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SUSOM Sem II > Genetics Block I > Flashcards

Genetics Block I Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of bone developmental processes?

A
  1. Intramembranous ossification - via mesenchyme w/ pre-existing membrane
  2. Intracartilagenous ossification via mesenchyme forming a cartilaginous model
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2
Q

Which type of bone developmental processes do long bones undergo?

A

Intracartilagenous ossification

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3
Q

Which type of bone developmental processes does flat bones of skull, mandible, and clavicle undergo?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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4
Q

Skeleton of the face is derived from the neurocranium or viscerocranium?

A

Viscerocranium

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5
Q

The protective case around the brain is derived from the neurocranium or viscerocranium?

A

Neurocranium

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6
Q

The roof of the neurocranium is formed by which type of bone ossification? (intramembranous or intracartilagenous)

A

Made up of flat bones = Intramembranous

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7
Q

The base of the neurocranium (sphenoid, ethmoid, petrous, mastoid, and basilar part of occipital bone) is formed by which type of bone ossification?

A

Intracartilagenous/endochondral ossification

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8
Q

The membranous neurocranium (roof/vault) is derived from which embryological structure? (2)

A
  1. Neural crest cells

2. Paraxial mesoderm

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9
Q

Prechordal chondrocranium consists of the ethmoid and sphenoid bone, where do these structures arise from?

A

Neural crest cells

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10
Q

Chordal chondrocranium consists of structures that are posterior to the pituitary fossa (petrous bone, base of occipital bone, etc.), where do these structures arise from?

A

Paraxial mesoderm

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11
Q

The viscerocranium is derived from which embryological structure?

A

Neural crest cells

Viscerocranium formed mainly via 1st & 2nd pharyngeal arches

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12
Q

Craniosynostosis

A

Premature closure of sutures

Scaphocephaly - premature of sagittal
Brachycephaly - coronal
Plagiocephaly - coronal closure on one side only

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13
Q

Achondroplasia primarily affects long bones, what type of bone ossification do they undergo?

This is the same for ALL types of skeletal dysplasia (Thanatoporic dysplasia, Hypochondroplasia, Cleidocranial dystosis)

A

Intracartilagenous ossification

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14
Q

Cause of hemivertebra

A

Mesenchymal cells from one sclerotome fail to migrate

Absence of 1/2 of vertebra = scoliosis

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15
Q

Origin of vertebral arches? Vertebral column and ribs?

A

Sclerotome via paraxial mesoderm

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16
Q

Spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis are development processes associated with vertebral arches and the vertebral bodies, where are these derived from?

A

Sclerotome via paraxial mesoderm

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17
Q

Bony portion of ribs are derived from where?

A

Sclerotome of the paraxial mesoderm

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18
Q

Costal cartilages of the ribs are derived from where?

A

Sclerotome cells that migrate across the lateral somatic frontier into the lateral plate mesoderm

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19
Q

Derivation of the sternum?

A

Parietal layer of the lateral plate mesoderm of the paraxial mesoderm

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20
Q

Pectus excavatum is when the sternum is sunken posteriorly, where is the sternum derived from?

A

Parietal layer of the lateral plate mesoderm of the paraxial mesoderm

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21
Q

Which mesoderm layer is skeletal muscle derived from

A

Paraxial mesoderm

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22
Q

Which mesoderm layer is smooth muscle derived from

A

Splanchnic mesoderm surrounding the gut tube

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23
Q

Which mesodermal layer is cardiac muscle derived from

A

Splanchnic mesoderm surrounding the heart tube

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24
Q

Somitomeres 1,2,3,5 of the mesoderm give rise to what structures?

A

Muscles of the eyeball

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25
Q 
Somitomere 4
Somitomere 6
Somitomere 7
Somites 1,2
Somites 2-5
A 
4 - muscles of mastication
6 - muscles of facial expression
7 - stylopharyngeus
1,2 - intrinsic laryngeals
2-5 - tongue
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26
Q

Extensor muscles of the vertebral column are derived from which layer of the myotome?

A

Epimere of the myotome

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27
Q

Anterolateral muscles of the body wall and limbs are derived from which layer of the myotome?

A

Hypomere of the myotome

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28
Q

Poland syndrome is an absence of the pectoral is minor and partial loss of pectoral is major, what are these muscles origins?

