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Genetics and Biotechnology > Genetics and Biotechnology > Flashcards

Genetics and Biotechnology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the missing phrase in the statement below? The chromatin in eukaryotic cell nuclei consists of ………..

a) DNA and Protein
b) DNA and Carbohydrates
c) Carbohydrates and Protein
d) Carbohydrate and Enzymes

A

a) DNA and Protein

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2
Q

What is the correct definition of the term ‘cell cycle’?

a) The energy production system in a eukaryotic cell
b) The translation and transcription of encoded genetic information
c) The circular chromosome found in prokaryotic bacterial cells
d) The series of events in a eukaryotic cell from one cell division to the next

A

The series of events in a eukaryotic cell from one cell division to the next

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3
Q

How many round of cell division take place in eukaryotic meiotic cell division?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

A

Two

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4
Q

The ovine haploid chromosome number is 27. Ignoring recombination, how many chromosomal combinations can result during meiotic cell division in sheep?

a) 729
b) 54
c) 134,217,728
d) 443,426,488,243,038,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000

A

c) 134, 217,728

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5
Q

If mottled overo stallions are mated with mottled over mares what would be the expected phenotypic proportions of foals born?

a) 50% mottled overo foals : 25% solid coloured foals : 25% pure white stillborn foals
b) 25% mottled overo foals : 50% solid coloured foals : 25% pure white stillborn foals
c) 25% mottled overo foals : 25% solid coloured foals : 50% pure white stillborn foals
d) 33.3% mottled overo foals : 33.3% solid coloured foals : 33.3% pure white stillborn foals

A

a) 50% mottled overo foals : 25% solid coloured foals : 25% pure white stillborn foals

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6
Q

What is shown in the image?

a) A male human karyotype
b) A male porcine haplotype
c) A female porcine haplotype
d) A female human karyotype

A

d) A female human karyotype

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7
Q

Which of the following is the correct description of the ABO blood group system in humans?

a) The human ABO blood group system is controlled by three genes
b) The human ABO blood group system is controlled by a single gene with two codominant alleles and one recessive allele
c) The human ABO blood group system is controlled by a single gene with two recessive alleles and one lethal allele
d) The human ABO blood group system is controlled by a single gene with two codominant alleles and one lethal allele

A

b) The human ABO blood group system is controlled by a single gene with two codominant alleles and one recessive allele

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8
Q

Carefully examine the image shown below. What stage of mitotic cell division is represented in the image?

a) Anaphase
b) Telophase
c) Metaphase
d) Prophase

A

a) Anaphase

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9
Q

What is the term used to describe the genotype of an X-linked gene in male mammals?

a) Homozygous
b) Heterozygous
c) Hemizygous
d) Homogenous

A

c) Hemizygous

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10
Q

A scientist crosses two true- breeding varieties of pea plant. The first variety consists of plants that always produce yellow and round seeds. The second variety consists of plants that always produce green and wrinkled seeds. The F1 hybrid offspring from this mating consist if plants that all produce yellow and round seeds. What is the expected ratio of phenotypes in the F2 generation that is produced by mating the F1 generation plants with each other?

a) 9 yellow round : 3 yellow wrinkled : 3 green round : 1 green wrinkled
b) 1 yellow round : 3 yellow wrinkled : 3 green round : 9 green wrinkled
c) 3 yellow round : 9 yellow wrinkled : 1 green round : 3 green wrinkled
d) 3 yellow round : 1 yellow wrinkled : 9 green round : 3 green wrinkled

A

a) 9 yellow round : 3 yellow wrinkled : 3 green round : 1 green wrinkled

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11
Q

What is the definition of the term pleiotropy?

a) The action of one gene modifying the effects of other genes
b) The movement of the spindle during eukaryotic cell division
c) The genetic effect of a single gene on multiple phenotypic traits
d) The genetic exchange that takes place between homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiotic cell division

A

c) The genetic effect of a single gene on multiple phenotypic traits

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12
Q

Which of the following processes can enhance the evolutionary adaptation of a species to its environment?

a) Mutation
b) Gene flow
c) Genetic drift
d) Natural or artificial selection

A

d) Natural or artificial selection

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13
Q

The frequency of cystic fibrosis ( a recessive genetic disorder) in Ireland is approximately 1 in 1600. Therefore, assuming Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium(HWE) which of the answers below represents the best estimate of the frequency of the mutant cystic fibrosis allele in Irish population?

a) 0.250
b) 0.025
c) 0.050
d) 0.500

A

b) 0.025

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14
Q

Who first developed the concept of ‘genetic linkage map’?

a) James Watson and Francis Crick
b) Gregor Mendel
c) Thomas Hunt Morgan and Alfred Sturtevant
d) Linus Pauling

A

c) Thomas Hunt Morgan and Alfred Sturtevant

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15
Q

A colourblind woman has children with a man who has normal vision. What are the expected offspring proportions from this mating?

a) 50% carrier females : 50% colour-blind males
b) 50% normal females : 50% colour-blind males
c) 50% colour-blind females : 50% normal males
d) 50% carrier females : 50% normal males

A

a) 50% carrier females : 50% colour-blind males

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16
Q

What is the name of the structure identified with a question mark in the diagram below?

a) Dyad
b) Triad
c) Monad
d) Tetrad

A

d) Tetrad

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17
Q

S. Wright, J.B.S Haldane and R.A Fisher initiated which branch of genetics?

a) Molecular genetics
b) Population genetics
c) Plant genetics
d) Animal genetics

A

b) Population genetics

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18
Q

There is a mutant allele in a gene that controls eye shape in Drosophila termed gl (wild type allele gl+) that is located on Drosophila chromosome three. Flies homozygous for the mutant allele have small smooth egg shaped eyes (glass eyes). There is also a mutatnt allele in a gene that controls the number of hairs on the body of Drosophila flies termed h (wild type allele h+). This gene is also located on Drosophila chromosome three. Flies homozygous for the mutant allele have much hairier bodies than normal flies.

