteristics

A

binomial expansion equation

177
Q

how close observed data are to predicted values from a hypothesis

A

goodness of fit

178
Q

low chi square values

A

indicate high probability H0 accepted

179
Q

high chi square values

A

indicate low probability H0 not accepted

180
Q

measure of the number of categories that independent of each other n-1

A

degrees of freedom (df)

181
Q

provide an organized structure

A

proteins

182
Q

prokaryotes

A

bacteria; no nucleus; nucleoid; cell membrane; ribosomes; rigid cell wall; outer membrane; flagella

183
Q

eukaryotes

A

everyone else; true nucleus; membrane-bound organelles; mitochondria; lysosomes; golgi apparatus

184
Q

Mitochondria

A

ATP synthesis; DNA

185
Q

Lysosomes

A

intracellular digestion

186
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

protein modification/ trafficking

187
Q

microscopic examination of chromosomes

A

cytogenetics

188
Q

activate signal transduction pathways

A

mitogens

189
Q

Karyotype

A

photographic representation of chromosomes

190
Q

multicellular organism derived from single cell; zygote

A

multicellularity

191
Q

Binary fission

A

how prokaryotes reproduce; asexually

192
Q

Mitosis

A

cell division in eukaryotes

193
Q

Cell cycle

A

eukaryotic cells that divide progress through series of stages

194
Q

Interphase

A

G1, S, G2; chromosomes decondensed; at end, chromosomes have replicated but the six pairs of sister chromatids are not seen until propahse; centrosome divides

195
Q

G0 phase

A

postponed making a decision to divide; or made the decision to never divide again

196
Q

G1 phase

A

cell prepares to divide; reaches restriction point

197
Q

Restriction point

A

committed on a pathway to cell division

198
Q

S phase

A

chromosomes replicated; presence of sister chromatids; end of this phase results as twice as many chromatids as there are chromosomes in G1 phase

199
Q

G2 phase

A

cell makes final preparation for nuclear and cell division

200
Q

M phase

A

mitosis; distribute replicated chromosomes to daughter cells

201
Q

Mitosis

A 
Prophase
Prometaphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
202
Q

Prophase

A

Mitotic spindle apparatus formed and nuclear envelope dissociates into smaller vesicles

203
Q

Aster microtubules

A
  • star like
  • important for positioning of spindle apparatus
  • anchor, holds them in place
204
Q

Polar microtubules

A
  • help to push poles away from each other

- elongate

205
Q

Kinetochore microtubules

A

attach to kinetochore which is bound to the centromere of each individual chromosome

206
Q

Prometaphase

A

spindle factors interact with sister chromatids

207
Q

Metaphase

A
  • middle
  • pair of sister chromatids align themselves along a plane= metaphase plate
  • each pair of chromatids attached to both poles by kinetochore microtubules
208
Q

Anaphase

A
  • apart
  • connection holding sister chromatids together is weakened
  • chromosomes move to opposite poles
209
Q

Telophase

A
  • reverse prophase

- chromosomes reach respective poles and decondense

210
Q

Cytokinesis

A

formation of cleavage furrow in animals

formation of cell plate in plants

211
Q

Isogamous

A

gametes morphologically similar; fungi and algae

212
Q

Heterogamous

A

gametes morphologically different; sperm cells, egg cells

213
Q

process of crossing over

A

synapsis

214
Q

prophase I divided into 5 periods

A 
leptotena
zygotena (pairing of non sister homologous chromatids)
pachytena (crossing-over occurs; chisma)
diplotena
diakensis
crossing over occurs
215
Q

for a diploid organism with 6 chromosomes

A
  • mitosis begins with 12 chromatids joined as 6 pairs of sister chromatids
  • meiosis II begins with 6 chromatids joined as 3 pairs of sister chromatids
216
Q

Mitosis vs. Meiosis

A

-mitosis produces 2 diploid daughter cells

meiosis produces 4 haploid daughter cells

217
Q

production of sperm

A

spermatogensis

218
Q

acrosome in head of sperm

A

contains digestive enzymes

219
Q

production of eggs

A

oogenesis

220
Q

asymmetric

A

two haploid cells of unequal sized (secondary oocyte and polar body)

221
Q

gametophyte

A

haploid

222
Q

sporophyte

A

diploid

223
Q

spores

A

haploid cells produced during meiosis

224
Q

Anthers

A

produce male gametophyte

225
Q

Ovaries

A

produce female gametophyte

226
Q

how transmission of chromosomes account for Mendelian patterns of inheritance, proposed by walter sutton and theodore boveri