A

Skeletal muscle = Paraxial mesoderm of the myotome

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29
Q

Each limb bud contains 3 components, what are they? (ZAS)

A

Z - Zeugopod –> radius/ulna, tibia/fibula
A - Autopod –> carpals, metacarpals, digits/tarsals, digits/metatarsals
S - Stylopod –> humerus and femur

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30
Q

Of the limb mesenchyme, where is the musculature derived from?

A

Hypomere part of the somite

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31
Q

Of the limb mesenchyme, where is the skeleton, blood vessels, and CT derived from?

A

Parietal layer of lateral plate mesoderm

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32
Q

What type of bone ossification occurs for the clavicle?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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33
Q

The skeleton of the upper and lower limbs develop via what bone ossification?

A

Intracartilagenous ossification via lateral plate mesoderm

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34
Q

The earliest arterial supply of the upper limb bud is the ____ and ____

A

Axis artery and terminal plexus

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35
Q

The axis artery gives rise to which upper limb arteries?

A

First to branch = posterior interosseous, median artery
Last to branch = radial and ulnar arteries

Axis artery persist as the axillary, brachial, anterior interosseous, and deep palmar arch arteries

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36
Q

Which UL arteries persist from the axis artery? (4) DAAB on em

A

Radial artery anastomoses with terminal plexus forming:

  1. Deep palmar arch
  2. Axillary
  3. Anterior interosseus
  4. Brachial
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37
Q

For LL vasculature, what arteries persist from axis artery? (4) DIPS

A
  1. Distal part of peroneal a.
  2. Inferior gluteal artery
  3. Proximal part of popliteal
  4. Sciatic artery
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38
Q

Where does the femoral a. arise from in LL vasculature?

A

External iliac; femoral a. gives rise to profound femoris a.

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39
Q

What initially branches from the axis artery in the LL vasculature?

A

Anterior and posterior tibial a.

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40
Q

What are the 3 derivatives of the dermis?

A
  1. Neural crest cells - dermis in face and neck
  2. Paraxial mesoderm - dermis in the back
  3. Lateral plate mesoderm - dermis for limbs and body wall
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41
Q

Hair is derived from where?

A

Ectoderm

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42
Q

Origin of mammary glands?

A

Epidermis of the ectoderm

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43
Q

Derivation of the epithelial lining and glands of mucosa of the GI tract?

A

Endoderm; while the remaining is via visceral/splanchnic part of lateral plate mesoderm

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44
Q

What are the three divisions of the primitive gut tube?

A
  1. Foregut
  2. Midgut
  3. Hindgut
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45
Q

The ventral mesentery is divided into two parts by the ____ which are ___ and ____

A

Liver

  1. Lesser omentum –> extends from lower esophagus, stomach and upper duodenum to liver
  2. Falciform ligament –> to ventral body wall
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46
Q

Foregut derivatives? (6)

A
  1. Esophagus
  2. Gall bladder
  3. Liver
  4. Pancreas
  5. Stomach
  6. Upper duodenum
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47
Q

In what rotation does the stomach move?

A

90 degrees clockwise along the longitudinal axis

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48
Q

Liver buds appear as an outgrowth of _______ epithelium at distal end of ______. This also gives rise to what?

A

endodermal; foregut

Parenchyma of liver and bile capillaries

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49
Q

Where does the pancreas develop from?

A

Endoderm of the foregut tube (duodenum) (both endocrine and exocrine)

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50
Q

What are the two pancreatic buds, what do they consist of and where are they located?

A
  1. Dorsal - upper part of head, neck, body, tail - dorsal mesentery
  2. Ventral - uncinate process, lower part of head - ventral mesentery close to bile duct
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51
Q

The main pancreatic duct of Wirsung is derived from which pancreatic structure?

A

Distal part of dorsal pancreatic duct and the entire ventral pancreatic duct

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52
Q

The accessory pancreatic duct of Santorini is derived from which pancreatic structures?

A

Proximal part of dorsal pancreatic duct

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53
Q

Midgut derivatives

A
  1. Lower duodenum
  2. Jejunum, ileum
  3. Cecum
  4. Vermiform appendix
  5. Ascending color
  6. Proximal 2/3 transverse colon
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54
Q

The primary intestinal loop is divided into what two parts containing what organs?

A
  1. Cephalic/Cranial limb - distal duodenum, jejunum, & upper part of ileum
  2. Caudal limb - lower ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending and proximal 2/3 transverse colon
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55
Q

Which organ of the midgut is the first to retract into the abdominal cavity?

