genetics Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following is not a characteristic of model organisms
a. short generation time
b. ability to be reared in a laboratory with controlled genetic crosses
c. availability of numerous genetic variants
d. an accumulated body of knowledge about their genetic systems
e. all of the above
A
e. all of the above
2
Q
Who developed the principles of heredity?
A
Gregory Mendel
3
Q
Which scientist came up with chromsomes?
A
Flemming
4
Q
Name the director of the NIH that oversees the work of the largest supporter of biomedical research in the world, spanning the spectrum from basic to clinical research
A
Francis Collins
5
Q
What is a distinct sequence of nucleotides forming part of a chromosome, a unit of heredity that is transferred from a parent to offspring
A
Gene
6
Q
one of two or more alternative forms of a gene that arise by mutation and are found at the same place on a chromsome
A
allele
7
Q
a threadlike structure of nucleic acids and protein found in the nucleus of most living cells, carrying genetic information in the form of genes
A
chromosome
8
Q
an organism’s complete set of DNA, including all of its genes. It contains all of the information needed to build and maintain that organism
A
Genome
9
Q
inheritance in a multicellular organism only takes place by means of the germ cells: the gametes, such as egg cells and sperm cells
A
Germplasm theory
10
Q
the production of haploid gametes
A
Meiosis
11
Q
the fusion of haploid gametes
A
fertilization
12
Q
what is the consequence of meiosis
A
genetic variation
13
Q
Who used an experimental approach and analyzed results mathematically to study easily differentiated characteristics
A
Gregor Mendel
14
Q
What is the likelihood of a particular event used in genetics to predict the outcome of a genetic cross
A
Probability
15
Q
inactivation of 1 X chromosomes to compensate for different X dosage between the sexes is a result of what?
A
dosage compensation
16
Q
what is another name for an inactivated X chromosome?
A
Barr body
17
Q
Who suggested that dosage compensation in mammals is by inactivation of all but one X? What is the hypothesis called?
A
Mary Lyon
Lyon hypothesis
18
Q
What is a condition in which cells within the same person have a different genetic makeup
A
Mosaicism
19
Q
dariIf two or more are present, what is randomly turned on and coats 1 of the X chromosomes with its RNA product to cause the condensation and permanent inactivation that is undone during meiosis?
A
Xist (Xi specific transcript)
20
Q
What are two examples of incompletely dominant traits?
A
Codominance
and
incomplete dominance
21
Q
What is a type of incompletely dominant trait that means that both alleles are equally expressed in a heterozygote?
A
Codominance
ex. sickle cell anemia
22
Q
What is a type of incompletely dominant trait that is exhibited when the heterozygote doesn’t show the dominant trait but shows an intermediate phenotype, representing a blending of traits.
A
incomplete dominance
ex. curly, waxy or straight hair
23
Q
the % of individuals having a particular genotype that express the expected phenotype.
A
penetrance
24
Q
what is the term for the degree to which a character is expressed
A
expressivity
25
When everyone who inherits the disease causing alleles has some symptoms
complete penetrance
26
some individuals do not express the phenotype even through they inherit the alleles
incomplete penetrance
| ex. polydactylyl
27
when symptoms vary in intensity in different people
| for example, two extra digits versus three extra digits in polydactylyl
variable expression
28
What is the standard phenotypic ratio of a standard dihybrid cross
9:3:3:1 if the genes segregate independently and do not interact with each other
29
One gene can affect multiple traits
Pleiotropy. Ex. CF caused by mutation in CTFR gene that affects lungs, pancreas, liver, and intestine
30
Heterozygous phenotype same as that of homozygous dominant
Complete dominance of one allele
31
Heterozygous phenotype intermediate between the two homozygous phenotype so
Incomplete dominance of either allele
32
Heterozygotes: both phenotypes expressed
Codominance
33
In the whole population, some genes have more than two alleles
Multiple alleles
34
a disease gets worse as the defect is passed through generations until it reaches full impairment and that is the point where the trait is no longer passed
Anticipation
35
What are some special features of human biology that hinder genetics research?
