Genetics and Metabolics Flashcards

1
Q

What is uniparental disomy? Name a syndrome that it is inherited in this manner?

A
  1. when a person gets both chromosomes (or parts of chromosomes) in the pair from the same parents, instead of getting one form each parent
  2. Prader Willi and Angelman (chromosome 15q11)
    PWS: think Trump - small balls, small hands, intellectual disability and obesity from hyperphagia - mom’s part is silenced and the part you’re meant to get from your dad just isn’t there (mom silences (Melania), dad missing (Donald))
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2
Q

You diagnose a child with CF based on an abnormal sweat chloride. The reason for doing DNA testing is:

a. confirm diagnosis
b. rule out whether the parents are carriers
c. to diagnose her cousin who is failing to thrive with CF
d. to give the parents some idea about prognosis
e. so that antenatal testing can be done on subsequent pregnancies

A

d. to give the parents some idea about prognosis

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3
Q

The sister of a patient with cystic fibrosis is 6 weeks pregnant and wants to know if her unborn child
has cystic fibrosis. What do you suggest:
a) wait until 16 weeks gestation and then perform amniocentesis
b) perform chorionic villus sampling and genetic testing now
c) refer the parents for genetic testing
d) perform a sweat test on the mother
e) you cannot accurately diagnose cystic fibrosis until after the child is born

A

c) refer the parents for genetic testing
- 50% chance that the sib is a carrier (assuming she would know if she actually had CF, the chance that she’s a carrier is actually 2/3)
- amnio or CVS not recommended unless high risk (mutations in both parents)

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4
Q

Parents of a child with unilateral cleft palate come in for advice regarding next pregnancy. You advise that:

a. There is no recurrence risk
b. 4% recurrence risk
c. 25% of offspring will be affected

A

b. 4% recurrence risk

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5
Q

Obese parents adopt a 3 month child. What is true regarding the child’s risk of obesity:

a. if biologic parents are thin then child is unlikely to be obese
b. even if biologic parents are thin, the child is likely to be obese
c. obesity is more common in upper socioeconomic groups
d. if child is obese at 1 year then there is a 90% chance of obesity as an adult

A

a. if biologic parents are thin then child is unlikely to be obese

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6
Q

A child has multiple ash leaf spots, and seizures. The mother is pregnant and wants to know whether or not her unborn child will have the same problems. What do you tell her about the risks to the fetus?

a) 50% if female
b) 50% if male
c) 50% regardless of gender
d) 25% regardless of gender
e) the recurrence risk is minimal

A

e) the recurrence risk is minimal
TS: AD inheritance but 2/3 sporadic
- if parents are unaffected the risk of another child having TS is low but still higher than the general population because of the chance of germ line mosaicism

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7
Q

Inheritance pattern of ectopic thyroid:

a) autosomal recessive
b) autosomal dominant
c) sporadic
d) X-linked recessive
e) X-linked dominant

A

c) sporadic

thyroid agencies including ectopic thyroid is usually sporadic, 2% will have family history

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8
Q

You are seeing a pregnant woman during her first. Her father has hemophilia. Regarding the risk of her transmitting the disorder to her own children you tell her:
A. None will have it
b. 50% of her sons will have it and all of her daughters will be carriers
c. 50% of her sons will have it and 50% of her daughters will be carriers

A

c. 50% of her sons will have it and 50% of her daughters will be carriers

X-linked disorder

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9
Q

Which of the following has AD inheritance?

a. Tuberous Sclerosis
b. Fragile X
c. CF
d. Hereditary Spherocytosis

A

ANSWER: a. Tuberous Sclerosis, though 2/3 sporadic

b. Fragile X - X-linked dominant, FMR1 mutation
c. CF - autosomal recessive
d. Hereditary Spherocytosis - 75% autosomal dominant, 25% autosomal recessive

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10
Q

Which has autosomal dominant inheritance?

a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
b. PKU
c. Beta-thalassemia
d. Hereditary spherocytosis

A

ANSWER: d. Hereditary spherocytosis - 75% autosomal dominant, 25% autosomal recessive

a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia - autosomal recessive
b. PKU - autosomal recessive
c. Beta-thalassemia - usually autosomal recessive; rarely can be AD