A

Jejunum

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56
Q

During intestinal looping, which organs lose their mesenteries (pressed against peritoneum of posterior ab wall)? (retroperitoneal)

A
  1. Ascending and descending colon
  2. duodenum
  3. pancreas
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57
Q

During intestinal looping, which organs retain their free mesenteries?

A
  1. Appendix

2. Sigmoid colon

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58
Q

Hindgut derivatives (6)

A
  1. Distal 3rd t. colon
  2. Descending colon
  3. Sigmoid colon
  4. Rectum
  5. Upper anal canal
  6. Internal lining of urinary bladder and urethra
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59
Q

Derivative of superior 2/3 and inferior 1/3 of anal canal?

A
  1. Superior - endodermal cloaca

2. Inferior - ectodermal pit

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60
Q

Abnormal process in megacolon (Hirschsprung’s disease)?

A

Abnormal migration of neural crest cells

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61
Q

From which mesodermal origin does the urogenital system arise from?

A

Intermediate mesoderm

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62
Q

Which part of the kidney forms the permanent kidney?
Pronephros
Mesonephros
Metanephros

A

Metanephros

Mesonephros functions for a brief period

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63
Q

What structure persists in males to form efferent ductules of testis?

A

Mesonephric/Wolffian tubules/duct which open into urogenital sinus (cloaca)

-degenerates in females

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64
Q

The ureteric bud comes from what kidney structure?

A

Lower end of mesonephric duct which eventually forms the primitive renal pelvis

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65
Q

Describe the formation of the renal pyramids

A

Renal pelvis via uteric bud (mesonephric duct) splits into 2-3 major calyces

Which divide and form minor calyces and collecting tubules which converge on minor calyx forming renal pyramid

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66
Q

List the 4 derivatives of the ureteric bud

A

Via mesonephros

  1. Ureter
  2. Renal pelvis
  3. Major and minor calyces
  4. Collecting tubules
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67
Q

List the 4 derivatives of the metanephros

A
  1. DCT
  2. PCT
  3. LOH
  4. Bowman’s capsule
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68
Q

Renal agenesis occurs in oligohydramnios, what structure fails to develop?

A

Ureteric bud via mesonephros

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69
Q

Renal hypoplasia includes small amounts of renal parenchyma which are derived from which kidney part?

A

Metanephros

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70
Q

Polycystic kidney disease contains cysts that are thought to be caused by:

A

Failure of union b/w developing convoluted tubules and collecting tubules which arise from the metanephros

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71
Q

Horseshoe kidney occurs by fusion of lower poles preventing what process?

A

Ascent into the abdominal cavity is prevented due to the root of the inferior mesenteric artery where the inferior poles are attached across

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72
Q

What are the 3 parts of the urogenital sinus and what do they give rise to?

A
  1. Vesical - urinary bladder (continuous with allantois)
  2. Pelvic - prostate, bulbourethral glands & membranous urethra, entire female urethra (paraurethral, urethral glands, vestibular glands)
  3. Phallic (definitive urogenital sinus) - penile urethra and vestibule in females
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73
Q

Mucosa of the trigone is derived from mesoderm and initially lined with mesoderm, but eventually gets replaced with ______

A

Endodermal epithelium

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74
Q

Where is the muscle and CT of the urinary bladder derived from?

A

Splanchnic part of lateral plate mesoderm

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75
Q

Once the allantois detaches from the bladder, what does it turn into?

A

Urachus = median umbilical ligament

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76
Q

Where is the epithelium of the urethra derived from?

A

Urogenital sinus - endoderm

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77
Q

Female urethra is derived from which germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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78
Q

Exstrophy of the cloaca is caused by a defect of the ____ body wall and occurs from what abnormal function?

A

Ventral; mesodermal fail to migrate in lower part of abdomen and in perineum (around cloaca)

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79
Q

Origin of the cortex of the suprarenal glands

A

Mesoderm

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80
Q

Origin of the medulla of the suprarenal glands

A

Neural crest cells; eventually get surrounded by the fetal and permanent cortex

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81
Q

Once neural crest cells migrate to form suprarenal glands, what do they differentiate into?

A

Chromaffin cells

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82
Q

Sertoli cells originate from?