Controlled mating is not possible
Long generation time
Small family size
36
A document used by genealogists in study of human family history. Red squares exhibit the phenotype. Instrumental in identifying key disease genes by seeing how they are transferred from one generation to the next
Pedigree chart
37
Usually appears in both sexes with equal frequency
Tends to skip generations
Affected offspring are usually born to unaffected parents
When both parents are heterozygous, approximately one-forth of the offspring will be affected
Appears more frequently among the children of costa guide marriages
Autosomal recessive trait
38
Usually appears in both sexes with equal frequency
Both sexes transmit the taint to their offspring
Does not skip generations
Affected offspring must have an affected pant unless they possess a new mutation
When one parent is affected (heterozygous) and the other parent is unaffected approx. half of the offspring will be affected
Unaffected parents do not transmit the trait
Autosomal dominant trait
39
Usually more males than females affected
Affected sons are usually born to unaffected mothers thus the trait skips generations
Approx. half of a carrier mothers sons are affected
Never passed from father to son
All daughters of affected fathers are carriers
X linked recessive
40
Both males and females are usually affected, often more females Than males are affected
Does not skip generations, affected sons must have an affected mother, affected daughters must have either an affected mother or an affected father
Affected fathers will pass the trait on to all daughters
Affected mothers (if heterozygous) will pass the trait on to half of their sons and half their daughters
X linked dominant
41
Only males are affected
Passed from father to all sons
Does not skip generations
Y linked trait
42
means the presence of the same trait in both members of a pair of twins. however, the trait may not be exactly the same phenotypically due to differences in penetrance or other factors
concordance
43
twins that have exactly the same genetic sequence
monozygotic (identical) twins
44
have the same genetic similarity as brothers or sisters born from different pregnancies
fraternal (dizygotic) twins
45
act that it's illegal to discriminate employees or applicants because of genetic information
- prohibits the use of genetic info in making employment decisions
- does not say anything about health insurance
GINA: Genetic information nondiscrimination act
46
how do you calculate recombination frequency?
= # recombinant progeny / total # of progeny x 100%
47
when wild-type alleles are found on one chromosome ; mutant alleles are found on the other chromosomes
coupling and repulsion configuration of linked genes
48
when the position of the centromere on the chromosome is in the middle
metacentric
49
when the position of the centromere on the chromosome is just below the middle
submetacentric
50
when the position of the centromere on the chromosome is near the end
acrocentric
51
when the position of the centromere on the chromosome is at the end
telocentric
52
an increase of decrease in the number of individual chromosomes
aneuploidy
53
change in chromosome strucutre
chromosomes rearrangement
54
duplication of a chromosome segment
chromosome duplication
55
deletion of a chromosome segment
chromosome deletion
56
chromosome segments inverted 180 degrees
inversion
57
inversion that does not include the centromere in the inverted region
paracentric inversion
58
inversion that includes the centromere in the inverted region
pericentric inversion
59
movement of a chromosome segment to a nonhomologous chromosomes or to another region of the same chromosome without reciprocal exchange
nonreciprocal translocation
60
movement of a chromosome segment to a nonhomologous chromosomes or to another region of the same chromosome
translocation
61
exchange between segments of nonhomologous chromosomes or between regions of the same chromosome
reciprocal translocation
62
nullisomy
loss of both members of a homologous pair
63
loss of one member of a homologous pair
monosomy
64
gain of one chromosome, resulting in three homologous chromosomes
trisomy
65
gain of two homologous chromosomes, resulting in four homologous chromosomes
tetrasomy
66
addition of entire chromosome sets
polyploidy
67
polyploidy in which extra chromosome sets are derived from the same species
autopolyploidy
68
polyploidy in which extra chromosomes set are derived from two or more species
allopolyploidy
69
what is associated with shorter life span and increased incidence of disease?
shortened telomeres
70
what helps to compartmentalize the genome into domains of different transcriptional potentials?