A cross is carried out as follows:

A doubly heterozygous female (gl+ gl h+ h) is crossed with a doubly homozygous recessive male (gl gl h h) and the following offspring numbers are obtained:

Gl+ gl h+ h Normal eyes normal body: 330
Gl gl h h Glass eyes hairy body: 320
Gl+ gl h h Normal eyes hairy body: 180
Gl gl h+ h Glass eyes normal body: 170

What is the recombination frequency between these two genes?

a) 0.35
b) 0.65
c) 0.50
d) 0.05

A

a) 0.35

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19
Q
  1. Under the assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium(HWE) what would be the expected genotype frequencies for a gene with two alleles (A and a) where the frequency of A is 0.60 and a is 0.40?

a) Frequency of AA genotype = 0.16
Frequency of aa genotype = 0.36
Frequency of Aa genotype = 0.48
b) Frequency of AA genotype = 0.48
Frequency of aa genotype = 0.16
Frequency of Aa genotype = 0.36
c) Frequency of AA genotype = 0.36
Frequency of aa genotype = 0.16
Frequency of Aa genotype = 0.48
d) Frequency of AA genotype = 0.36
Frequency of aa genotype = 0.48
Frequency of Aa genotype = 0.16

A

c) Frequency of AA genotype = 0.36
Frequency of aa genotype = 0.16
Frequency of Aa genotype = 0.48

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20
Q

Carefully examine the diagram shown below. What is the genetic process detailed in the diagram?

a) Repositioning
b) Reversion
c) Replication
d) Recombination

A

d) recombination

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21
Q

In a region of West Africa with a high incidence of malaria, the frequency of sickle cell anaemia (a recessive genetic disorder) in the human population is approximately 1 in 30. Therefore, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (HWE), which of the answers below represents the best estimate of the mutant sickle cell allele in this population?

a) 0.06
b) 0.18
c) 0.30
d) 0.03

A

b) 0.18

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22
Q

Scientific evidence suggests that the cheetah (Acinoyx jubatus) has undergone how many population constrictions that led to reduction in genetic variation?

a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) None

A

a) Two

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23
Q

An evolutionary founder event will act to..

a) Decrease genetic drift
b) Increase the rate of mutation
c) Increase genetic drift
d) Decrease the rate of mutation

A

c) Increase genetic drift

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24
Q

Based on what you know about purines and pyrimidines and base pairing, which of the following molecular schematics is correct?

a) Schematic A
b) Schematic B
c) Schematic C
d) Schematic D

A

a) Schematic A

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25
Q

Which of the following is the correct definition of the term genetic linkage?

a) Two genes on different chromosomes that have a chemical bridge between them
b) The relationship between two genes that are physically close on the same chromosome and tend to be transmitted from parents to offspring as a single unit
c) Two genes that influence the same phenotypic traits
d) The condensation of chromatin to form discrete chromosomes prior to cell division

A

b) The relationship between two genes that are physically close on the same chromosome and tend to be transmitted from parents to offspring as a single unit

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26
Q

Which of the following nitrogenous bases is not found in biological DNA?

a) Adenine
b) Cytosine
c) Guanine
d) Uracil

A

d) Uracil

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27
Q

Which of the following are removed from transcribed protein-coding RNA during messenger RNA processing in eukaryotes?

a) Axons
b) Protons
c) Exons
d) Introns

A

d) Introns

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28
Q

Which of the following is not thought to cause mutation on the sequence or structure of DNA molecules?

a) Exposure to a chemical mutagen
b) Exposure to X-ray radiation
c) Exposure to a magnetic field
d) Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation

A

c) Exposure to a magnetic field

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29
Q

What type of biomolecule is represented by the diagram shown below?

a) Transfer RNA (tRNA)
b) Polypeptide chain
c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase

A

a) Transfer RNA (tRNA)

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30
Q

The biochemical process of transcription is carried out by which molecule?

a) Restriction enzyme
b) RNA polymerase
c) The ribosome
d) DNA ligase

A

b) RNA polymerase

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31
Q

The ribosome is composed of…
a) Protein and DNA
b) Carbohydrate and RNA
c) Protein and carbohydrate
d) Protein and RNA

A

d) Protein and RNA

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32
Q

Which of the following will most dramatically change the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide?

a) The insertion of six nucleotides in the middle of a gene
b) A single nucleotide substitution in the middle of a gene
c) The deletion of four nucleotides in the middle of a gene
d) The deletion of three nucleotides in the middle of a gene