A

Mesoderm of seminiferous cords

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83
Q

Spermatogonia originate from?

A

Primordial germ cells - epiblast

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84
Q

Leydig cells originate from?

A

Mesoderm b/w seminiferous cords

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85
Q

Follicular cells originate from?

A

Secondary sex cords; cortical sex cords

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86
Q

Oogonia original from?

A

Primordial germ cells

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87
Q

During the dev of paramesonephric/mullerian ducts, the paramesonephric duct crosses mesonephric duct caudally from ventral side, unites at midline forming ______

A

Uterovaginal primordium which opens into posterior wall of urogenital sinus

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88
Q

When the testis secretes Mullerian inhibiting substance (Sertoli cells) what is suppressed?

A

Paramesonephric ducts

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89
Q

What does testosterone (Leydig cells) induce in male genital development?

A

Mesonephric ducts stimulated

Epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, external genitalia, penis, scrotum, prostate

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90
Q

What are the 2 remnants of the mesonephric ducts in the male?

A
  1. Epididymis

2. Vas deferens

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91
Q

What are the 2 remnants of the paramesonephric ducts in the male?

A
  1. Appendix testis

2. Prostatic utricle

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92
Q

Remnant of mesonephric tubules in females

A

Epoophoron and paroophoron (cranial and caudal tubules) in mesovarium

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93
Q

Remnant of mesonephric DUCT in females

A

Gartner’s cyst; a small caudal portion that persist in the wall of uterus or vagina

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94
Q

What germ layer covers the tip of the phallus?

A

Ectoderm; which forms into a solid epithelial cord and forms the external urethral meatus (glandular part of urethra)

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95
Q

Where are sperm produced and where do they initially travel to

A

Seminiferous tubules; epididymis

96
Q

Where does sperm maturation occur?

A

Epididymis; acquire motility

97
Q

Define capacitation

A

Occurs in the uterus where the glycoprotein coat is modified and seminal proteins are removed from the surface of the sperm

Only these guys can get to the egg

98
Q

Ovarian cycle is controlled by which two hormones?

A

FSH and LH

99
Q

Uterine cycle is controlled by which two hormones?

A

Est & Progesterone

100
Q

If pregnancy occurs, what hormone prevents the degeneration of corpus luteum?

101
Q

Acrosomal reaction vs. cortical reaction

A

A - the release of acrosomal enzymes

C - the release of cortical granules from oocyte cytoplasm thus making ZP and oocyte membrane impermeable; keep the multiple sperm bastards out (prevent polyspermy)

102
Q

Where does normal implantation occur?

A

Posterosuperior wall of uterus by day 7 after fertilization

103
Q

Define placenta previa

A

abnormal implantation within the lower part of uterus

104
Q

Ectopic pregnancy; which is most common?

What hormone contributes to this?

A

Implantation outside the uterus; tubal most common

hCG

105
Q

Which trophoblastic layer produces/secretes hCG?

A

Syncytiotrophoblast = outer layer

Cytotrophoblast = inner layer

106
Q

Holoprosencephaly and Sirenomelia birth defects can occur as a result of:

A

Abnormal gastrulation

107
Q

Sacrococcygeal teratoma usually contains tissues derived from all three germ layers, which important process is defected?

A

Persistence of primitive streak

108
Q

Neural crest cell derivatives

A
  1. DRG
  2. Autonomic ganglia
  3. Adrenal medulla
  4. Schwann cells
  5. Pia-arachnoid sheath
  6. Skin melanocytes
  7. Thyroid parafollicular cells
  8. Craniofacial skeleton
  9. Teeth odontoblasts
  10. Aorticopulmonary septum
109
Q

In the paraxial mesoderm segmentation, which day does the first somite arise and in what region?

A

Day 20 = occipital region

Day 25 = 17-20 somites

110
Q

In the paraxial mesoderm segmentation, what somitomeres make up the mesenchyme of the head?

111
Q

Fate of somatic layer of the lateral plate mesoderm

A

Parietal pericardium + pleura + peritoneum

112
Q

Fate of visceral/splanchnic layer of the lateral plate mesoderm

A

Visceral pericardium + pleura + peritoneum

113
Q

Fate of intraembryonic coelom of the lateral plate mesoderm

A

Pericardial + pleura + peritoneal cavities

114
Q

What are the two ways in which blood vessels are formed?