A

chromosome theory of inheritance

227
Q

idiplasm

A

stuff in nucleus; carl nageli’s term

228
Q

germ plasm

A

DNA; august wesrnan’s term

229
Q

heterogametic

A

males; two different germ cells

230
Q

homogametic

A

female; one germ cell

231
Q

sex chromosomes in birds Z and W

A

males are homogametic and females are heterogametic

232
Q

sex chromosomes in bees

A 
males= drones; haploid; from unfertilized eggs
females= worker/queen; diploid; from fertilized eggs
233
Q

Thomas Hunt Morgan

A

induced mutations of fruit fly

234
Q

genes physically located on X chromosome

A

X-linked genes or X-linked alleles

235
Q

reciprocal cross

A

crosses between different strains in which sexes reversed; reveal if a trait is carried on a sex chromosome or autosome

236
Q

genes found on Y chromosome

A

holandric genes

237
Q

males have only one copy of X chromosome

A

hemizygous for X-linked gene

238
Q

`genes found on one of the two types of sex chromosomes

A

sex-linked or X-linked

239
Q

simple Mendelian inheritance

A

single gene with two alleles

240
Q

prevalent alleles in a population

A

wild type

241
Q

altered alleles

A

mutant alleles

242
Q

simple dominant/ recessive relationship

A

recessive allele does not affect phenotype of heterozygote

243
Q

How can wild-type phenotype of heterozygote be explained?

A
  • 50% of normal protein is enough to accomplish the protein’s cellular function
  • Heterozygote produces ore than 50% functional protein
244
Q

absolutely required for survival

A

essential genes

245
Q

absence of protein

A

lethal phenotype

246
Q

not absolutely required for survival

A

nonessential genes

247
Q

has potential to cause death; Huntington disease

A

lethal alleles

248
Q

lethal under certain environmental conditions; Ts lethals

A

conditional lethal alleles

249
Q

X-linked recessively inherited disease

A

Favism

250
Q

kill some individuals in a population but not all

A

semilethal alleles

251
Q

heterozygote phenotype intermediate between both homozygotes

A

incomplete dominance

252
Q

coat color in rabbits and ABO blood groups is an example of this

A

multiple allele system

253
Q

antigen

A

surface of RBC

anything that stimulates Ab (antibody) production

254
Q

i allele

A

encodes defective enzyme; antigen O

255
Q

IA allele

A

antigen A

256
Q

IB allele

A

antigen B

257
Q

IA and IB

A

codominant; expressed in heterozygous

258
Q

What would happen if type O receives blood from type A, type B, or type AB blood?

A

Ab is universal recipient; O is universal donor; RBC’s agglutinate (clump together)

259
Q

Dominant and recessive relationship

A

depends on amount of functional protein

260
Q

Simple dominant/recessive

A

50% of protein sufficient for expression of dominant phenotype

261
Q

Incomplete dominance

A

50% of protein not sufficient

262
Q

heterozygote more vigorous than both homozygotes; heterozygote advantage; sickle-cell anemia, Pku, tay-sachs disease, cystic fibrosis

A

over dominance

263
Q

3 possible explanations for overdominance at molecular/cellular level

A
  1. disease resistance
  2. homodimer formation
  3. variation in functional activity
264
Q

homodimers

A

composed of two different subunits and encoded by two alleles of same gene

265
Q

heterosis

A

many genes, beneficial effects may be attributed to overdominance in one or more heterozygous genes

266
Q

dominant allele may not be expressed in heterozygote individual; polydactyl

A

incomplete penetrance

267
Q

degree to which a trait expressed

A

expressivitiy

268
Q

effects of environment on variation on phenotype

A

norm of reaction

269
Q

allele dominant in one sex but recessive in other sex; pattern baldness in humans

A

Sex-influenced traits

270
Q

traits occur in only one sex; beard growth, breast development

A

Sex-limited traits

271
Q

multiple effects cause by single gene/ defect in CFTR transporter

A

pleiotropy

272
Q

one allele masks phenotypic effects of alleles of different gene

A

epistasis

273
Q

both parents express same recessive phenotype and offspring expresses wild type phenotype

A

complementation

274
Q

allele of one gene modifies phenotype of alleles of second gene

A

modifying gene

275
Q

loss of function of one gene has no effect
loss of function of two genes has effect
both genes redundant

A

gene redundancy

276
Q

phenotypic effects of mutation reversed by suppressor mutation of another gene

A

intergenic supressors

277
Q

second mutation reverses phenotypic effect of first mutation

A

suppresor mutation

Genetics 2316 (1 decks)

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