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11
Q

Teenager presents with large armspan, suspect Marfans Syndrome. What is the mode of inheritance?

a. Autosomal Dominant
b. Autosomal Recessive
c. X linked
d. Sporadic

A

a. Autosomal Dominant
FBN1 mutation
25% de novo mutations

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12
Q

Newborn presents with the following lab values pH 7.1; HCO3 decreased, normal sodium/potassium, Elevated lactate, ammonia and neutropenia. Diagnosis:

a) galactosemia
b) MCAD
c) methamelonic acidemia
d) urea cycle defect

A

c) methylmalonic acidemia
- organic acidemia (metabolic acidosis, high ammonia, neutropenia caused from BM suppression that happens with metabolic acidosis)
- dx: urine organic acids
- issue: unable to metabolize methylmalonic acid which is made in the breakdown of amino acids and some fatty acids
- tx: low protein diet

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13
Q

What broad category of diseases do you think of in an infant with vomiting, lethargy, poor feeding and seizures but who is afebrile and has a normal WBC?

A

inborn error of metabolism

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14
Q

10 day old baby with failure to thrive, jaundice, hepatomegaly, blood culture positive for E.Coli.

a. What underlying disorder may the child have?
b. What test can you do to confirm this diagnosis ?

A

a. What underlying disorder may the child have? Galactosemia (see above).

b. What test can you do to confirm this diagnosis ?
● Erythrocyte galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) activity.
● DNA testing for mutations in GALT gene

  • presents 4-7 days of life (after lactose has been introduced in diet - i.e. breast or bottle feeding established)
  • also get ketonuria
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15
Q

Child presents with an ammonium level in the 400-range. What 3 things would you do in your management?

A
  1. IV rehydration, including dextrose (stop protein catabolism)
  2. remove ammonia (dialysis or meds - sodium phenyacetate and sodium benzoate, arginine)
  3. confirm with repeat specimen
  4. additional testing: serum amino acids, urine organic acids, liver function and transaminases (can have liver failure, lights)
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16
Q

What are 3 symptoms of hyperammonemia?

A

lethargy, vomiting, cerebral edema, coma - encephalopathy

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17
Q

You are working in an emergency department, and a 5-month-old baby presents with a history of poor intake and occasional vomiting over the past 24 hours. You find that his glucose is 2.8. The remainder of his bloodwork is unremarkable. He has no ketones present on urinalysis. List 2 diagnoses on your differential.

A
  1. hyperinsulinemia
  2. fatty acid oxidation defect (fatty acids have a ketone on the end - with FAO defects, you can’t cut that ketone off so you have high fatty acids, but no ketones)

Hypoketotic hypoglycemia - if your sugar is low, your body should make ketones as an alternate fuel
no ketones = high insulin, fatty acid oxidation defect

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18
Q

3 week old with previous e coli sepsis and persistent jaundice. What is the likely problem?

a. Increased osmotic fragility
b. RBC galactose phosphate uradyl transferase deficiency
c. RBC glu – 1 – phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

b. RBC galactose phosphate uradyl transferase deficiency

Galactosemia

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19
Q

3-day-old infant with lethargy, vomiting, hypotonia and progressively worsening level of consciousness and coma. There is subtle evidence of intracranial hypertension. He has a respiratory alkalosis. Most likely:

a. encephalitis
b. urea cycle defect
c. maple syrup urine disease
d. phenylketonuria
e. Leigh syndrome

A

b. urea cycle defect

amino acids–> ammonia and organic acids
ammonia (BAD)–> urea cycle –> urea (pee it out)

MSUD: defect in enzyme that breaks down some amino acids (so you have no ammonia being made)
Leigh disease: subacute necrotizing encephalomyelopathy

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20
Q

You are called because an infant’s PKU screen is positive. Your next step is:

a. order a quantitative urine Phenylalanine level
b. order a quantitative blood Phenylalanine level
c. repeat the screen
d. order a urinary phenylketone level