A
  1. Vasculogenesis = vessels arise from blood islands

2. Angiogenesis = vessels arise from existing vessels

115
Q

What are the two components of the placenta?

A
  1. Decidua basalis = maternal part

2. Chorion frondosum = fetal part

116
Q

List the 3 types of decidua

A
  1. basalis = where placenta is to be formed
  2. capsularis = separates embryo from uterine lumen
  3. parietalis/vera = lining the rest of uterine cavity
117
Q

At what three stages can the zygote split?

A
  1. Two cell = 2 placentas, 2 chorionic sacs, 2 amniotic sacs
  2. Early blastocyst (ICM) stage = 1 placenta, 1 chorionic sac, 2 amniotic sac
  3. Bilaminar germ disc stage (just before primitive streak) = incomplete ICM division; 1 placenta, 1 chorionic sac, 1 amniotic sac (embryo/fetus remains united)
118
Q

Which cell stage of zygote splitting can cause conjoined twins?

A

Blaminar germ disc stage = inner cell mass doesn’t completely split

119
Q

Derivative of heart endocardium

A

Endothelial heart tube; blood islands/progenitor heart cells

120
Q

Derivative of heart myocardium

A

Visceral/splanchnic part of lateral plate mesoderm

121
Q

Derivative of heart epicardium (visceral pericardium)

A

Visceral/splanchnic mesoderm

122
Q

Left or right bending occurs in dextrocardia?

A

Left; may coincide with situs inversus (complete reversal of all organs)

123
Q

List the 5 primitive heart tube dilations

A
  1. Truncus arteriosus - aorta & pul trunk
  2. Bulbus cordis - smooth part of LV & RV
  3. Ventricle - Rough part of LV & RV
  4. Atrium - Rough/trabeculated part of LA & RA
  5. Sinus venosus - right horn = smooth part RA; left horn = coronary sinus, oblique vein of LA
124
Q

Truncus arteriosus turns into

A

Aorta and Pulmonary trunk

125
Q

Bulbus cordis turns into

A

Smooth part of LV and RV

126
Q

Primitive ventricle turns into

A

Rough/trabeculated part of LV and RV

127
Q

Primitive atrium turn into

A

Rough/trabeculated part of LA and RA

128
Q

Sinus venosus turn into…

A

Right horn = smooth part of RA

Left horn = coronary sinus, oblique vein of LA

129
Q

Derivative of AV valves?

A

Endocardial cushions of AV canal

While muscular tissue forms cusps, chordae tendineae, and papillary muscles

130
Q

Persistent common AV canal is due to failure of what

A

Formation/fusion of endocardial AV cushion

Both atrium communicates with both ventricle

131
Q

Foramen primum defect is due to failure of what

A

AV septum to fuse with septum primum

132
Q

Tricuspid atresia is due to

A

Insufficient amount of AV endocardial cushion

133
Q

Sinuatrial orific/right venous valve forms

A

Crista terminalis, IVC valves, and coronary sinus

Eventually fuses with septum secundum, becoming incorporated into interatrial septum

134
Q

Dorsal wall of primitive LA gives rise to

A

Pulmonary veins

Distal part of pul veins invade developing lung, proximal part gets absorbed into LA and forms its smooth part

135
Q

Primitive atrium persists as?

A

Left auricle (rough part of LA)

136
Q

Derivative of interatrial septum

A

Septum primum

Septum secundum

137
Q

Foramen secundum defect is usually due to?

A

Excessive resorption of septum primum

Opening b/w RA and LA

138
Q

Muscular derivative of IV septum

A

Floor of ventricle (bulbo-ventricular cavity)

139
Q

Membranous derivative of IV septum (3)

A
  1. Endocardial cushion of AV septum
  2. Right bulbar ridge
  3. Left bulbar ridge
140
Q

Persistent truncus arteriosus is primarily due to

A

Partial/non-development of spiral septum, due to abnormal or non neural crest cell migration

141
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot and transposition of great arteries arise from which abnormal function?

A

Abnormal neural crest cell migration

142
Q

Right and left umbilical arteries becomes…

A

Medial umbilical ligament

143
Q

Left umbilical vein becomes…

A

ligamentum teres

144
Q

Ductus venous becomes…

A

Ligamentum venosum

145
Q

Foramen ovale becomes…

A

Fossa ovale

146
Q

Ducuts arteriosus becomes….

