Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

List the 7 types of congenital abnormalities and birth defects.

A
Malformation
Disruption
Dysplasia
Sequence
Association
Deformation
Syndrome
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2
Q

Define dysplasia.

A

Abnormal organisation of cells into tissue

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3
Q

What is the most common cause of Sequence e.g. Potter Sequence?

A

Oligohydramnios – reduced supply of amniotic fluid

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4
Q

What are the 3 types of chromosome?

A

Metacentric
Submetacentric
Acrocentric

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5
Q

Describe how chromosome banding works.

A

Starts at 11 at the centromere – different banding for different stains

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6
Q

What are the three different types of chromosomal abnormality?

A

Aneuploidy
Structural
Mosaicism

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7
Q

What is mosaicism?

A

The cells of an individual do not all contain identical chromosomes. There may be two or more genetically different populations of cells. E.g. one cell lineage will be Down Syndrome

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8
Q

What is the difference between a balanced and unbalanced translocation?

A

Unbalanced – there is a loss of genetic material

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9
Q

What could be the potential future issues for someone who has a balanced translocation?

A

Balanced translocations lead to the formation of quadravalents (rather than bivalents) during meiosis which can lead to strange exchanges in genetic material which can cause disease

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10
Q

List some clinical features of Down Syndrome.

A
Excess nuchal skin, sleepy, severe hypotonia 
Single palmar crease, sandal gap
Upwards slanting eye folds, macroglossia
Short stature
Cardiac abnormalities – ASD and VSD
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11
Q

List three possible causes of Down syndrome.

A

Non-disjunction during meiosis I or meiosis II
Robertsonian translocation – 2 acrocentric chromosomes break at the centromere and fuses to form a new chromosome
Mosaicism

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12
Q

What is monosomy X in females and what are the clinical features?

A

Turner Syndrome – webbed neck, infertile, normal intelligence, low posterior hairline

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13
Q

What is polysomy X in males and what are the clinical features?

A

Kleinfelter’s syndrome – tall, gynaecomastia, infertile, learning disability

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14
Q

How can someone who has sex chromosomes XX be male?

A

Due to a translocation in which the sex determining region on the Y (SRY) has been translocated onto the X chromosome.

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15
Q

What are genomic disorders?

A

Disorders in which there is a gain or loss of DNA

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16
Q

Give an examples of two genomic disorders.

A

Deletion – Di George syndrome

Duplication – Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease Type 1A

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17
Q

State the differences between monogenic and complex diseases.

A

Monogenic diseases are rare, have a clear inheritance pattern and are not affected by environmental factors
Complex diseases are the opposite

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18
Q

State the difference between mutations and polymorphisms.

A

Mutations are any changes in genetic material that are hereditary
Polymorphisms are mutations which occur at >1% frequency in the population

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19
Q

State two different types of point mutations.

A

Non-sense and mis-sense

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20
Q

State two types of frame shift mutations.

A

insertion and deletion (InDel)

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21
Q

Give an example of an autosomal dominant disease and the mechanism of action.

A

Huntingdon’s Disease – mutations in the HTT gene on Chr 4, which codes for huntingtin. Mutation leads to production of a toxic protein that accumulates and forms clumps in organs. Causes cell death in the basal ganglia in the brain. It is caused by an unstable CAG repeat – the more repeats you have the more likely you are to get HD. Severity increases with time and age of onset decreases.

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22
Q

Give an example of an autosomal recessive disease and the mechanism of action.

A

Cystic Fibrosis – caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene on Chr 7, which affects chloride ion function in epithelial cells. Gives rise to thick mucus.

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23
Q

Give an example of a mutation in the same gene causing two different conditions.

A

Congenital absence of the vas deferens – caused by mutations in CFTR

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24
Q

Give an example of a X-linked recessive condition.

A

Haemophilia A and B – A is caused by a mutation in the F8 gene on Chr X which encodes factor VIII.
B – caused by mutation in F9 gene which encodes factor IX

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25
Q

What are the general molecular mechanisms of the different types of genetic disease (autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, co-dominant)?

A

Dominant – toxic product produced (treatment aims to neutralise toxic product)
Recessive – absence of functional protein (treatment aims to regain function

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26
Q

What happens if the full genome of an embryo derives from one parent and what is the significance of this finding?

A

Paternal – hydatidiform mole
Maternal – ovarian teratoma
Shows that the origin of the parental DNA is important

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27
Q

What is the mechanism of imprinting?

A

DNA Methylation

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28
Q

Which base gets methylated?

A

5’ position on the pyrimidine ring of the cytosine

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29
Q

What is the general effect of methylation on the gene promoter?

A

Repressed gene transcription

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30
Q

The loss of function of a gene on which chromosome causes Prader-Willi and Angelman Syndrome?

A

Chromosome 15

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31
Q

State some symptoms of Prader-Willi Syndrome.

A
Hyperphagia
Obesity
Mental Retardedness
Short Stature
Hypotonia
Infertility
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32
Q

State some symptoms of Angelman Syndrome.

A

Microcephaly
Poor or absent speech
Gait ataxia
Severe developmental delay

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33
Q

What are the three possible causes of Prader-Willi and Angelman Syndrome?