A

b) A single nucleotide substitution in the middle of a gene

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33
Q

How many start and stop codons are there in the genetic code?

a) Four
b) Three
c) Five
d) Two

A

a) four

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34
Q

Who of the following discovered the three-dimensional structure of DNA?

a) Gregor Mendel
b) James Watson and Francis Crick
c) Oswald Avery
d) Charles Darwin

A

b) James Watson and Francis Crick

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35
Q

Which of the following terms does not relate to the structure of DNA?

a) Hydrogen bond
b) Purine
c) Pyrimidine
d) Peptide

A

d) Peptide

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36
Q

The restriction enzyme BamHI cuts DNA at the following restriction site:
5’ GGATCC 3’
3’ CCTAGG 5’
How many double stranded fragments will results if the following DNA molecule is cut with BamHI?

a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) Five

A

d) Five

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37
Q

What is the function of the retroviral enzyme reverse transcriptase?

a) Enables virus to enter cellular membrane of host cell
b) Translates host DNA into viral proteins
c) Transcribes a DNA molecule from a single stranded viral RNA template
d) Lyses cell membrane to allow viral particles infect other cells

A

c) Transcribes a DNA molecule from a single stranded viral RNA template

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38
Q

Which of the following is not correct in relation to DNA agarose gel electrophoresis?

a) Ethidium bromide binds to double stranded DNA
b) DNA migrates from the positive to the negative electrode
c) Smaller DNA molecules migrate faster than larger DNA molecules
d) Ultraviolet (UV) light is used to visualise the DNA bands in the gel

A

b) DNA migrates from the positive to the negative electrode

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39
Q

What is the Sanger laboratory method used for?

a) Determining the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule
b) Cutting a DNA molecule into smaller fragments
c) Transcribing an RNA molecule from a DNA template molecule
d) Translating an RNA molecule into a polypeptide chain

A

a) Determining the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule

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40
Q

Which of the following is not a component of a typical PCR reaction?

a) Taq DNA polymerase enzyme
b) dATP, dCTP, dGTP and dTTP nucleotides
c) Synthetic single-stranded oligonucleotide DNA primers
d) DNA ligase enzyme

A

b) dATP, dCTP, dGTP and dTTP nucleotides

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41
Q

What is the 5’ to 3’ DNA sequence of the original template strand used for the sequencing reaction shown on the autoradiogram below?
Hint: the autoradiogram shows the newly synthesised complementary strand

a) 5’ AATGATCGTGCC 3’
b) 5’ TTACTAGCACGG 3’
c) 5’ UUACUAGCACGG 3’
d) 5’ CCGTGCTAGTAA 3’

A

a) 5’ AATGATCGTGCC 3’

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42
Q

The following diagram shows the temperature profile for the start of a typical PCR. What are the correct temperatures at each stage of the PCR reaction?

a) Temp A - 26˚C Temp B - 42˚C Temp C - 65˚C
b) Temp A - 71˚C Temp B - 95˚C Temp C - 112˚C
c) Temp A - 55˚C Temp B - 72˚C Temp C - 94˚C
d) Temp A - 37˚C Temp B - 54˚C Temp C - 72˚C

A

c) Temp A - 55˚C Temp B - 72˚C Temp C - 94˚C

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43
Q

What is the theoretical number of PCR amplicons expected after 40 cycles with a starting number of 10 target sequences?

a) 40 x 2^10 = 40960
b) 40 x 10^2 = 4000
c) 2 x 10^40
d) 10 x 2^40 = 10,995,116,277,760

A

d) 10 x 2^40 = 10,995,116,277,760

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44
Q

Which of the following is the correct name for a widely used gene that confers resistance to an antibiotic during bacterial cloning of recombinant DNA?

a) Amp^R
b) And^R
c) Anp^R
d) amd^R

A

Amp^R

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45
Q

Which of the following is the correct name for a widely used gene that metabolizes X-gal and differentiates recombinant from non-recombinant plasmids during bacterial cloning of recombinant DNA?

a) lucZ
b) lacZ
c) licZ
d) locZ

A

b) lacZ

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46
Q

Which of the following methods is not used to produce transgenic animals?

a) Microinjection of foreign DNA into embryo pronuclei
b) Replacement of an oocyte with the nucleus of a transgenic donor cell
c) Injection of DNA into an animal’s blood circulatory system using a hypodermic needle
d) Use of modified retroviruses as vectors to carry genes into an embryo

A

c) Injection of DNA into an animal’s blood circulatory system using a hypodermic needle

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47
Q

Which of the following bacterial species can be used to produce transgenic plants using recombinant Ti plasmids?

a) Escheridia coli
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Argobacterium tumefaciens

A

d) Argobacterium tumefaciens

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48
Q

What does the Ti stand for in Ti plasmid?

a) Transcript-inducing
b) Tumour-inducing
c) Transgene-inducing
d) Trait-inducing

A

b) Tumour - inducing

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49
Q

What percentage of transgenic offspring would be expected using transgenesis by transfer of transfected nuclei?

a) 1-5%
b) 0%
c) 50%
d) 100%

A

a) 1-5%

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50
Q

Transgenic Golden Rice was developed to alleviate deficiency of which vitamin in certain human populations?