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

147
Q

Derivatives of aortic arches:

1,2,3,4,5,6

A

Make Sure (you) CumIn AndPlay Down (LPADA, RPA)

1 - maxillary artery
2- stapedial artery
3 - proximal = common carotid; distal = internal carotid
4 - left = part of aortic arch; right = proximal part of right subclavian artery
5 - degenerates
6 - left = left pul artery and ductus arteriosus; right = right pulmonary artery

148
Q

Manifestation of abnormal right subclavian artery

A

Caudal right dorsal aorta and 7th intersegmental artery persist

This artery will cross the midline behind the esophagus to reach the right arm

149
Q

List the branches of primitive dorsal aorta:
Anterior/ventral branch
Lateral branch
Posterior/posterolateral branch

A

Anterior/ventral = vitelline = celiac, SMA, IMA, umbilical

Lateral = renal, suprarenal, gonadal

Posterior = arteries of UL, LL, intercostal, lumbar, lateral sacral arteries

150
Q 
List the blood drainage of the following veins:
VUC = YPE
Vitelline
Umbilical
Cardinal
A

Vitelline - blood from yolk

Umbilical - placenta

Cardinal - body wall of embryo

151
Q

Which of the three VUC veins disappears?

A

Umbilical; becoming the ligament teres hepatic and ductus venosus

152
Q

Derivative of left brachiocephalic vein

A

Right and left anterior cardinal veins

153
Q

Derivative of SVC

A

Part of right anterior cardinal vein and right common cardinal vein

154
Q

Left superior vena cava is a result of which two veins being obliterated?

A

Right common cardinal and anterior cardinal veins

left SVC drains into RA by way of coronary sinus

155
Q

List the drainage of the following veins:
Supracardinal veins
Subcardinal veins
Sacrocardinal v

A

Supracardinal - body wall via intercostal veins

Subcardinal - developing kidneys (& suprarenal gland and gonads)

Sacrocardinal - lower limb (becomes left common iliac and right common iliac vein)

156
Q

List the 3 derivatives of the IVC

A

Hepatic segment
Prerenal/renal segment
Postrenal segment

157
Q

Derivative of the hepatic segment of IVC

A

Proximal part of right vitelline vein

158
Q

Derivative of the pre renal/renal segment of IVC

A

Right sub cardinal vein

159
Q

Derivative of the post renal segment of IVC

A

Right sacrocardinal vein

160
Q

Double IVC is caused by what

A

Persistence of the left sacrocardinal vein

161
Q

What causes the absence of the hepatic segment of IVC?

A

Right sub cardinal vein fails to make its connection with the liver and shunts blood directly into supra cardinal vein

Blood from inferior part of body drains into RA thru azygous vein

162
Q

Originally there are 6 lymph sacs, what connects them?

A

Right and left lymphatic ducts creating an anastomosis

163
Q

What eventually occurs with the left and right lymphatic ducts?

A

Right - most cranial part persists

Left - distal portion = anastomosis, cranial portion = thoracic duct

164
Q

Parietal/somatic layer

A

adjacent to surface ectoderm

165
Q

Visceral/splanchnic layer

A

adjacent to endoderm

166
Q

Somatopleure

A

Parietal layer + overlying ectoderm

167
Q

Splanchnopleure

A

Visceral layer + underlying endoderm

168
Q

What occurs during ventral body wall defects? What’s different w/ omphalocoele?
Ectopia cordis
Gastroschisis
Bladder/cloacal exstophy

A

Lateral body folds fail to close

Omphalocoele - failure of midgut to return to abdominal cavity

169
Q

What are the contents of the splanchnopleuric mesoderm? (respiratory) CMVC

A
  1. Cartilage
  2. Muscle
  3. Vasculature
  4. CT
170
Q

What is the derivative of the epithelium of the respiratory tree down to the alveolar epithelium, glands?

171
Q

What do the proximal and distal ends of the respiratory diverticulum (from the ventral wall of primitive foregut) turn into?

A

Proximal - larynx and trachea

Distal - 2 lung buds

Tracheoesophageal ridge separates the respiratory diverticulum from the foregut

172
Q

What are the 4 stages of lung maturation

A
  1. Pseudoglandular (simple columnar)
  2. Canalicular (simple cuboidal)
  3. Saccular**
  4. Alveolar (well developed epithelial endothelial contacts)
173
Q

During which stage of lung development do Type I and Type II pneumocytes develop (i.e. surfactant produced)?