A

b. order a quantitative blood Phenylalanine level

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21
Q

The child of a father with phenylketonuria will have which of the following:

a) no problems
b) developmental delay
c) multiple congenital anomalies
d) microcephaly
e) IUGR

A

a) no problems

inheritance AR - would expect child to be a carrier, but would only be affected if mother also a carrier

signs PKU: MR, growth retardation, fair skin, eczema
Maternal PKU not treated in pregnancy causes microcephaly, IUGR, MR, congenital heart defects

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22
Q

6 month old with hx of dev delay is brought in to ER and needs resusc. Is now stable. What would you need to help make diagnosis:

a. CT scan
b. Lactate, carnitine, ammonia
c. Serum organic acids
d. Urine amino acids

A

b. Lactate, carnitine, ammonia

Shock - think organic acidemia

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23
Q

Child with poor feeding, vomiting, lethargy, seizures, afebrile. Ammonia and gas normal. What do you suspect?

A

amino acidopathy or galactosemia

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24
Q

In a patient with MCAD deficiency what would be the most likely laboratory finding:

a) respiratory alkalosis
b) nonketotic hypoglycemia
c) increased urine/plasma ketone level
d) increased plasma carnitine level
e) normal transaminases

A

b) nonketotic hypoglycemia

  • hypoketotic hypoglycemia, no acidosis, low urinary ketones
  • illness triggered by prolonged fasting (cannot mobilize fat stores)
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25
Q

Abetalipoproteinemia causes all EXCEPT:

a) ataxia
b) hyperlipidemia
c) acanthocytosis
d) retinitis pigmentosa
e) diarrhea and FTT

A

b) hyperlipidemia
- hereditary inability to synthesize lipoproteins -have very low cholesterol and triglycerides (all the fats get stuck in the gut wall)
- lack of fat soluble vitamins (no vit E - spinocerebellar degeneration, no vit A - night blindness)

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26
Q
14 mos male, FTT, vomiting, met acidosis, pH 7.31, bicarb 14, K 3.5, Na140, Cl 118, urine pH 6.3
a distal RTA
b Bartter
c organic acidopathy
d nutrit. Deprivation
A

a. distal RTA - hyperchloremic non anion gap metabolic acidosis
- distal RTA - high urine pH

Bartter - alkalosis
organic acidopathy - anion gap

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27
Q

6 month old baby with pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, irritable. Xray shown with very white bones. Diagnosis:

a. osteopetrosis
b. vitamin D deficient rickets
c. osteosarcoma

A

a. osteopetrosis

Ca, PO4, ALP all normal

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28
Q

Infant (a few weeks old?) with generalized tonic clonic seizure. He looks well and is well grown. Glucose is 1.7. The most important thing to measure is?

a. Urine ketones
b. Lactate/Pyruvate ratio
c. Serum cortisol

A

a. Urine ketones

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29
Q

Hypoglycaemia, low ketones, low FFA, high insulin in a macrosomic baby - what is the diagnosis?

A

hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia of infancy

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30
Q

Hypoglycaemic baby with reducing substances in urine - what is the diagnosis?

A

Galactosemia

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31
Q

Hypoglycemia, micropenic, cleft palate, cholestatic jaundice - what is the diagnosis?

A

Hypopituitarism (midline defects)

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32
Q

Hypoglycemia + hepatomegaly. What group of disorders to consider?

A

Glycogen storage disorders (like G6P deficiency)

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33
Q

Glucose of 1.2, cardiomegaly on chest x-ray. What is the most likely etiology of this presentation?

a. cardiac lesion
b. sepsis
c. inborn error of metabolism

A

c. inborn error of metabolism

Pompe (type II glycogen storage disease)

  • cardiomegaly and macroglossia
  • glycogen accumulates in tissues which makes them large and not work well
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34
Q
3 week baby with lethargy, poor feeding, and hepatomegaly. Has a normal lactate, ammonia, pH,
CO2. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Maple syrup urine disease
b. Propionic academia
c. Galactosemia
d. Urea cycle defect
A

c. Galactosemia

- hyperglycinemia also on the differential of an apparent metabolic disorder with normal ammonia and gas

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35
Q

What is the most likely presentation of an inborn error of metabolism?