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D

A

a) Vitamin A

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51
Q

Which of the following is the name of the small self-replicating DNA molecule found in bacteria that can be used as a cloning vector ?

a) Plasmid
b) Microsatellite
c) Chromatid
d) Amplicon

A

a) Plasmid

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52
Q

Which of the following is not correct in relation to DNA agarose gel electrophoresis ?

a) DNA migrates from the negative to the positive electrode
b) Smaller DNA molecules migrate slower than larger DNA molecules
c) Ultraviolet (UV) light is used to visualise the DNA bands in the gel
d) Ethidium bromide binds to the double stranded DNA

A

b) Smaller DNA molecules migrate slower than larger DNA molecules

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53
Q

What enzyme is used to seal the DNA sugar phosphate backbone between the cloning vector DNA and the DNA insert during molecular cloning?

a) DNA ligase
b) DNA sealing protein
c) Taq polymerase
d) DNA phosphatase

A

a) DNA ligase

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54
Q

What is the theoretical number of polymer chain reaction (PCR) amplicons expected after forty cycles with a starting number of 1 target sequence ?

a) 40 X 2 X 1 = 80
b) 40 X 40^1 = 1600
c) 1 X 2^40 = 1,099,511,627,776
d) 40 X 1^2 = 40

A

c) 1 X 2^40 = 1,099,511,627,776

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55
Q

During a typical polymerase chain reaction (PCR) cycle DNA samples are first heated to 94˚C and then cooled to 55˚C and then heated again to 72˚C. What are each of the different temperature steps ?

a) 94˚C = DNA denaturation step 55˚C = enzyme extension step 72˚C = primer annealing step
b) 94˚C = Primer annealing step 55˚C = DNA denaturation step 72˚C = enzyme extension step
c) 94˚C = DNA denaturation step 55˚C = primer annealing step 72˚C = enzyme extension step
d) 94˚C = Enzyme extension step 55˚C = DNA denaturation step 72˚C = primer annealing step

A

c) 94˚C = DNA denaturation step 55˚C = primer annealing step 72˚C = enzyme extension step

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56
Q

The method of sequencing DNA using dideoxynuclotide triphosphates (ddNTPs) is called what ?

a) The Watson and Crick DNA sequencing method
b) The Sanger DNA sequencing method
c) The Pauling DNA sequencing method
d) The Mendel sequencing method

A

b) The Sanger DNA sequencing method

57
Q

Which of the following is the correct name for the widely used gene that allows bacterial colonies carrying a DNA insert to be selected during the molecular cloning process based on their ability to metabolise the sugar X gal ?

a) LacZ
b) Amp^R
c) Taq polymerase gene
d) DNA ligase gene

A

a) LacZ

58
Q

What is the target region of a genome that is amplified during the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) ?

a) Genomicon
b) Plasmid
c) Anticodon
d) Amplicon

A

d) Amplicon

59
Q

EcoRI is a restriction enzyme that cuts DNA at a palindromic DNA sequence. Which of the following DNA sequences is palindromic and is the restriction sequence for EcoRI ?

a) 5’ – GAATTC – 3’
3’- CTTAAG – 5’
b) 5’ – GGGGGG-3’
3’- CCCCCC- 5’
c) 5’-TAATAA-3’
3’- ATTATT- 5’
d) 5’- CACACA-3’
3’- GTGTGT-5’

A

a) 5’ - GAATTC - 3’
3’ - CTTAAG - 5’

60
Q

What is the function of the enzyme DNA polymerases ?

a) Catalyses the synthesis of a new DNA molecule using a template DNA strand
b) Catalyses the synthesis of a new polypeptide molecules using a template DNA strand
c) Catalyses the synthesis of a new RNA molecule using a template DNA strand
d) Catalyses the synthesis of a new polysaccharide molecule using a template DNA strand

A

a) Catalyses the synthesis of a new DNA molecule using a template DNA strand

61
Q

What is the cellular process shown in the diagram below ?

a) Transformation
b) Transportation
c) Transcription
d) Translation

A

d) Translation

62
Q

What is the full term for the acronym Mrna?

a) Messenger ribose acid
b) Messenger ribonucleic acid
c) Messenger ribosome acid
d) Messenger restriction acid

A

b) Messenger ribonucleic acid

63
Q

The biochemical process of translation is carried out by which molecule ?

a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) The ribosome
d) DNA ligase

A

c) The ribosome

64
Q

Which of the following will most dramatically change the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide?

a) A single nucleotide substitution in the exon of a gene
b) Insertion of six nucleotides in the exon of a gene
c) A single nucleotide deletion in the exon of a gene
d) Deletion of three nucleotides in the exon of a gene

A

c) A single nucleotide deletion in the exon of a gene

65
Q

Examine the coding DNA sequence of a gene below (note only one of the strands is shown). A mutation has been discovered in this gene which changes a guanine nucleotide (G) to a adenine nucleotide (A) (Note the mutation is highlighted in underline and bold). The coding sequence of the normal gene and the mutated sequence of the gene are shown
Normal DNA sequence: TAC GGG CCC GTG
Normal mRNA sequence: AUG CCC GGG CAC
Normal polypeptide sequence: Met Pro Gly His
Mutant DNA sequence: TAC GG CCC GTA
Mutant mRNA sequence: AUG CCC GGG CAU
Mutant polypeptide sequence: Met Pro Gly His

a) A frameshift mutation
b) A missense mutation
c) A silent mutation
d) A nonsense mutation