174
Q

Derivative of central tendon of diaphragm

A

Septum transversum via cranial most part of lateral plate mesoderm

175
Q

Derivative of muscular components of the diaphragm

A

3-5 cervical somites

176
Q

Derivative of crura of diaphragm

A

Mesentery of esophagus

177
Q

List the 4 components of the diaphragm

A
  1. Central tendon of diaphragm
  2. Two pleuroperitoneal folds = diaphragmatic hernias
  3. Muscular components = parasternal hernia
  4. Crura
178
Q

What days and somites cause closure of the cranial neuropore and caudal neuropore?

A

Cranial (brain) - 25th day - 18-20 somite stage

Caudal (spinal cord) - 27th day - 25 somite stage

179
Q

List the 3 dilations (primary brain vesicles) PMR

A
  1. Prosencephalon - midbrain
  2. Mesencephalon - midbrain
  3. Rhombencephalon - hindbrain
180
Q

Prosencephalon divides into what two structures forming what part of the brain?

A

Telencephalon and Diencephalon = forebrain

181
Q

Rhombencephalon divides into what two structures forming what part of the brain?

A

Metencephalon and Myelencephalon = hindbrain

182
Q

List the parts of brains where the following ventricles arise from:

  1. Lateral ventricle
  2. 3rd ventricle
  3. Cerebral aqueduct
  4. 4th ventricle
A
  1. lateral ventricle = telencephalon
  2. 3rd ventricle = diencephalon
  3. Cerebral aqueduct = mesencephalon
  4. 4th ventricle = Rhombencephalon
183
Q

List circulation of CSF; L34S

A

Lateral ventricle –> (foramen of Monro) 3rd ventricle —> (cerebral aqueduct) 4th ventricle –> (foramina of Magendie and Luschka) Subarachnoid space

184
Q

Derivation of Schwann cells

A

Neural crest cells

185
Q

Derivation of Oligodendrocytes

A

Neuroepithleial cells

186
Q

Where does the spinal cord terminate in adults?

187
Q

Derivative of pituitary gland

A

Ectoderm; adenohypophysis = Rathke’s pouch = surface ectoderm (upgrowth into oral cavity)

neurohypophysis = down growth from diencephalon

188
Q

Exencephaly

A

Failure of cranial neuropore to close

189
Q

Derivation of sympathetic and parasympathetic system

A
  1. basal plate of neural tube - preganglioinc fibers

2. neural crest cells - ganglion and post ganglionic fibers

190
Q

Derivation of pharyngeal arches

A

Mesenchyme ventral to cranial end of foregut tube condense and form arches which are covered internally by endoderm and externally by surface ectoderm

Pouches lined by endoderm

191
Q

Which pharyngeal arch degenerates?

192
Q

List formations of the pharyngeal arches: 1-6

A

Make Sure (you) CumIn AndPlay Down

  1. maxillary artery
  2. stapedial a.
  3. common carotid, root of internal carotid
  4. left - arch of aorta (middle part) right - rt subclavian a. (proximal part)
  5. degenerate
  6. pulmonary artery, ductus arteriosus
193
Q

List components of 1st pharyngeal arch

A

Cartilage - maxillary (part of temporal, zygomatic bone & maxilla) and mandibular process (Meckel’s cartilage), malleus and incus

Muscles - mastication, anterior digastric, mylohyoid, tensor tympanic, tensor palatini

194
Q

List components of 2nd pharyngeal arch

A

Cartilage - stapes, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament, lesser horn and upper part of body of hyoid bone

Muscles - stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior digastric, auricular, facial expression

195
Q

List components of 3rd pharyngeal arch

A

Cartilage - lower part of the body and greater horn of hyoid bone

Muscle - stylopharyngeus

196
Q

List components of 4th and 6th pharyngeal arch

A

Cartilage - larynx

Muscle - 4th = pharynx constrictors, cricothyroid, elevator palatine, 6th = intrinsic muscles of larynx

197
Q

Treacher collins syndrome occurs due to under developed zygomatic bones, where does this originate?

A

1st pharyngeal arch

198
Q

Mesenchyme of craniofacial region and aorticopulmonary septa (spiral septa) originate from what structure?

A

Neural crest cells

199
Q

DiGeorge syndrome occurs with an absence of the thymus and parathyroid gland, why does this occur?