a. encephalopathy preceding focal neuro deficit
b. generalized hyper-reflexia
c. abnormal pupillary reaction

A

a. encephalopathy preceding focal neuro deficit

MELAS (mitochrondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, stroke-like episode) - mimics stroke with focal neuro defects

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36
Q

A 3 month old is suspected of having an inborn error of metabolism, and has neurological and cardiac
involvement. Which of the following can be given before a definitive diagnosis is made to prevent
further sequelae:
a. Thiamine
b. Carnitine

A

b. Carnitine - good for organic acidemias, FAO defects, carnitine deficiency; lethargy and cardiomyopathy common presenting features of FAO defects

B12: oragnic acidemia
B6 (pyridoxine): seizures unresponsive to antiepileptics

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37
Q

3 day old with lethargy, decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. On exam he has hyperpnea and respiratory alkalosis. His fontanelle is full and he has signs of mild increase in intracranial pressure. What is his diagnosis?

a. Maple Syrup urine disease
b. Urea cycle defect
c. Encephalitis

A

b. Urea cycle defect

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38
Q

Liver dysfunction long term complication of:

a. MCAD
b. OTC
c. PKU
d. Maple syrup urine disease

A

ANSWER: a. MCAD - lipid metabolism defect

b. OTC - urea cycle defect
c. PKU - amino acidemia
d. Maple syrup urine disease - organic acidemia

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39
Q

2½-year-old child is referred with language delay and inferior ectopia lentis. You should

a) molecular studies for Marfan syndrome
b) echocardiogram to rule out aortic root abnormalities
c) fibroblasts/skin biopsy for enzyme
d) quantitative serum amino acids
e) platelet count and coagulation studies for hypercoagulability

A

d) quantitative serum amino acids

Homocystinuria: IQ down, lens dislocated down
Dx: elevated methionine or homocystine in blood or urine
Tx: high dose vitamin B6

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40
Q

Most likely to be associated with hearing loss:

a) prematurity
b) congenital CMV
c) APGAR of 2 at 1 minute
d) sibling with language delay
e) furosemide given to mother during pregnancy

A

b) congenital CMV

o TORCH (CMV most common acquired form of congenital hearing loss)

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41
Q

Newborn who has webbed neck, lymphedema at hands and feet, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (picture given- don’t think they told you if it was a girl or a boy)

a) XO
b) Noonans
c) Williams

A

b) Noonans

Turners is similar but has left sided heart defects (coarctation)
- note primary hypogonadism - amenorrhea and infertility - not a feature of Noonan’s

42
Q

Child with facial nevus in V1 distribution. Came to the hospital with focal seizure. What is the suspected diagnosis? What is the CT head finding expected? Name 2 other complications.

A
  1. Sturge-Weber
  2. CT head shows calcifications, MRI could show leptomeningeal angioma
  3. complications: glaucoma, seizures, hemiparesis, intellectual disability, stroke-like episodes
43
Q

Picture of rocker bottom feet – what condition do you need to think about? What are 3 other features?

A

Edward syndrome (trisomy 18)

  • prominent occiput
  • clenched hands with overlapping fingers
  • prominent heels
  • small mouth and jaw, short neck
44
Q

Mother brings her son to see you for assessment of behaviour difficulties. He has been in generally good health. He is large (97, 95, 95%iles) and has prominent ears. He has a broad forehead and hyperextensible joints. Which of the following does he have?

a) fragile X
b) Klinefelters
c) Sotos

A

a) fragile X

fragile X : - remember large ears and long narrow face and hyperactivity

45
Q

5 mo with white forelock, 1 iris blue 1 brown. What next investigation would you do? What condition is this?

a. Renal ultrasound
b. Hearing test
c. Echo cardiac
d. Cranial ultrasound

A

b. Hearing test

Waardenburg syndrome - sensorineural hearing loss common, non progressive

46
Q
An 8 year old otherwise well child has a hemi-vertebrae noted on CXR. What investigation will you do
in the course of your work-up:
a. MRI of the head
b. MRI of the spine
c. Abd U/S
d. Echo
A

c. Abd U/S - VACTERL

From genetics review - if it was a newborn would do an echo, but given healthy 8 year old, she probably doesn’t have a serious cardiac lesion; don’t know what’s happening with kidneys though

47
Q

What are the components of VACTERL association?