A

c) A silent mutation

66
Q

When snapdragon plants that produce red flowers are crossed with snapdragon plants that produce white flowers the resulting offspring produce pink flowers. What Is the genetic term used to describe this phenomenon ?

a) Complete dominance
b) Imperfect dominance
c) Codominance
d) Incomplete dominance

A

d) Incomplete dominance

67
Q

Who is considered to be the father of genetics ?

a) Francis Crick
b) Gregor Mendel
c) James Watson
d) Charles Darwin

A

b) Gregor Mendel

68
Q

What is the meaning of the genetic term epistasis?

a) The situation when one gene has a multiple phenotypic effects
b) The situation when one gene alters the expression of another gene
c) The situation when a trait is controlled by one gene
d) The situation when a trait is controlled by one or more gene

A

b) The situation when one gene alters the expression of another gene

69
Q

What is the correct description for a diploid organism with a pair of identical alleles for a character ?

a) Heterogeneous
b) Heterozygous
c) Homozygous
d) Homogeneous

A

c) Homozygous

70
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Eukaryotic cells do not possess mitochondria in their cytoplasm
b) Prokaryotic cells do not contain proteins
c) Eukaryotic cells do not have a nuclear membrane
d) Prokaryotic cells do not have a nuclear membrane

A

d) Prokaryotic cells do not have a nuclear membrane

71
Q

What does r RNA stand for?

a) Reproducible RNA
b) Replicated RNA
c) Regular RNA
d) Ribosomal RNA

A

d) Ribosomal RNA

72
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes complementary base pairing in DNA ?

a) Guanine base (G) is always base paired with cytosine C via two hydrogen bonds
b) Guanine base is always paired with adenine (A) base via two hydrogen bonds
c) A thymine base (T) is always base paired with adenine via two hydrogen bonds
d) A thymine base is always paired with cytosine base via three hydrogen bonds

A

c) A thymine base (T) is always base paired with adenine via two hydrogen bonds

73
Q

What is the correct definition of the term cell cycle?

a) The energy production system in a eukaryotic cell
b) The translation and transcription of encoded genetic information
c) The circular chromosome found in prokaryotic bacterial cells
d) The series of events in a eukaryotic cell from one cell division to the next

A

d) The series of events in a eukaryotic cell from one cell division to the next

74
Q

What is the term used to describe the genotype of an X linked gene in male mammals ?

a) Homozygous
b) Heterozygous
c) Hemizygous
d) Homogeneous

A

c) Hemizygous

75
Q

What is the correct definition of the term pleiotrophy ?

a) The action of one gene modifying the effects of other genes
b) The movement of the spindle during eukaryotic cell division
c) The genetic effect of a single gene on multiple phenotypic traits
d) The genetic exchange that takes place between homologous chromosones during prophase I of meitotic cell division

A

c) The genetic effect of a single gene on multiple phenotypic traits

76
Q

The frequency of cystic fibrosis (a recessive genetic disorder) in Ireland is approximately 1 in 1600. Therefore assuming Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium which of the answers below represents the best estimate of the frequency of the mutant cystic fibrosis allele in the Irish population ?

a) 0.250
b) 0.025
c) 0.050
d) 0.500

A

b) 0.025

77
Q

39) In a region of west Africa with a high incidence of malaria, the frequency of sickle cell anaemia (a recessive genetic disorder) in the human population is 1 in 30. Therefore assuming Hardy Weinberg Equation (HWE) which of the answers below represents the best estimate of the mutant sickle cell anaemia in this population ?

a) 0.06
b) 0.18
c) 0.30
d) 0.03

A

b) 0.18

78
Q

Scientific evidence suggests that the cheetah (Acinoyx Jubatus) has undergone how many population constrictions that led to reductions in genetic variation ?

a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) None

A

a) 2

79
Q

An evolutionary founder event will act to ?

a) Decrease genetic drift
b) Increase rate of mutation
c) Increase genetic drift
d) Decrease the rate of mutation

A

c) Increase genetic drift

80
Q

Which of the following are removed from transcribed protein coding RNA during mRNA processing in eukaryotes ?

a) Axons
b) Protons
c) Exons
d) Introns

A

d) Introns

81
Q

Which of the following is not thought to cause mutation in the sequence or structure of DNA molecules ?

a) Exposure to chemical mutagen
b) Exposure to X Ray radiation
c) Exposure to a magnetic field
d) Exposure to Ultra Violet (UV) radiation

A

c) Exposure to a magnetic field

82
Q

The biochemical process of transcription is carried out by which molecule ?

a) Restriction enzyme
b) RNA polymerase
c) The ribosome
d) DNA ligase

A

b) RNA polymerase

83
Q

Which of the following terms does not relate to the structure of DNA ?

a) Hydrogen bond
b) Purine
c) Pyrimidine
d) Peptide

A

d) Peptide

84
Q

What is the function of the retroviral enzyme reverse transcriptase ?

a) Enables virus to enter cellular membranes of host cell
b) Translates host DNA into viral proteins
c) Transcribes a DNA molecule from a single stranded viral RNA template
d) Lyses cell membrane to allow viral particles infect other cells