DNA methylation and histone modification
71
name for loosely packed DNA
euchromatin
72
name for tightly packed DNA that is transcriped last
heterochromatin
73
a heritable alteration of phenotype because of altered chromatin modification of DNA (methylation) without changing the DNA sequence
epigenetics
74
mutations that arise in tissues other than those that produce gametes
impact is restricted to the individual
somatic mutations
75
mutation that arise in tissues that produce gametes
| and can be passed to offspring
germline mutations
76
mutation changes the codon sequence but not the amino acid
silent mutation
77
missense mutation that alters the amino acid sequence but does not change the functions of the protein
neutral mutation
78
causes the complete or partial absence of a normal protein function and is usually recessive
loss of function mutation
79
mutation that changes the base of a single DNA nucleotide
base substitution
80
mutation that is the addition of one or more nucleotides
insertion
81
mutation that is the deletion of one or more nucleotides
deletion
82
mutation that is an insertion or deletion that alters the reading frame of a gene
frameshift mutation
83
mutation that is a deletion or insertion of a multiple of three nucleotides that does not alter the reading frame
in-frame deletion or insertion
84
mutation that is repeated sequence of a set of nucleotiddes in which the number of copies of the sequence increases
expanding nucleotide repeats
85
changes a sense codon into a different sense codon, resulting in the incorporation of a different amino acid in the protein
missense mutation
86
changes a sense codon into a nonsense (stop) codon causing premature termination of translation
nonsense mutation
87
changes a sense codon into a synonymous codon, leaving unchanged the amino acid sequence of the protein
silent mutation
88
changes in the amino acid sequence of a protein without altering its ability to function
neutral mutation
89
causes a complete or partial loss of function
loss-of-function mutation
90
causes the appearance of a new trait or function or causes the appearance of a trait in inappropriate tissue or at an inappropriate time
gain-of-function mutation
91
causes premature death
lethal mutation
92
(x-rays, ect) dislodges electrons in tissue causing free radicals which often damages DNA
ionizing radiation
93
what does UV light induce?
the formation of pyrimidine dimer: two thymine bases that block replication
94
What does the SOS system in bacteria
SOS system allows bacteria cells to bypass the replication block with a mutation-prone pathway
95
what test is used to detect mutagens? It;s done by bacteria that can not synthesize Histidine, are exposed to a potential mutagen and placed on Histidine-free media. The number of resulting colonies reflects the mutagenicity of the substance
Ames Test
96
What repair system fixes replication errors, including mispaired bases and strand slippage
mismatch repair
97
What repair system fixes pyrimidine dimes; other specific types of alterations
direct repair
98
What repair system fixes abnormal bases, modified bases, and pyrimidine dimers
base excision repair
99
What repair system fixes DNA damage that distorts the double helix, including abnormal bases, modified bases, and pyrimidine dimers
nucleotide excision repair
100
What repair systems fix double-strand breaks
homologous recombination and nonhomologous end joining
101
What are two groups of eukaryotic transposons?
those structurally similar to transposable elements found in bacteria (typically end in short inverted repeats) and retro transposons (similar to retroviruses
102
constitute about 11% of the human genomes and include Alu
SINEs (short interspersed nuclear elements
103
approx. 900,000 copies of in the humans genome and constitute about 21% of the total human DNA
LINEs
104
the first known active human L1 elements was the result of its retrotransposition into what factor that caused a de novo case of hemophilia?
factor VIII
105
technology for locating, isolating, altering, and studying DNA segments
miniturization and vastly increased computational capacity
recombinant DNA technology (genetic engineering)
106
the use of techniques for locating, isolating, altering, and studying DNA segments to develop new products
biotechnology
107
mice carrying the gene are bred to produce a strain of mice homozygous for the foreign gene
knock-in transgenic mice
108
variegated mice are crossed with white mice and the progeny interbred to produce some mice that are homozygous for the disabled gene
knock-out transgenic mice
109
a mouse carrying functioning human genes, cells, tissues, and/or organs. commonly used as models in biological and medical reserch
humanized mouse
110
an organism permanently altered by the addition of a DNA sequence to its genome
transgenic animals
111
when a gene from one organism is introduced to another type of species
transgene
112
organization and sequence of genetic information contained within a genome
structural genetics
113
linkage maps approximate locations of genes, relative to the location of other genes, based on the rates of recombination
genetic maps
114
What are the limitations of genetic maps?
low resolution or detail
| and do not correspond to physical distances between genes
115
a map of a chromosome that shows the actual location of the genes. it has greater resolution and accurancy
physical map
116
varitions in number of copies of large DNA sequences (greater than 1000 bp) that may include deletions or duplications
- most conatins multiple genes and potentiall affect the phenotype
CNVs or copy number variables
117
sequencing genomes of entire communities of organisms
| ex. flora of the human gut
metagenomics
118
novel organisms created by stitching together functional genomic sequences
synthetic biology
119
genes that are evolutionarily related
homologous
120
homologous genes in different species that evolved from the same gene in a common ancestor
orthologs
| - different species same function
121
homologous genes arising by duplication of a single gene in the same organism
paralogs
| - same species different function
122
the whole set of molecular interactions in a particular cell. specifically refers to physical interactions among molecules (such as those among proteins, also known as protein-protein interactions) but also describe sets of indirect interactions among genes
interactome
123
a nucleotide sequence within a gene that is removed by RNA splicing during maturation of the final RNA product
intron
124
a part of a gene that will become a part of the final mature RNA produced by that gene after introns have been removed by RNA splicing
exon
125
what does a gene include?
