Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL1005 Dina > Genetics > Flashcards

Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

define ‘atavism’

A

Atavism is the tendency to revert to ancestral type. In biology, an atavism is an evolutionary throwback, such as traits reappearing which had disappeared generations before. Atavism does not fit with the theory of mixing bloods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is Mendel’s First Law?

A

This is the law of segregation. During gamete formation, the alleles for each gene segregate from each other so that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is Mendel’s Second Law?

A

This is the law of independent assortment. During gamete formation, the segregation of alleles at one locus is independent to that at any other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

if the number of heterozygous loci is denoted by n, how many gamete types are there?

A

2^n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

if the number of heterozygous loci is denoted by n, how many phenotypes are produced in the F2 generation?

A

3^n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

define ‘heterosis’

A

Otherwise known as hybrid vigour, heterosis is the improved or increased function of any biological quality in a hybrid offspring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

define ‘codominance’

A

the phenotypic effects of a gene’s alleles are fully and simultaneously expressed in the heterozygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

give an example of codominance

A

sickle-cell anaemia - both normal and mutant haemoglobin types are produced in the heterozygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

define ‘multiple allelism’

A

more than two alleles at a single locus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

give some examples of multiple allelism

A

human eye colour
clover leaf patterns
ABO blood system - A has n-acetyl galactosamine antigen; B has galactose antigen; AB has both; O has neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define ‘lethal alleles’

A

alleles that are lethal in the homozygous ie. the dominant allele for the particular characteristic is recessive for viability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

give some examples of lethal alleles

A

allele responsible for the yellow coat colour in mice
Manx cats
Brachydactyly
Achondroplastic dwarfism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define ‘pleiotropy’

A

the production by a single gene of two or more apparently unrelated effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

give some examples of pleiotropy

A

all blue-eyed white cats are deaf (due to the role of melanin in the ear)
tabby cats are unusually aggressive
sickle-cell anaemia causes many health complications, as well as conferring resistance to malaria
Drosophila white eye has an effect on the shape of spermatogonia (due to a mutation in a transporter protein that functions in many tissues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

define ‘gene interaction’

A

the collaboration of several different genes produces one phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

give some examples of gene interaction

A 
sex limitation (due to the effects of testosterone)
mouse coat colour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does the A locus control in mouse coat colour?

A

A locus - determines the distribution of colour in hair shaft
A- = yellow band (agouti)
aa = no yellow band (black)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

define ‘incomplete dominance’

A

the expression of the heterozygote is an intermediate between the dominant homozygotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

give some examples of incomplete dominance

A

Japonica mirabilis - cross between red and white produces pink flowers
Tay Sachs - heterozygotes have intermediate levels of the enzyme hexosaminidase A
Mendel’s peas were round or wrinkled depending on their levels of starch-branching enzyme; peas heterozygous at this locus appear round but have intermediate levels of the enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does the B locus control in mouse coat colour?

A

B locus - codes for the colour of the hair
B- = black
bb = brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

explain the interaction between the A and B loci in mouse coat colour

A 
A-B- = agouti
A-bb = cinnamon
aaB- = black
aabb = brown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does the C locus control in mouse coat colour?

A

C locus = determines presence or absence of pigment
C- = pigmented
cc = albino

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does the D locus control in mouse coat colour?

A

D locus - controls expression of pigment (modifying locus)
D- = full expression of coat colour
dd = pale/milky colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does the S locus control in mouse coat colour?

A

S locus - controls pigment distribution on the body
S- = not spotted
ss = piebald

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

define ‘complementation’

A

two strains of an organism with different homozygous recessive mutations produce the same phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

give some examples of complementation

A

foxglove petal colour
Drosophila eye colour
deafness in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the phenotypes of the F1 and F2 upon crossing fox gloves?

A

F1 phenotype - all purple

F2 phenotype - 9 purple and 7 white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is a complementation test?

