Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

From which parent is the mitochondrial DNA inherited?

A

Mother

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2
Q

What is an allele?

A

A variation of the same gene

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3
Q

What is meant by Dominant Autosomal?

A

Characteristic is dominant if it manifests in a heterozygote
This characteristic is then expressed in the phenotype
Certain genes being activated (dominant gene), triggers a change in the phenotype

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4
Q

What is a dominant autosomal disorder?

A

Single gene disease or trait passed down to offspring with multiple generations affected
Each affected child normally has one affected parent
Each child of an affected person has a 1 in 2 chance of being affected

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5
Q

What is meant by a vertical pedigree pattern?

A

Males and females are equally affected and equally likely to pass on the condition

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6
Q

How could you make a genetic mutation dominant?

A

Mutations resulting from a DNA expansion of a CAG repeat on chromosome

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7
Q

What are the three consequences a dominant autosomal disorder can incur?

A
  • *Gain of function** - Gene now makes a protein with a new function, e.g - longer lifespan or new location to increase effect
  • *Dominant negative effect** - Mutated form interferes with the activity of proteins it binds to, e.g - dimers reduce activity
  • *Insufficient** - Mutant in one gene results in 1/2 amount of a protein that is not enough for normal function
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8
Q

What is meant by an Autosomal Recessive Disorder?

A

2 copies of recessive allele must be present in order for trait/disease to develop
Tend to be ‘loss of function’ mutations

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9
Q

What do carriers of autosomal recessive disorders have?

A

Lost a single copy of a gene but the normal one is sufficient enough to maintain normal function

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10
Q

What is the lowest probability that a sibling of an affected child will be affected?

A

25% (1 in 4)

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11
Q

What does a horizontal pedigree pattern show?

A

Affected individuals are often seen in more than one child in a family and not in all generations

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12
Q

What effect does consanguinity have on the occurrence of autosomal recessive disorders?

A

Increases probability of occurrence

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13
Q

Which sex do X-linked disorders (recessive) mainly affect and why?

A

Males - only one X chromosome so it is effectively dominant

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14
Q

If a father is affected by X-linked dominant disorder, what will be the effects on the sons and daughters?

A

No sons will be affected

All daughters will be affected

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15
Q

Why might X-linked dominant disorders affect males and females differently?

A

Females can be less affected because the normal X gene may be active in some cells rather than the mutant gene
The process is called X inactivation and is random

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16
Q

What is usually an effect of X-linked dominant disorders?

A

Increase of current function

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17
Q

What is meant by a Y-linked disorder?

A

Only affects males

All sons of an affected father are affected

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18
Q

If a father is affected by a mitochondrial disease, what is the effect on the children?

A

None are affected
Mitochondrial DNA will not be passed down by the father, however, if the mother was affected, all the children would be affected

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19
Q

What causes mitochondrial disease variability and what does the severity of symptoms depend on?

A

Random segregation of genes during binary fission so some mutant forms may be removed from a mitochondrion
Depends on the number of affected mitochondria as in the future more mutant mitochondria may accumulate to become a larger proportion of the mitochondria in the organism

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20
Q

How you would show a carrier of an autosomal and one of an x-linked trait on a pedigree diagram?

A

Autosomal - square/circle half-shaded

X-linked - circle with a black dot in the center

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21
Q

How you would show someone who is deceased on a pedigree diagram?

A

With a diagonal line across the square/circle (top part of line on right side and bottom on left)

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22
Q

How you would show the first person who sought medical attention on a pedigree diagram and what are they called?

A

They’re called proband. Shown as an arrow pointing to the bottom left corner of their symbol (circle/square)

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23
Q

How are monozygotic twins drawn on a pedigree diagram?

A

Their lines have the same origin (like the top vertex of a triangle) and there is a horizontal line connecting them.

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24
Q

How are dizygotic twins drawn on a pedigree diagram?

A

Their lines have the same origin (like the top vertex of a triangle) with no horizontal line connecting them.

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25
Q

What are the conditions for a pedigree diagram to show an Autosomal Dominant trait?

A

Vertical Transmission
Not all offspring affected usually
Males and Females can be affected
At least one affected parent - can be mother or father

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26
Q

What are the conditions for a pedigree diagram to show an X-linked recessive trait?

A

Not all generations are affected
Not all offspring are affected
Only females affected if father is affected

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27
Q

What are the conditions for a pedigree diagram to show a Mitochondrial-inherited trait?

A
Vertical transmission
All generations affected
All offspring affected
Males and females affected
Inherited from mother
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28
Q

What are the conditions for a pedigree diagram to show an Autosomal Recessive trait?

A

Usually no history of family disease / Distant relative affected
Horizontal Transmission
Males and females affected

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29
Q

Describe the steps involved when calculating the risk that a person is a carrier of an inherited disease?