- DNA sequence that code for all exons and introns
- sequences at the beginning and end of the RNA that are not translated into a protein, the transcription unit consists of the promotor, transcribed RNA sequence (coding and noncoding) and the terminator
126
a ribosomal binding site in prokaryotic messenger RNA, generally located around 8 bases upstream of the start codon AUG. The six-base consensus sequence os AGGAGG
Shine-Dalgarno Sequence
| in E. coli the sequence is AGGAGGU
127
what are the 3 primary regions of mature mRNA
5' untranslated region
the proteins-coding region
3' untranslated region
128
what type of splicing occurs in every category of cancer hallmarks?
alternative splicing
129
What type of splicing regulate angiogenesis in tumor cells?
VEGF alternative spicing
130
```
a class of dsRNA molecules, 20-25 bp in length discovered in 1999.
play lots of role that are most notable in the RNA interference (RNAi) pathway, where they interfere with the expression of specific genes with complementary nucleotide sequence.
- functions by causing mRNA to be broken down after transcription, resulting in no translation
```
small interfering RNA (siRNA)
131
a small non0coding RNA molecule (about 22 nucleotides) found in plants, animals, and some viruses, that functions in RNA silencing and post- transcriptional regulation of gene expression.
microRNA (miRNA)
132
Beadle and Tatum in 1941 came up with this hypothesis saying that genes function by encoding enzymes , and each gene encodes a separate enzyme
one gene, one enzyme hypothesis
133
amino acid may be specified by more than one codon
degenerate code
134
codons that specify the same amino acid
synonymous codons
135
different tRNAs that accept the same amino acid but have different anticodons
isoaccepting tRNAS
136
codons encoding amino acids
sense codon
137
initiation codon
AUG methionine
138
termination codon
UAA , UAG, UGA
| do not code for a specific amino acid
139
what are the steps for protein synthesis in bacterial cells
tRNA charging
initiation
elongation
termination
140
deals with phenotypes that vary continuously (in characters such as height or mass) as opposed to discretely identifiable phenotypes and gene-products (such as eye color , or the presence of a particular biochemical
quantitative genetics
141
what type of characteristics may produce a range of possible phenotypes therefor it may be impossible to decipher what genotype they have
quantitative characteristic
142
what type of characteristic display only 2 possible phenotypes- either present or absent
Threshold characteristic
143
_____ provide information about the variability of a group of phenotypes the greater the characteristic the more spread out the distributaiton is about the mean
variance
144
when two characteristics are correlated, a change in one characteristic is likely to be associated with a change in the other
correlation
!!! correlation doesn't not demonstrate cause-and-effect relation. simple means that a change in a variable is associated with a proportional change in the other variable !!!
145
a statistical measure of the strength of the association
correlation coefficient
146
what represents the change in y per unit change in x
regression coefficient
147
a section of DNA that correlates with variation in a phenotype (the quantitative trait) it's typically linked to or contains the genes that control that phenotype. this is often an early step in identifying and sequencing the actual genes that cause the trait variation
Quantitative trait locus
148
arises through the differential reproduction of individuals with different genotypes
natural selection
149
selection by promoting the reproduction of organisms with traits perceived as desirable
artificial selection
150
response to genetic variable traits may level off after many generations
limits to selection response
151
what are two types of correlated responses
phenotypic correlation (larger size and larger/more offspring)
and
genetic correlation (pleitropy, 1 gene affecting more than one characteristic, genes that regulate growth hormone impact the size of multiple structures
152
what are examples of important environmental influence that have an effect on important chronic conditions>
diet
obesity
lifestyle
trauma
153
what is the current trend for mapping/GWAS use for allele identification?