A
vertebral defects
anal atresia
cardiac defects
TEF
renal anomalies
limb anomalies (missing thumbs, underdeveloped forearms)
48
Q

Hemivertebra girl. What next imaging

A

AUS and echo

49
Q

Child has developmental delay. On exam you note that he is microcephalic, he has small palpebral
fissures, a thin upper lip and a poorly defined philtrum. What is his diagnosis
a. Cornelia De Lange
b. Smith Lemli Opitz
c. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

A

c. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

50
Q

A child who is described as having a learning disability, has big ears. Mom has an LD as well. What to tell mom to expect:

a. Problems with tics
b. Problems with athetosis
c. Problems with hyperactivity
d. Problems with tremor
e. Problems with nystagmus

A

c. Problems with hyperactivity

51
Q

3 year old girl was normal developmentally for a while but has shown regression in the past year. Now she has microcephaly, and abnormal hand movements

a. Retts
b. Fragile X
c. Autism
d. TORCH infection
e. childhood disintegrative disorder

A

a. Retts

52
Q
Child with supravalvular aortic stenosis, prominent lips, developmental delay, and hypercalcemia. This
is indicative of:
a. DiGeorge
b. Williams
c. Noonans
d. Downs
e. Fetal alcohol syndrome
A

b. Williams

53
Q

What are the components of DiGeorge syndrome?

A
  • cardiac (TOF)
  • abnormal facies (hypertelorism, down slanting palpebral fissures, short philtrum)
  • thymic hypoplasia/T cell abnormality
  • cleft palate
  • hypocalcemia from hypoparathyroidism
  • 22q11 deletion
54
Q

Which feature is typical for achondroplasia?

a. proximal limb shortening
b. distal limb shortening
c. short mid-portion of the bone
d. non-specific shortening

A

a. proximal limb shortening

55
Q

In a patient with Romano-Ward syndrome, what would suggest the diagnosis:

a. presence of cafe-au-lait spots
b. congenital defects
c. sensorineural hearing loss
d. family members have it

A

d. family members have it
- cardiac syndrome, long QT, family history is key - most cases inherited from an affected parents, few cases are de novo mutations; inheritance is AD with incomplete penetrance
* Long QT plus congenital deafness (SNHL) = Jervell and Lange-Nielson syndromes (autosomal recessive)

56
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome

a. 4 facial dysmorphisms
b. 2 clinical features of the syndrome

A

a. smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia
b. microcephaly, intellectual disability, small stature

57
Q
Photo shown of infant with short palpebral fissures, smooth philtrum, short nose and thin upper lip. He presents with irritability. This infant’s condition is due to maternal exposure to:
a) cocaine
b) heroin
c) cigarettes
d ) alcohol
e) Dilantin
A

d ) alcohol

58
Q

Which is a common characteristic in fetal hydantoin syndrome:

a) microcephaly
b) hypoplastic nails
c) intrauterine growth restriction
d) seizures
e) cataracts

A

b) hypoplastic nails

fetal hydantoin - fetus exposed to hydantoin (phenytoin)

59
Q

List 4 screening tests you would routinely do for a child with Down’s Syndrome

A
  • ophtho exam for strabismus, cataracts, nystagmus
  • hearing test - q6 months until bilateral hearing test possible
  • screen for hypothyroidism annually
  • screen for celiac (symptoms annually, BW PRN)
  • hemoglobin screen annually
60
Q

Child with trisomy 21. 3 discrete round completely hairless areas on the scalp. No other findings.

a. What is the most likely diagnosis?
b. What will you tell mom is the natural history of this problem

A

a. alopecia areata
b. ● Spontaneous resolution in 6-12 month
● Recurrence: common

61
Q

Child with Down syndrome. List three associated hematological disorders

A
● Neonatal polycythemia
● Neonatal leukemoid reaction
● Transient myeloproliferative disorder
● Anemia (iron deficiency due to poor intake)
● Leukemia (1%)
62
Q

Family physician calls you about term neonate who weighs 2300 g. Neonate has lymphoedema, low set hair line and wide chest. What test would you send for diagnosis?