A

Work with the closest relatives on either side of the proband’s family
Multiply risks of each person carrying the disease to find the probability that the proband is a carrier

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30
Q

Is Type VIIII more or less severe than Type I Osteogenesis Imperfect?

A

More severe

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31
Q

In Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN1), why do not all people with a mutation in the MEN1 tumor suppressor gene develop the same type of adenoma at the same time?

A

A second event has to occur to promote tumor formation, which is based on environmental differences

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32
Q

Why do only 10% of people with hereditary hemochromatosis have clinically relevant iron accumulation?

A

Dietary load of iron can vary considerably

Lower levels of intake are associated with improved disease prognosis

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33
Q

What causes the difference in disease progression between Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy?

A

In DMD there is a frameshift deletion in the dystrophin gene and so no active dystrophin is produced
In Becker Muscular dystrophy the mutation does not result in a frame shift and so active dystrophin is produced whilst in shorter form, retains activity

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34
Q

What is a trinucleotide repeat expansion?

A

Mutation in which a region of 3 repeated nucleotides in the genome increases in number during DNA replication
As the number of repeats increases, it reaches a threshold above which they are no longer stable during DNA replication and the number of repeats increases each subsequent round of DNA replication
This alters protein function
Greater number of repeats results in a more severe phenotype. Therefore, usually, future generations have more severe phenotypes.

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35
Q

What is meant by karyotype?

A

An individual’s collection of chromosomes

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36
Q

How do you prepare a karyotype?

A
  1. Collect ~5ml ** heparinized venous blood** (can use amniotic cells or chronic villus sample - CVS)
  2. Isolate white cells
  3. Culture in presence of phytohemagglutinin (stimulates T-lymphocyte growth and differentiation)
  4. After 48 hours add colchicine (causes mitotic arrest - do at metaphase or prophase)
  5. Place in hypotonic saline
  6. Place on the slide
  7. Fix and stain (Gisema stain or fluorescent stain)
  8. Cut out the individual chromosomes and arrange them in a karyotype.
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37
Q

What is meant by chromatin?

A

A substance within a chromosome consisting of DNA and protein

38
Q

What are the 5 common structures, identified by the G-banded architecture of a chromosome?

A
Telomere on either end of the chromosome
p-arm (short)
q-arm (long)
G-dark and G-light bands
Centromere
39
Q

How do you refer to the small aberrations within chromosomes?

A
State chromosome number
State whether they are on the p or q arm
State their band number (based on position from centromere)
State their sub-band number
If possible state Sub-sub-band feature
40
Q

What does bphs stand for?

A

Bands per haploid set

41
Q

What do the darker regions of a chromosome karyotype mean?

A

Dark = heterochromatin - more compact, fewer genes

42
Q

What do the lighter regions of a chromosome karyotype mean?

A

Light = euchromatin - more open, more genes

43
Q

Why are karyotypes performed more in Prophase rather than Metaphase?

A

Because the chromosomes are less compact and therefore you get more detail from the karyotype

44
Q

What is meant by Aneuploidy?

A

An abnormal number of chromosomes

45
Q

What is the purpose of meiosis?

A

To achieve reduction from diploid (2n = 46) to haploid (n = 23)
To ensure genetic variation in the gametes

46
Q

What method of genetic variation does meiosis enable?

A

Random assortment of homologs

Recombination

47
Q

What is non-disjunction and what does it result in?

A

When chromosomes are not split properly between daughter cells
Always results in either 1+ (trisomy) or 1- (monosomy) chromosomes

48
Q

Can non-disjunction occur in meiosis I or meiosis II?

A

Both

49
Q

What is the most common form of chromosomal abnormality?

A

Sex chromosome aneuploidy

50
Q

Why is sex imbalance tolerated?

A

X-inactivation of excess X chromosomes = Only 1 X chromosome active
Low gene content of Y chromosome

51
Q

Why, if inactivated, does abnormal number X have an effect?

A

Both X and Y chromosome have a PAR (pseudo-autosomal region)

PAR still produces genes in this region

52
Q

What is the second most common chromosomal abnormality in live births?

A

Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)

53
Q

What is this abnormality due to?

A

3 copies of chromosome 21

Non-disjunction during maternal meiosis (85-90%)

54
Q

What is the correlation between maternal age and cases of trisomy per 1000 births?

A

As maternal age increases, the number of cases rises exponentially

55
Q

Why is it then, that 75% of children with Down syndrome are born to mothers under 35?

A

Because 90% of children are born to mothers at this age

56
Q

Why does this correlation exist?

A

The older the mother, the longer the oocyte has been in the state of meiosis
So chromosomes do not line up as neatly during metaphase
Likely due to the degradation of factors that hold homologous chromatids together

57
Q

Why does non-disjunction occur in spermatogenesis?

A

Primary spermatocyte undergoes ~ 23 mitotic divisions per year and potentially accumulate defects

58
Q

Is paternal age a risk factor of aneuploidy?