SNPs
| - most frequently seen type of polymorphism
154
whar are the 5 concepts of heritability
1. portion of phenotypic variance due to genetic variance; it does not indicate to what extent the phenotype itself is determine by genotype
2. applies to populations and NOT to individuals
3. determined for a particular population in a particular environment at a particular time. determined for one population does not apply to other populations, or even the same population facing different environmental conditions at a different period
4. a trait with high heritability may still be strongly influenced by environmental factors
5. high heritability does not mean that differences between populations are due to difference in genotype
155
what are the assumptions of hardy-weinberg law?
population is large
randomly mating
not affected by mutation , migration, or natural selection
156
what are the two predictions of hardy-weinberg?
the allelic frequencies of a population do not change
and
the genotypic frequencies stabilize
157
a groups of interbreeding, sexually reproducing individuals with a common set of genes
population
158
a change in gene frequency over time
evolution
159
What causes genetic variation?
- variation in alleles - sequence variation
- caused by mutation
- frequencies affected by evolutionary forces
160
of individuals with the genotype / total # of individuals
frequency of a genotype
161
tendency of like individuals to mate
positive assortative mating
162
a tendency of unlike individuals to mate
negative assortative mating
163
a measure of the probability that two alleles are identical by descent
inbreeding
164
what is inbreeding depression?
- increased appearance of lethal and deleterious traits with inbreeding
- inbreeding increases the percentage of homozygous individuals in the population
165
is the avoidance of mating between related individuals
outcrossing
166
what are the forces of evolution
```
nonrandom mating
mutation
migration
genetic drift
natural selection
```
167
fitness and the selection coefficient
- the general election model
- the results of selection
- -directional selection
- -overdominance vs. underdominance
- change in allele frequency of a recessive allele due to this
natural selection
168
is the relative reproductive success of a genotype compared to other genotypes in the population
ranges from 0 to 1
fitness
to calc: take avg # of offspring produced by genotype and divide it by the mean number of offspring produced by the most prolific genotype
169
is the relative intensity of selection against a genotype
| equals 1 - the fitness for a particular genotype
selection coefficient
170
a type of selection in which one allele or trait is favored over another
directional selection
171
both alleles are favored in the heterozygote and neither allele is eliminated from the population
overdominance ( heterozygote advantage)
172
the heterozygote has a lower fitness than both homozygotes
| this leas to an unstable equilibrium
underdominance
173
what evolutionary forces have effects on allelic frequencies within populations?
- mutation- equilibrium between forward and reverse mutations
- migration = equilibrium reached when allelic frequencies of source and recipient population are equal
- genetic drift = fixation of one allele
- natural selection = directional selection; fixation of one allele; overdominant selection: equilibrium reached
174
how an embryo develops
epigenesis
175
the study of genes and heredity
genetics
176
heritable changed that do not involve changes in the DNA
epigenetics
177
hypothesis assumes that when environmental condition are poor for the parent, they are likely also to be poor for the offspring. Therefore, when the parent experience food shortage, biochemical modifications allow pre-adaptation to produce offspring that are metabolically thrifty, eating as much as possible, minimizing energy expenditure, and hoarding/conserving calories
Thrifty phenotype hypothesis
178
what are some molecular mechanisms that alter chromatin structure?
- changes in patterns of DNA methylation
- chemical modification of histone proteins
- RNA molecules that affect chromatin structure and gene expression
179
addition of methyl groups to nucleotides
| generally deactivating
DNA methylation
180
histone modification that are associated with gene activity
acetylated histones
181
life experiences, especially early in life, have long-lasting effects on behavior
behavioral epigenetics
182
epigeneic phenomenon by which certain genes are expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner
genomic imprinting
183
when both copies of an allele are inherited from the same parent
uniparental disomy
184
ability of a single cell to divide and produce all of the differentiated cells in an organism
totipotent cell
185
a cell becomes committed to a particular cell fate
determination
186
stems cells can become any tissue in the body except a placenta
pluripotent
187
where so embryonic stem cells originate?
an inner mass cells within a blastocyst
188
determination is the dorsal-ventral axis is determined by what gene
dorsal gene
189
what genes determine the anterior-posterior axis
bicoid gene, nanos gene, hunchback gene
190
what type of genes determine the type of segment structures on a segment
hox genes
191
controlled, programmed cell death
apoptosis
192
injured cells dying in an uncontrolled manner
necrosis
193
molecules that elicit an immune reaction
antigen
194
proteins that binds to antigens and mark them for destruction by phagocytic cells
antibody
195
the production of antibodies by B cells
humoral immunity
196
immunity that depends on T cells
cellular immunity
197
how is an immune response to a specific antigen produced?