A

c) Transcribes a DNA molecule from a single stranded viral RNA template

85
Q

Which of the following is not correct in relation to DNA agarose gel electrophoresis ?

a) Ethidium Bromide binds to double stranded DNA
b) DNA migrates from the positive electrode to the negative electrode
c) Smaller DNA molecules migrate faster than larger DNA molecules
d) UV light is used to visualise the DNA bands in the gel

A

b) DNA migrates from the positive electrode to the negative electrode

86
Q

52) The restriction enzyme BamHI cuts DNA molecules at the following restriction site
5’ – GGATCC -3’
3’ – CCTAGG-5’
How many double stranded fragments will results if the following DNA molecule is cut with BamHI

a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4

A

b) 5

87
Q

Which of the following methods is not used to produce transgenic animals ?

a) Microinjection of foreign DNA into embryo pro nuclei
b) Replacement of an oocyte nucleus with the nucleus of a transgenic donor cell
c) Injection of DNA molecules into an animals blood circulatory system using a hypodermic syringe
d) Use of modified retroviruses as vectors to carry genes into an embryo

A

c) injection of DNA molecules into an animals blood circulatory system using a hypodermic syringe

88
Q

Which of the following bacterial species can be used to produce transgenic plants using recombinant TI plasmids ?

a) Escherichia Coli
b) Haemophilus influenza
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

A

d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

89
Q

What does the Ti stand for in Ti plasmid ?

a) Transcript inducing
b) Tumour inducing
c) Transgene inducing
d) Trait inducing

A

b) Tumour inducing

90
Q

Transgenic golden rice was developed to alleviate deficiency of what vitamin in certain human populations

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D

A

a) Vitamin A

91
Q

Which of the following processes does not occur in the eukaryotic cells nucleus ?

a) DNA replication
b) Translation
c) RNA processing
d) Transcription

A

b) Translation

92
Q

With respect to population genetics, a gene pool consists of ?

a) The total of all alleles across all genetic loci in a population
b) The entire genome of a reproducing individual
c) All the gametes in a population
d) Only those alleles in a population subject to natural selection

A

a) The total of all alleles across all genetic loci in a population

93
Q

What was the mechanism of the evolution of species proposed by Charles Darwin in the Origin of Species published in 1859 ?

a) Mutation
b) Genetic Drift
c) Natural Selection
d) Random Mating

A

c) Natural Selection

94
Q

Which of the following statements is not true of a codon ?

a) Its consists of three nucleotides
b) It may code for more than one amino acid
c) It never codes for one or more amino acids
d) It’s the basic unit of genetic code

A

b) It may code for more than one amino acid

95
Q

Which of the following cellular components is not involved in the process known as translation ?

a) Mature mRNA
b) tRNA
c) RNA polymerase
d) Ribosomes

A

c) RNA polymerase

96
Q

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is ?

a) The part of the tRNA molecule that bonds to a specific amino acid
b) Complementary to the corresponding m RNA molecule
c) The part of the t RNA molecule that binds to the ribosome
d) Complementary to the corresponding nucleotide triplet in r RNA

A

b) Complementary to the corresponding m RNA molecule

97
Q

What is the size of the haploid human genome in base pairs ?

a) 3.2 kilo base pairs (kbp)
b) 3.2 mega base pairs (Mbp)
c) 6.4 Giga base pairs (Gbp)
d) 3.2 Giga base pairs (Gbp) = (Giga = 1 billion = 1X10^9)

A

d) 3.2 Giga base pairs (Gbp) = (Giga = 1 billion = 1 X 10 ^9)

98
Q

The combined human genome consists of the nuclear genome and the ?
a) Ribosomal genome
b) The golgi apparatus genome
c) The mitochondrial genome
d) The chloroplast genome

A

c) the mitochondrial genome

99
Q

What is meant by the term genetic drift ?

a) The random fluctuations in a populations genetic structure due to chance over time
b) The increase in frequency of a beneficial allele in a population over time
c) The decrease in frequency of a deleterious allele in a population over time
d) The observation that heterozygous individuals at a given genetic locus are better adapted to their environment than either homozygote

A

a) The random fluctuations in a populations genetic structure due to chance over time

100
Q

Examine the following mature m RNA sequence 5’ AUG-AAA-GCG-UUU-UGA-3’. Using genetic code what is the correct sequence of amino acids specified by this frame ?

a) MET – ALA – VAL – PHE- GLY – STOP
b) MET – LYS – ALA- SER – PHE – STOP
c) MET – THR – PRO – LEU – CYS- STOP
d) MET – ASP – VAL – SER – PHE – STOP

A

b) MET - LYS - ALA - SER - PHE - GLY - STOP

101
Q

Genetic studies have revealed a dearth of genetic variation in the Northern Elephant Seal populations. What is the major contributing factor that has resulted in this lack of variation ?

a) A major population founder effect in the 19th Century
b) A major population bottleneck effect in the 19th Century
c) No genetic mutations have occurred in the Northern elephant seal population since the 19th century
d) Natural selection has removed much of the genetic variation in this population since the 19th century

A

b) A major population bottleneck effect in the 19th Century

102
Q

72) Which of the following force of microevolution permits populations to become better adapted to their environment ?