A

Deletion of the PWS/AS critical region on chromosome 15
Uniparental isodisomy
Other mechanisms e.g. translocations

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34
Q

Describe how uniparental isodisomy can lead to Prader-Willi and Angelman Syndrome.

A

Non-disjunction in meiosis 2 makes a gamete that has two copies of chromosome 15 resulting in a zygote with three copies of chromosome 15.
Failure to remove the duplicated chromosome results in the zygote having two copies of chromosome 15 from the same parent.

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35
Q

How is PWS and AS diagnosed? Which genes near/in the PWS/AS critical region are used?

A

FISH – fluorescence in situ hybridisation
PML (promyelocytic leukaemia) gene is just outside the PWS/AS critical region
snRNP (small nuclear ribonucleoprotein) gene is inside the PWS/AS critical region

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36
Q

What phenomenon determines the severity of mitochondrial disease?

A

Heteroplasmy

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37
Q

State two examples of mitochondrial disease.

A

MELAS and LHON

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38
Q

State some symptoms of MELAS.

A

Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy (muscle weakness)
Lactic Acidosis (vomiting, diarrhoea)
Stroke
Episodic seizures, headache, hemiparesis

39
Q

What mutations cause MELAS?

A

MTTL1 – tRNA translated codon as Phenylalanine instead of leucine
MTND1 and MTND5 – NADH Dehydrogenase subunits 1 and 5

40
Q

State some symptoms of LHON.

A

Painless bilateral loss of central vision leading to blindness

41
Q

Mutations in what genes cause LHON?

A

MTND1, 4,5 and 6 – NADH Dehydrogenase subunits 1, 4, 5 and 6

MTCYB – cytochrome B

42
Q

Give two examples of inborn errors of metabolism.

A

Phenylketonuria and MCAD deficiency

43
Q

State some symptoms of Phenylketonuria.

A

Mental retardation
Blonde hair/blue eyes
Eczema

44
Q

How is phenylketonuria detected?

What is the treatment for PKU?

A

Elevated levels of phenylalanine in the blood

Remove phenylalanine from the diet

45
Q

What is a common feature of MCAD Deficiency?

A

Episodic Hypoketotic Hypoglycaemia

46
Q

What is the treatment for MCAD Deficiency?

A

Maintain adequate calorie intake to prevent the body from switching to beta-oxidation.

47
Q

What are the normal functions of tumour suppressor genes?

A
Regulate cell division
Regulates apoptosis
Regulates DNA Repair
Monitors DNA damage checkpoint
TSG is recessive
48
Q

Describe the two hit hypothesis.

A

It takes two hits (both TSG must be mutated) for a cancer to start
The first hit is usually a mutation
The second hit is usually a larger deletion that removes the other allele and hence the function of the gene completely

49
Q

What is ‘haploinsufficiency’?

A

The idea that it only takes one hit to give the cell a selective advantage – a 50% decrease in protein is sufficient to give the cell a selective advantage

50
Q

What is a common manifestation of the second hit?

A

Loss of heterozygosity – the deletion could remove other genes that are part of a heterozygous pair
This means that that gene then appears homozygous as one of the alleles has been lost

51
Q

What genes predispose to breast and ovarian cancer and what is the lifetime risk?

A

BRCA1 and BRCA2

60%

52
Q

Describe the patho-genetic mechanism of BRCA genes.

A

BRCA genes are DNA repair genes (specifically, a process called homologous recombination)
When these DNA repair genes are mutated the DNA repair proteins are impaired leading to dysfunctional DNA repair proteins which causes many further mutations

53
Q

What are two diseases that predispose to colorectal cancer and what are the relative risks?

A

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis – nearly 100%

Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) – 80%

54
Q

What are ‘cytogenic changes’?

A

Visible changes in chromosome structure or number

55
Q

Describe, broadly speaking, how translocations can cause cancer.

A

The translocation could lead to the formation of a new fusion gene that encodes a protein that has oncogenic properties

56
Q

Explain the cause of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia.

A

Translocation between chromosome 9 and 22
BCR gene from chromosome 22 and ABL gene from chromosome 9 fuse in the newly formed Philadelphia chromosome.
The BCR-ABL fusion gene encodes BCR-ABL1 tyrosine kinase, which promotes CML

57
Q

What protein does the fusion gene in CML produce?

A

BCR-ABL1 Tyrosine Kinase

58
Q

Describe, using an example, a targeted therapy for CML.

A

Imatinib – inhibits the BCR-ABL1 tyrosine kinase

59
Q

What are the three techniques of quantifying the level of CML in order of sensitivity?

A

Cytogenetic analysis
Fluorescence in situ hybridisation
RT-qPCR (Reverse Transcriptase Quantitative PCR)

60
Q

What is the point in pharmacogenomics?

A

Using genetics to determine which patients will respond best to particular treatments

61
Q

Give another example of a translocation causing cancer.

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukaemia (APML)

Translocation between chromosome 15 and chromosome 17

62
Q

Which two genes are involved in this translocation?