A

No

59
Q

What is the risk factor increasing the chances of paternal involvement in aneuploidy?

A

Smoking

60
Q

Monosomy in which chromosome resulted in the most miscarriages?

A

21

61
Q

Trisomy in which chromosome resulted in the most miscarriages?

A

16

62
Q

What do the terms qter and pter refer to?

A

Tip of the long arm of the chromosome

Tip of the short arm of the chromosome

63
Q

What is ‘der’ an abbreviation of?

A

Derivative chromosome (contains extra material)

64
Q

What are ‘ins’ and ‘inv’ abbreviations for?

A

Insertion (unidirectional transfer of genetic material)
Inversion (breaks in the chromosome where the bit of chromosome that broke off rotates and stays upside down inside the chromosome)

65
Q

What is the abbreviation for translocation?

A

t (bidirectional transfer of genetic material)

66
Q

What does a +/- before a chromosome number tell us about it?

A

Gain/loss whole chromosome

67
Q

What does a +/- after a chromosome number tell us about it?

A

Gain/Loss of part of a chromosome

68
Q

In what phase does the crossing over of chromosomes occur?

A

Prophase I

69
Q

What is the purpose of Crossing Over?

A

To increase genetic diversity

70
Q

How does Crossing Over occur?

A

Pairs of chromosomes align
Chiasma form
Crossover occurs

71
Q

How often does Crossing Over occur?

A

1-3 times per chromosome per meiosis

72
Q

Explain how Unequal Crossing Over occurs?

A

Chromosomes do not align correctly at centromeres
Unequal lengths of chromatids are exchanged
Leading to deletion of genes in one chromosome
And duplication of genes in the other chromosome

73
Q

What are the reasons for the deletion of genes in single chromosome abnormalities?

A

Unequal crossing over
Breaks in chromosome
Can occur at the ends

74
Q

What are the 2 types of inversion in single chromosome abnormalities?

A

Paracentric inversion - Breaks in chromosome occur in the middle of the chromosome arm & that section of the chromosome is inverted, creating a reinvented piece of DNA
Pericentric inversion - Breaks occur around the centromere & that section of the chromosome is inverted, creating a reinvented piece of DNA

75
Q

Explain how the insertion occurs in 2-chromosome abnormalities

A

A section of chromosome from one chromosome is inserted into another chromosome
Resulting in duplication in one chromosome
And deletion in the other

76
Q

Describe how translocation can occur in 2-chromosome abnormalities and what this means for the patient

A

Section of one chromosome exchanged with the section from another chromosome
If this occurs in a balanced fashion, the carrier is unaffected
May cause problems in offspring if they inherit one or the other
The derivative chromosomes in an unbalanced fashion can result in partial trisomy or monosomy

77
Q

What results from the derivative chromosome during translocation in an unbalanced fashion?

A

Trisomy

Or monosomy

78
Q

What is the theoretical % chance that the child of a parent with translocation of chromosomes will be affected?

A

50% as there is a 2 in 4 chance that there will be an unbalance

79
Q

What is meant by a Microscopic chromosomal deletion?

A

Deletion of chromosome can be detected easily in a microscope

80
Q

What is meant by Chromosomal Microdeletion?

A

Deletion can be seen in high-resolution banding

81
Q

What causes William’s syndrome?

A

7q11.23 deletion

82
Q

What are the symptoms of William’s syndrome?

A
Long philtrum
Slightly upturned nose
Lack social anxiety
Arched eyebrows
Supravalvular aortic stenosis
83
Q

What are the phenotypes of William’s syndrome caused by?

A

Imbalance of genes that are unrelated apart from their genomic location

84
Q

What are some of the symptoms of 7q11.23 duplication syndrome?

A
Delayed speech development
Autistic behaviors
Dilation of aorta
Flat eyebrows
Broad nose and short philtrum
85
Q

Compare the general phenotypes of duplication and their reciprocal deletion

A

Duplications usually have a milder phenotype than the reciprocal deletion

86
Q

Describe the 3 classes of chromosomes

A

Metacentric - Short arm p and long arm q
Submetacentric - short arm considerably shorter than the long arm
Acrocentric - short arm has been reduced to a short stump

87
Q

Which chromosomes are generally acrocentric in humans?

A
13
14
15
21
22
88
Q

What type of translocation can only acrocentric chromosomes undergo?

A
Robertsonian translocation (the p-arms of both chromosomes are lost and the q-arms of both chromosomes translocate to form a single chromosome)
Results in them having a normal version of both chromosomes and one translocated chromosome
89
Q

Can this type of translocation be homologous or non-homologous?

A

Both

90
Q

Explain the mechanism behind this type of translocation?

A

Both p arms of the 2 different acrocentric chromosomes are removed
The remaining long arms join together - Robertsonially translocating to form a derivative chromosome

91
Q

If this occurs during the development, most people are unaffected but why might their offspring still be affected?

A

Because the parents are carriers