a) Natural Selection
b) Genetic Drift
c) Mutation
d) Gene Flow

A

a) Natural Selection

103
Q

What type of biomolecule is represented by the diagram below ?

a) Transfer RNA (tRNA)
b) Polypeptide chain
c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase

A

a) Transfer RNA (tRNA)

104
Q

Flower colour in peas is controlled by a single gene for which there are two alleles P=Purple and p=white. Purple flower colour is dominant to white. The plant is homozygous for purple and for white flowers. What are the expected genotype frequencies of the offspring?

a) All offspring will have a Pp genotype
b) PP: pp 1:1
c) PP:pp 3:1
d) PP:Pp:pp 3:3:1

A

a) All offspring will have a Pp genotype

105
Q

What is the term used to describe the genetic phenomenon whereby a single gene can have multiple phenotypes?

a) Epistasis
b) Complete dominance
c) Pleiotropy
d) Codominance

A

c) Pleiotropy

106
Q

Hameophillia A is a blood clotting disorder caused by the mutation in the factor VII blood gene. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Hameophillia A is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder that affects males and females with the same severity and frequency
b) Hameophillia A is an X linked recessive genetic linked disorder that affects females more frequently than males
c) Hameophillia A is an X linked recessive genetic linked disorder that affects males and females with the same severity and frequency
d) Haemophilia A is an X linked recessive genetic disorder that affects males more severely and frequently than females

A

d) Haemophilia A is an X linked recessive genetic disorder that affects males more severely and frequently than females

107
Q

A point mutation which causes the reading frame of m RNA molecule to be altered is called?

a) Frameshift mutation
b) Silent mutation
c) A missense mutation
d) Nonsense mutation

A

a) Frameshift mutation

108
Q

Which of the following physical and chemical agents is not a mutagen ?

a) UV light
b) Heat
c) X Ray
d) Atomic radiation

A

b) Heat

109
Q

How many stop codons are there in the genetic code?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1

A

c) 3

110
Q

Which of the following is not a condition of the Hardy Weinberg Theorem ?

a) Mutation must occur in a population
b) The population must be very large
c) No natural selection occurs in the population
d) Random mating is occurring in the population

A

a) Mutation must occur in a population

111
Q

What is the name given to a model of DNA replication wherby the two DNA strand parental molecule separate and each single strand then functions as a template for the new complementary strand

a) Conservative replication
b) Semi conservative replication
c) Dispersive replication
d) Liberal replication

A

b) Semi conservative replication

112
Q

90) What molecule if responsible for transferring the correct amino acid at the size of translation ?

a) Translocation RNA
b) Transfer DNA
c) Transfer RNA
d) Transform RNA

A

c) Transfer RNA

113
Q

There is a mutant allele in a gene that controls eye shape in Drosophilia termed gl (wild type allele: gl+) that is located in Drosophilia chromosome three. Flies homozygous for the mutant allele have small smooth egg shaped eyes (glass eyes). There is also a mutant allele in a gene that controls the number of hairs on the body of Drosophilia flies termed h (wild type allele h+). This gene is also located on Drosophillia chromosome 3. Flies homozygous for the mutant allele have much harrier bodies than normal flies.
A cross is carried out as follows
A doubly heterozygous female (gl+g h+h) is crossed with a doubly homozygous recessive male (gl gl h h) and the following offspring numbers are obtained
* gl+ gl h+ h Normal eyes normal body 330
* gl gl h h Glass eyes hairy body 320
* gl+ gl h h Normal eyes hairy body 180
* gl gl h+ h Glass eyes normal body 170

What is the recombination frequency between these two genes ?

a) 0.35
b) 0.65
c) 0.50
d) 0.05

A

a) 0.35

114
Q

Which of the following is not involved in translation?

a) Mature mRNA
b) T RNA
c) RNA polymerase
d) Ribosomes

A

c) RNA polymerase

115
Q

The bovine haploid number is 30. Ignoring recombination how many chromosomal combinations can result during meitotic cell division in cattle ?

a) 60
b) 30
c) 1,073,741,824 (i.e.230)
d) 900

A

c) 1,073,741,824 (i.e 2^30)

116
Q

The anticodon of a particular TRNA molecule is?

a) The part of the TRNA molecule that bonds to a specific amino acid
b) Complementary to the corresponding m RNA codon
c) The part of the TRNA molecule that binds to the ribosome
d) Complementary to the corresponding nucleotide triplet in a gene’s DNA sequence

A

b) Complementary to the corresponding m RNA codon

117
Q

96) Which of the following codon sequences represents the eukaryotic START codon ?

a) CCU
b) UUU
c) AUG
d) AAA

A

c) AUG

118
Q

What does DNA stand for?

a) Disulfiderderibonucleic acid
b) Deoxyribonucleic acid
c) Dideoxyribonucleic acid
d) Dueteriumribonucleic acid

A

b) Deoxyribonucleic acid

119
Q

James Watson and Francis Crick along with Maurice Wilkins won the Nobel Prize in 1962 for what scientific breakthrough reported in 1953?

a) The discovery of DNA in genetic material
b) The elucidation of the genetic code
c) The elucidation of the 3 dimensional structure of DNA
d) A method to sequence DNA

A

c) The elucidation of the 3 dimensional structure of DNA

120
Q

Which of the following best describes during the metaphase of mitosis ?