A

Probably Turner as opposed to Noonan because is term and very small. Noonan not usually SGA.
- Karyotype for Turner, RASopathy panel for Noonan

63
Q

List two investigations that should be done in a neonate with suspected Turner syndrome and their expected findings

A

AUS - horseshoe kidneys

4 limp BP and echo - aortic valvular disease (bicuspid aortic valve), or coarctation

64
Q

Scenario of a boy with Fragile X. Mom is a carrier. There is a sister in the family. Mom asks you if you could test the sister to see if she is a carrier. She is currently in grade 5 and doing well. Do you test the daughter?

A

No! If she is healthy, then the recommendation is to wait until she is an adult and can make her own decisions about what she wants to know. Counsel that she may want investigations before pregnancy if she wants to know about potential risk for her children.

65
Q

5 Clinical features of turners and 2 cardiac complications

A
  1. hearing loss, strabismus, shield chest, widely spaced nipples, increased carrying angle of arms, short stature, ovarian failure, hypothyroidism
  2. bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation of aorta
66
Q

List 3 features of Pierre-Robin sequence.

A

micrognathia, retrognathia
high arched palate/cleft palate
glossoptosis (tongue drops back and obstructs because it is relatively large for the oral cavity)

67
Q

Child with suspected Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

a. What is diagnostic on biopsy (be specific)?
b. What 2 things do you want to know to help with genetic counseling?

A

a. lack of dystrophin in myofibers, endomysial connective tissue proliferation
b. X-linked recessive condition (2/3 inherited)
- what is the specific genetic defect in the child?
- is mom a carrier of this defect - if yes, 50% chance or having another boy with DMD, if no, was a spontaneous mutation and there is no risk
- is the family planning to have more children?

68
Q

Child with hemihypertrophy. What condition would you suspect that would require serial follow-up?

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann
● Cancer risk high until 8 y.o. (~7.5%)
o Need regular surveillance with abdo US + alpha fetoprotein measured every 3 mon. until 8 y.o.
o Then Renal US every 1-2 year as medullary sponge kidney and nephrocalcinosis can happen later

69
Q

Child with Wilm’s tumor. Which is associated?

a. Down syndrome
b. Prader-Willi syndrome
c. Beckwith-Weideman
d. Angelman’s syndrome

A

ANSWER: c. Beckwith-Weideman – Wilm’s Tumour, Hepatoblastoma, Neuroblastoma, Adrenocortical carcinoma

a. Down syndrome – acute myeloid leukemias

70
Q

Cancers are associated with several disease states. Name one cancer associated with each of the following.

  • Beckwith Wiedemann
  • Down syndrome
  • Aniridia
A
  • Beckwith Wiedemann- Wilm’s, Hepatoblastoma, higher risk of neuroblastoma
  • Down syndrome – Leukemia (Specifically acute myeloid leukemia)
  • Aniridia – Wilm’s Tumour
71
Q

3d old term infant with absence of abd muscles and undescended testes bilaterally. TFI 90/kg/d. Na 120, K 5, Glu 2.6, normal urea, creatinine 119. U/O 10 cc in last 24 hrs. Kid NPO. Wt 4kg. What is causing this kid’s problems?

A

Prune belly syndrome - obstructive uropathy

72
Q

Alpha-1 antitrypsin. Most likely presentation in children?

a. jaundice
b. emphysema
c. bronchiectasis
d. pneumonia

A

a. jaundice

73
Q

Boy with MELAS, what do you tell him is his risk of passing it on to his kids?

A

Mitochondrial encephalopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes
- no chance of passing it on to his kids because mitochondrial disorders are all inherited maternally

74
Q

Child with distress, cannot pass NG through nares. Choanal atresia. List 3 other findings on physical
exam you’d look for?

A

CHARGE (CHD7 gene mutation)
Coloboma
Heart defects (TOF, AV canal)
Atresia choanae
Retardation of growth (short stature) and motor development
GU abnormalities (micropenis, cryptorchidism, hypoplastic labis in females)
Ear deformities/hearing loss

75
Q

Mother with DiGeorge syndrome has a child with cleft-palate. What 3 things should you do for investigation/management in the child (3)?