A

Failure of differentiation of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches into thymus and parathyroid glands

200
Q

Pharyngeal pouches and clefts are lined by what epithelial tissue?

A

Pouches - endoderm

Clefts - ectoderm

201
Q

Tongue dev.

What forms medially to 1st arch?

A

2 lateral lingual swellings (anterior 2/3)

202
Q

Tongue dev.

What separates the lateral lingual swellings?

A

Tuberculum impar (median tongue bud)

203
Q

Tongue dev.

What forms medial to 2,3, and cranial part of 4th pharyngeal arches?

A

Copula (posterior 1/3)

204
Q

Tongue dev.

What forms median to the caudal part of 4th arch?

A

Epiglotic swelling

205
Q

What folds of the tongue develop the anterior 2/3 of it?

A

Tuberculum impar

2 lateral lingual swellings

206
Q

What part of tongue dev. forms the posterior 1/3 of tongue?

207
Q

What structure separates the anterior and posterior portions of the tongue?

A

Terminal sulcus

208
Q

Occipital myotomes form what muscular structure?

A

Muscles of the tongue; 2-5 somites

209
Q

What two prominences make up the upper lip?

A

Maxillary and medial nasal prominences

210
Q

What prominences make up the lower lip?

A

Mandibular prominences

211
Q

What prominences make up the nose? FML

A
  1. Frontonasal prominence (bridge)
  2. Merged medial nasal prominence (septum & tip)
  3. Lateral nasal prominences (alae)
212
Q

How does the primary palate form

A

When the medial nasal prominences of each side fuse forming the intermaxillary segment

anterior to incisive foramen

213
Q

How does the secondary palate form

A

Palatine shelves (outgrowths from maxillary prominences) grow medially and fuse

posterior to incisive foramen

214
Q

Define definitive plate

A

the fusion of primary and secondary palates at the incisive foramen

215
Q

Cleft palate and cleft uvula occur as a result of?

A

Lack of fusion of the palatine shelves

216
Q

Pigmented and nervous layer of retina are within which layers?

A

Outer layer - pigmented

Inner - nervous layer

217
Q

Ciliary muscles of the eye are derived from

A

Neural crest cells

218
Q

Dilator and sphincter papillae muscles of the iris are derived from

A

Neuroectoderm

219
Q

Inner choroid layer and outer sclera layer are derived from

A

Mesenchyme surrounding the optic cup

220
Q

External corneal epithelium derived from

A

Surface ectoderm

221
Q

Substantia propria and corneal endothelium derived from

A

outer mesenchymal layer

222
Q

Eyelids form by fusion of which two layers

A

mesenchyme and overlying surface ectoderm with conjunctival sac (ectoderm) in between

223
Q

Coloboma occurs due to what abnormal process

A

Non closure of choroid/retinal fissure (usually in iris)

224
Q

What makes up the external ear

A

Auricle
EAM - external acoustic meatus
Tympanic membrane

225
Q

What makes up the middle ear

A

MIS

Muscles

226
Q

What makes up the internal ear?

A

Membranous and bony labyrinthq

227
Q

What epithelial layer does the internal ear derive from

A

Surface ectoderm

Myelencephalon

228
Q

What two parts does the otic vesicles divide into?

A

(surface ectoderm)

Dorsal utricular

Ventral saccular

229
Q

What does the dorsal utricular of the ear form?

SUE

A

Semicircular canals
Utricle
Endolymphatic duct

230
Q

What does the ventral saccular of the ear form?

SC

A

Saccule

Cochlear duct

231
Q

What tissue epithelium is the middle ear derived from?

232
Q

Which pharyngeal cleft does the external ear arise from?

A

1st

Epithelial cells at bottom of cleft proliferate and form solid epithelial plate = meatal plug

233
Q

Outer layer of eardrum/tympanic membrane derived from

A

Ectoderm of 1st pharyngeal cleft

234
Q

Middle layer of eardrum/tympanic membrane derived from

A

Mesenchymal tissues b/w 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches

235
Q

Inner layer of eardrum/tympanic membrane derived from

A

Endoderm of 1st pharyngeal pouch

236
Q

Congenital deafness occurs from damage to inner ear, which is derived from which tissue epithelium?

A

Surface ectoderm

237
Q

Auricle is derived from which pharyngeal cleft?

SUSOM Sem II (5 decks)

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