clonal selection
198
what comprises an immunoglobulin molecule
4 polypeptide chains
- two light chains
- two heavy chains
that combine to form a Y-shaped structure
199
what generates antibody diversity
somatic recombination
200
how are T cells activated?
by binding to both a foreign antigen and to a histocompatibility antigen on the surface of a self-cell
201
hypothesis pproposed by Strachan to explain the increased prevalence of hay fever and eczema in families with small size, and higher standards of cleanliness. regarding the rural lifestyle,several studies have shown an inverse association between growing up on a farm and atopic diseases
the hygiene hypothesis
202
screens for inborn errors of metabolism are currently done with tandem mass spec based tests that focus on more than a dozen amino acids and 28 acylcarnitines associated with fatty acid disorders
Newbie seq
203
severe immunodeficiency disease with defects in T and B cell function
severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
204
tumor that remain localized
benign tumor
205
tumor cells invade other tissues
malignant tumor
206
tumor cells induce secondary tumors
metastasis
207
what is some genetic evidence for cancer
carcinogens
chromosomal abnormalities
inheritance
208
what does knudson's multistep model of cancer require?
several mutations
| -2 hit hypothesis
209
tumor cells acquire more mutations that allow them to become increasingly more aggressive in their proliferative properties
clonal evolution of tumors
210
mutates, dominant-acting stimulatory genes that cause cancer
oncogenes
211
responsible for basic cellular functions in normal cells; when mutated, they become oncogenes
proto-oncogenes
212
mutates recessive- acting inhibitory genes that are inactive
- loss of heterozygosity
tumor-suppressor genes
213
what is the key event in Cancer that leads to mutation that activate all of the secondary hallmark events?
genomic instability
214
what is probably the initiating event in hereditary cancers?
genomic instability
215
what is the initiating event in sporadic cancers
deregulation of growth-regulating genes which leads to DNA damage and DNA replication stress which in turn lead to genomic instability
216
what regulates the progression through the G2/M checkpoint ?
cyclin B
217
what is the hallmark of follicular lymphoma
translocation between chromosome 14 and 18 that leads to deregulation of BCL2 expression in tumor cells
218
what causes cancer by mutating and rearranging proto-oncogenes or by inserting promoters near proto-oncogenes?
Retroviruses
219
these target cancer cell-specific antigens and induce an immunological response against the target cancer cell
monoclonal antibodies
| - a toxin, radioisotope, cytokine or other active conjugate can be coupled to the antibody as well
220
what is an example of a chimeric monoclonal antibody against the protein CD20 and is therefore used to treat diseases which are characterized by excessive numbers of B cells, overactive B cells, or dysfunctional B cells
Rituximab
221
an interdisciplinary field that develops methods for understanding complex biological data. Combines computer science, statistics, mathematics, and engineering to study and process biological data
bioinformatics
222
the study, invention, and implementation of structures and algorithms to improve communication, understanding and management of medical information
biomedical informatics
223
a continuously updates catalog of human genes and genetic disorders and traits, with a particular focus on the gene-phenotype relationship
OMIM ( online mendelian inheritance in man)
224
launched by the national cancer institute and the NHGRI to comprehensively characterize the genomic and molecular features of ovarian cancer and glioblastoma multiforme. the project grew to include 11,000 patients, across 33 tumor types and is the largest tumor collection ever to be analyzed
The Cancer Genome Atlas
225
the world's largest and most comprehensive resource for exploring the impact of somatic muations in human cancers
COSMIC
| the catalogue of somatic mutation in Cancer
226
site contains the reference sequence and working draft assemblies for a large collection of genomes. also provides portals to ENCODE data at UCSC and the the Neanderthal project
UCSC genome browser on Human assembly
227
NIH project to carry out a project to identify all functional elements in the human genome sequence
ENCODE project
| ENCyclopedia of DNA Elements
228
a public functional genomics database of array and sequence-based expression profiles
Gene Expression Omnibus
229
concerned with the sequencing and analysis of the genome of an individual
personal genomics
230
the use of the information produced by personal genomics techniques when deciding what medical treatments are appropriate for a particular individual
predictive medicine
231
focused on a new taxonomy of human disease based on molecular biology
precision medicine