a) The cells chromosomes (in the form of sister chromatids) align along a central plain in the dividing cell
b) The cells genetic material is replicated
c) The cells genetic material condenses into chromosomes
d) The cells cytoplasm replicates

A

a) The cells chromosomes (in the form of sister chromatids) align along a central plain in the dividing cell

121
Q

During the cell cycle when is the cells genetic material (i.e. the genome) replicated?

a) G1 Phase
b) G2 Phase
c) S Phase
d) M Phase

A

S Phase

122
Q

Colour blindness in humans is an X linked recessive disorder. A female who is colour blind marries a colour blind man. If the couple have children what will the phenotypes of the offspring be ?

a) All children will be colour blind
b) None will be colour blind
c) Only male children will be colour blind
d) Only female children will be colour blind

A

a) All children will be colour blind

123
Q

When short horn cattle with red coat colour are bred with short horn cattle with white coat the resulting progeny all display roan coat colour in which red hairs are intermingled with white hairs. This genetic phenomenon is an example of # ?

a) Pleiotropy
b) Complete dominance
c) Blending inheritance
d) Co-dominance

A

d) Co-dominance

124
Q

What is mitosis ?
a) A form of cell division in which a diploid parent cell gives rise to four genetically identical haploid gametes
b) A form of cell division in which a diploid parent gives rise to two genetically identical daughter cells
c) A form of cell division in which a diploid parent gives rise to four genetically different haploid gametes
d) A stage of the cell cycle where the cells genetic material is replicated

A

b) A form of cell division in which a diploid parent gives rise to two genetically identical daughter cells

125
Q

Which of the following is not a function of mitosis ?

a) Cell repair
b) Gamete production
c) Organism growth
d) Organism development

A

b) Gamete production

126
Q

Which of the following best describes the composition of chromatin?

a) DNA only
b) Protein only
c) A complex of DNA and protein
d) Complex of protein and polysaccharide

A

c) A complex of DNA and Protein

127
Q

What is the name of the pentose sugar found in DNA ?
a) Deoxyribose
b) Ribose
c) Dideoxyribose
d) Deoxyglucose

A

a) Deoxyribose

128
Q

What is the name of the organelle that facilitates the translation of messenger RNA into a polypeptide ?

a) Mitochondrion
b) Ribosome
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Centrioles

A

b) Ribosome

129
Q

What is meiosis?

a) A form of cell division in which a diploid parent cell gives rise to four genetically identical haploid gametes
b) A form of cell division in which a diploid parent cell gives rise to four genetically different haploid gametes
c) A stage of the cell cycle where the cells genetic material is replicated
d) A form of cell division where two genetically identical diploid daughter cells are produced

A

b) A form of cell division in which a diploid parent cell gives rise to four genetically different haploid gametes

130
Q

With respect to human genetics which of the following regarding the human chromosome number is true?

a) The haploid number (n) of human chromosome is 46
b) The diploid number (2n) of human chromosome is 23
c) The diploid number 2n of human chromosome is 30
d) The haploid number n of human chromosome is 23

A

d) The haploid number n of human chromosome is 23

131
Q

Which of the following does not contribute to the genetic variation that arises between generations?

a) Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis
b) The crossing over of non -sister chromatids during meiosis
c) Random fertilisation of gametes
d) The crossing over of sister chromatids during meiosis

A

d) The crossing over of sister chromatids during meiosis

132
Q

Who wrote the book on the origin of the species ?

a) Gregor Mendel
b) Charles Darwin
c) James Watson
d) Francis Crick

A

b) Charles Darwin

133
Q

The frequency of a recessive genetic disease causing allele q in a population is estimated at 0.2. The population is comprised of 1000 individuals. Assuming Hardy Weinberg Equation how many individuals are predicted to be affected by the disorder?

a) 40
b) 140
c) 100
d) 60

A

a) 40

134
Q

Positive natural selection will act to ?

a) Decrease the frequency of favourite allele in a population
b) Increase the frequency of a favourite allele in a population
c) Have no effect on the allele frequency in a population
d) None of the above

A

b) Increase the frequency of a favourite allele in a population

135
Q

What’s the most extreme form of inbreeding

a) Self -fertilisation
b) Mating between brother and sister
c) Mating between parent and child
d) All of the above

A

a) Self fertilisation

136
Q

What is Microevolution?

A

Microevolution is the change in allele/ and or genotype frequencies of a population from one generation to the next

137
Q

What’s the phenomenon called where some transfer RNA anticodons recognise two or more different codons ?

a) Topple
b) Wobble
c) Bobble
d) None of the above

A

b) Wobble

138
Q

Which of the following best represents the correct sequence of events during the process of gene expression?

a) DNA – RNA – polypeptide – protein
b) RNA – DNA – protein – polypeptide
c) Protein – polypeptide – RNA – DNA
d) Polypeptide – protein – RNA – DNA

A

a) DNA - RNA - polypeptide - protein

139
Q

What insect is considered to be the workhorse of genetics ?

a) The fruit fly (Drosophilia Monogaster)
b) Blue bottle
c) Green Fly
d) Dragonfly

A

a) The fruit fly (Drosophillia Monogaster)

Genetics and Biotechnology (1 decks)

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