A
  • check calcium (hypocalcemia) and PTH (hypopara)
  • echo (TOF, truncus arteriosus)
  • renal U/S (renal hypoplasia)
  • immunodeficiency W/U: CBC and diff, T and B cell numbers, immunoglobulins
  • CXR for absence of thyme silhouette
76
Q

List 4 features of Rett syndrome.

A
  1. loss of previously acquired developmental milestones
  2. repetitive hand wringing, and loss of purposeful hand movements
  3. acquired microcephaly
  4. seizures
  5. ataxia
  6. poor weight gain
77
Q

3 major skeletal diagnostic criteria for Marfans?

A
  1. armspan greater than height
  2. lower segment longer than upper segment
  3. hindfoot deformity
  4. pectus carinatum
  5. positive thumb sign and wrist sign
  6. scoliosis or thoracolumbar kyphosis
  7. reduced elbow extension
  8. protrusio acetabulae
78
Q

Give a condition that corresponds to coloboma

A

CHARGE syndrome
Wolf-Hirschorn syndrome
13q deletion syndrome

79
Q

Give a condition that corresponds to dislocated lens

A

Marfan’s (superior dislocation)

Homocysteinuria (inferior dislocation)

80
Q

Give a condition that corresponds to aniridia

A
WAGR (Wilms tumour, aniridia, GU abnormalities, MR)
Miller syndrome (aniridia with Wilm's tumour)
81
Q

Give a condition that corresponds to glaucoma

A

Sturge Weber
Trisomy 21
NF1
Mucopolysaccharidoses

82
Q

List 4 non-infectious risk factors of hearing loss in the newborn period.

A
  • family history of hearing loss
  • outer ear malformation/craniofacial malformations
  • apgars 0-4 at 1 minute
  • NICU stay >2 days
  • ototoxic drug use
  • hyperbili needing exchange transfusion
  • mechanical ventilation
83
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of Rett syndrome:
a. ataxia
b. seizures
c. head bobbing
d . hand wringing
e. admit and place on a Phenylalanine free diet

A

d . hand wringing

84
Q

A 25 year old mother of a child with Down syndrome (47XY (+21)) comes for advice regarding subsequent pregnancies. :

a. no advice can be offered until karyotype of parents is known
b. no antenatal workup needed as recurrence risk is <5%
c. if level 2 ultrasound is abnormal at 16 weeks, then do amniocentesis
d. antenatal karyotyping should be done with all subsequent pregnancies
e. Chromosomes should be offered for any future pregnancy

A

e. Chromosomes should be offered for any future pregnancy
- the recurrence risk is small but it’s still reasonable to offer prenatal testing if the family wants

(47XY (+21)) - this is your standard T21 karyotype (would be different if there was a translocation in which case the parents would need to be tested and risk of recurrence is much higher)

85
Q

A 20-year-old mother and 25-year-old husband have just had a child with clinical features of Down syndrome. What is the most likely karyotype:

a) trisomy 21
b) mosaicism
c) translocation 14/21
d) translocation 21/22

A

a) trisomy 21

86
Q

Which of the following is done routinely in a 1-week-old infant with trisomy 21:

a) lateral c-spine films
b) abdominal ultrasound
c) ophthalmology consult
d) auditory brainstem response
e) do nothing

A

e) do nothing

standard OAEs for hearing testing are fine

87
Q

In the follow-up of a child with Down syndrome, which would be appropriate:

a) CBC and smear
b) lipid studies
c) thyroid function
d) hepatitis B serology
e) antigliadin antibody

A

c) thyroid function - TSH on newborn screen, then at 6 & 12 months, then annually
a) CBC and smear - technically do not need a smear, just a CBC annually

88
Q

You diagnose a boy as having fragile X by DNA testing. His sister is performing poorly at school, and parents are concerned that she has fragile X. You:

a. order DNA testing on sister to rule out fragile X
b. order cytogenetics on sister to see if she is a carrier
c. order cytogenetics on mother to she if she is a carrier
d. do nothing - females do not get fragile X