A

Chromosome 15 = PML (Promyelocytic Leukaemia)

Chromosome 17 = RARA (Retinoic Acid Receptor Alpha)

63
Q

How does this translocation cause cancer?

A

RARA is a receptor that binds to Vitamin A and then binds to DNA and regulates transcription
The translocation and resulting gene fusion changes RARA so that it binds to DNA too strongly
These genes become silenced – the cell proliferates

64
Q

What treatment is available for this cancer and how does it work?

A

All Trans Retinoic Acid (ATRA)

Binds to the DNA with greater affinity than the mutated RARA thus preventing gene silencing

65
Q

What are the scans offered for a normal pregnancy?

A

Nuchal scan – 10-14 weeks
Mid-trimester anomaly scan
All pregnant women should be offered ultrasound scans at 20-22 weeks as well

66
Q

When is a nuchal scan offered and what is it used to determine?

A
12 weeks
Date the pregnancy
Multiple pregnancies
Major foetal abnormalities
Early miscarriage
Risk of chromosomal abnormalities
67
Q

What is considered an abnormal nuchal translucency and what would such a result suggest?

A

Greater than 3mm – indicates possibility of:
Chromosomal abnormalities
Birth defects
Skeletal dysplasia

68
Q

What are the three types of prenatal testing and which test fall under each category?

A

Non-invasive (ultrasound, MRI)
Minimally invasive (maternal serum screening, cell free foetal DNA)
Invasive (chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis

69
Q

What can ultrasound tests be used for?

A

Nuchal translucency
Nasal bone
Dating

70
Q

When is maternal serum screening done?

A

11-14 weeks AND 16-20 weeks

71
Q

What does maternal serum screening look for?

A

11-14 weeks = looks for presence of hCG and PAPP A

16-20 weeks = looks for presence of hCG, PAPP A, AFP and uE3

72
Q

In what situation is cell-free foetal DNA testing offered?

A

Offered in particular if the baby has a chance of having an X-linked condition

73
Q

What is cffDNA used to determine?

A

The sex of the baby (looks for the presence of the SRY gene)

74
Q

What are the limitations of NIPD and NIPT?

A

Multiple pregnancies – cannot tell which foetus the DNA is from
High BMI – relative proportions of cffDNA is reduced in obese women
Ethical issues

75
Q

What are the benefits of NIPD and NIPT?

A

No risk of miscarriage

Reduces the need for more invasive testing

76
Q

What is the problem with invasive prenatal testing?

A

Small risk of miscarriage

77
Q

What is CVS and when is it done?

A

Chorionic villus sampling – take a sample from the chorionic villus which has the same genetic material as the foetus
11-14 weeks

78
Q

What is amniocentesis and when is it done?

A

Taking a sample of amniotic fluid – 16+ weeks

79
Q

What is amniocentesis and when is it done?

A

Taking a sample of amniotic fluid – 16+ weeks

80
Q

What further tests are done to the DNA obtained via CVS or amniocentesis?

A

Karyotype

QF-PCR (test for trisomies)

81
Q

Describe pre-implantation genetic diagnosis.

A

IVF is used to produce a zygote
A cell is sampled at the 8-cell stage and tested to identify any genetic defects
Only the cells with no genetic defects will be implanted

82
Q

What are the eligibility criteria for PGD?

A

Female partner is under the age of 40
BMI above 19 and less than 30
No living unaffected children from this relationship
Both partners are non-smokers

83
Q

What are the three types of obesity?

A

Syndromic, Monogenic and Common

84
Q

What is syndromic obesity commonly accompanied by?

A

Mental Retardation

Dysmorphic features

85
Q

Describe the action of leptin.

A

Leptin is produced by adipocytes and travels to the brain to let the brain know how much fat is stored in the adipose cells and thus regulates feeding

86
Q

What are some features of leptin deficiency?

A

Low thyroid function
Immune problems
Incomplete/lack of puberty

87
Q

What is the treatment for leptin deficiency?

A

Recombinant leptin

88
Q

Name some genes that cause monogenic obesity.

A

POMC
PCSK1
MC4R
MRAP2

89
Q

What are Genome Wide Association Studies used for in relation to obesity?

A

To identify single nucleotide polymorphisms that are associated with obesity e.g. FTO

90
Q

How many base pairs are there in the complete human genome?

A

6 billion

91
Q

Give an example of pharmacogenomics being used to get the dosage right.

A

6-mercaptopurine is used to treat leukaemia, Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis
People who have two normal copies of the TPMT (thiopurine methyl transferase) gene metabolise the drug fast and so have a high dose
Some people are heterozygous for a mutation in TPMT so they metabolise the drug slower and so have more side effects. This means that they get a reduced dose.
Very few people are homozygous for a mutation in TPMT – they barely metabolise the drug at all

92
Q

Give an example of pharmacogenomics being used to get the drug right.

A

Type 1 Diabetes and Mature Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)
MODY can be treated with oral drugs but is commonly misdiagnosed as T1D and so patients may be getting unnecessary insulin injections.

93
Q

Give two examples of diseases for which DNA sequencing has been used to find the mutations responsible.

A

Miller Syndrome

Schinzel-Giedeon Syndrome