A

a. order DNA testing on sister to rule out fragile X

DNA testing is the same as molecular testing; in fragile X you specifically need DNA PCR to make the diagnosis
cytogenetics is microarray, FISH and karyotype

89
Q

In a child with Fragile X, all would be present EXCEPT:

a) motor delay
b) speech delay
c) microcephaly
d) large ears
e) autistic-like features

A

c) microcephaly

They have large heads

90
Q

Which condition is associated with macroglossia and an umbilical hernia:

a) congenital hyperthyroidism
b) infant of a diabetic mother
c) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
d) Down syndrome

A

c) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

91
Q

A 1-month-old child has macroglossia, hemihypertrophy, and an umbilical hernia, consistent with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. You recommend the following:

a) CT head
b) regular abdominal ultrasounds
c) intermittent checks for hypoglycemia
d) measurement of leg-length discrepancy
e) DNA testing for Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

b) regular abdominal ultrasounds

Re DNA testing - can make clinical diagnosis if 3 major criteria are present

92
Q

Characteristics of Schwachman-Diamond syndrome

a) decreased pancreatic enzyme excretion
b) normal neutrophil count
c) hypocellular bone marrow
d) increased risk of diabetes mellitus

A

a) decreased pancreatic enzyme excretion
- malabsorption, FTT
- also have neutropenia/myelodysplastic syndrome, bone marrow failure - make cells but cannot push them out, so marrow is not hypocellular
- bone abnormalities (thoracic dystrophy)

93
Q

Which of the following findings would help to rule out Klinefelter syndrome:

a) normal upper/lower body segment ratio
b) muscular habitus
c) testosterone level 5.0
d) testicular volume of 15 cc
e) behavioural/learning difficulties

A

d) testicular volume of 15 cc - have small testes (prepubertal even - 4ml)
- all the other options do also go against Klinefelters, but not strongly enough to rule it out

94
Q

Picture of child with Down Syndrome. Child noted to be hypotonic. Term, normal Weight. Questions is what test most expediously confirms diagnosis.

a. Chromosome analysis
b. TSH, T4
c. Muscle biopsy

A

a. Chromosome analysis

FISH or rapid aneuploidy testing would be quickest way get diagnosis (TAT 24-48h); but still need to do a karyotype after to see if there is a translocation

95
Q

1 week old infant with T21. What should be done prior to discharge home?

a. ABR
b. Ophthalmology consult
c. Abdo U/S
d. Echocardiogram

A

d. Echocardiogram

96
Q

14 y.o. with T21. What test should be done annually?

a. X-ray of cervical spine
b. TSH
c. Audiology
d. Ophthalmologic exam

A

b. TSH

c. Audiology

97
Q

vomiting infant with T21, next step? what are you worried about?

A

AXR - concern is for duodenal atresia; also consider Hirschsprung, bad GERD

98
Q

Beckwith-Wiedeman syndrome U/S. A question about how frequently ultrasound should be done.

A
  • AUS q3 months until age 8

- then annually from age 8-mid adolescence for kidney abnormalities, especiallymedullary sponge kidney

99
Q

Child with Wilm’s tumor. Which is associated?

a. Down syndrome
b. Prader-Willi syndrome
c. Beckwith-Weideman
d. Angelman’s syndrome

A

c. Beckwith-Weideman

100
Q
Child with large port wine stain in a distribution of the 1st trigeminal nerve. What do
you work him up for?
a. optic glioma
b. cerebral arteriovenous malformation
c. glaucoma
d. liver disease
A

c. glaucoma

Concern is for Sturge Weber

101
Q

Picture of a baby sucking on a pacifier and looking relatively content. Severe thrombocytopenia. Has a large lesion overlying his left forehead and eyelid (not a port-wine stain). What is the most likely finding on labs?

a. normal INR and PTT
b. elevated fibrinogen
c. schistocytes and RBC fragments on smear
d. neutropenia and anemia

A

c. schistocytes and RBC fragments on smear

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome (hemangioma with thrombocytopenia)

  • fibrinogen is decreased
  • can have anemia (MAHA), but not neutropenia