A

To test for complementation, cross two homozygotes and observe the phenotypes of the resulting offspring. If there is complementation between the two alleles, the phenotype will revert to the wild type, since the offspring will be heterozygous at both loci.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

define ‘epistasis’

A

an interaction between nonallelic genes in which the genotype at one locus affects the expression of alleles at another locus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

define ‘chromosome puff’

A

a swelling at a site along the length of a polytene chromosome; the site of active transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

define ‘polytene chromosomes’

A

over-sized chromosomes that have developed from standard chromosomes and are commonly found in the salivary glands of Drosophila melanogaster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is a reciprocal cross?

A

A reciprocal cross is a pair of crosses between a male of one strain and a female of another, and vice versa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

define ‘aneuploidy’

A

the deviation from an exact multiple of the haploid number of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

define ‘nondisjunction’

A

the failure of chromosomes to separate and segregate during meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what was the result of a cross between a male with red eyes and a female with white eyes whose gametes had undergone nondisjunction?

A

gametes of male: X Y
gametes of female: XX O
offspring: XXX (dies) XXY (white-eyed female) XO (red-eyed male) YO (dies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how is sex determined in Drosophila?

A

by the number of X chromosomes

1 X = male; 2 Xs = female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how is sex determined in humans?

A

by the presence of a Y chromosome that determines maleness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which genotypes are viable in humans?

A

XO and XXX are viable and female; XXY is viable and male; YO is not viable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the gametal genotypes of birds and butterflies?

A

males are homogametic WW and females are heterogametic WZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

describe the transmission of recessive sex-linked alleles

A

transmission through females; mainly affects males; for an affected male, all his daughters are carriers but none of his sons are affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

give some examples of recessive sex-linked diseases

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Haemophilia
colourblindness
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (disease of purine metabolism; low IQ, self-mutilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

give an example of a dominant sex-linked disease

A

vitamin D-resistant rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

describe the transmission of dominant sex-linked alleles

A

transmission through females and through males; males only transmit disease to daughters; females transmit disease to half of daughters and half of sons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is Lyonisation?

A

the inactivation of an X chromosome early in development as a dosage compensation mechanism, resulting in the production of a Barr body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is a Barr body?

A

a small, densely staining structure in the cell nuclei of females, consisting of a condensed, inactive X chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

give some examples of mosaicism

A

every adult female is a mosaic

eg. tortoiseshell cats - patches of orange and black fur; sex-linked red-green colourblindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how does dosage compensation occur in Drosophila?

A

all X chromosomes are switched on, but those in males are set at an activity twice that of those in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what can dosage compensation lead to in Drosophila?

A

leads to sex lethality, in which different alleles kill either the male or female depending on the under- or over-activation of genes on the X chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

define ‘genetic linkage’

A

the tendency of alleles that are located close together on a chromosome to be inherited together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

who investigated coupling in sweet peas?

A

Bateson and Punnett

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

give an example of a pair of characters that Bateson and Punnett investigated

A

the flower colour and pollen grain length of sweet peas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what experimental abnormality is found in the case of linkage?

A

a parental excess and a recombinant deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the problem of the Mendel design of cross to analyse coupling?

A
  • phenotypically identical classes could disguise genetically heterogeneous ones
  • it is also statistically inefficient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the Mendel design of cross?

A

selfing or intercrossing the F1 to produce the F2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

why is the Mendel design of cross statistically inefficient?

A
  • small numbers mean that a large deviation of observed away from expected is required to attain any significance with the 9:3:3:1 ratio of independent assortment
  • it is more efficient to have a 1:1:1:1 ratio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is a test cross?

A

an organism of dominant phenotype, but unknown genotype, is crossed with an organism of recessive phenotype (and genotype)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is a back cross?

A

a hybrid organism is crossed with an organism genetically identical to its parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is demonstrated by a 9:3:3:1 ratio obtained by a Mendel cross?

A

independent assortment of alleles at two loci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how was it verified that the differences in expected ratios were not due to some adverse interaction of the mutations?

A

mutant/wildtype alleles were arranged in repulsion where they had previously been in coupling, giving the same result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what was Morgan’s hypothesis about coupling?

A

Morgan believed that the coupling was due to the physical proximity of the loci rather than due to the properties of the mutants themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

which scientist investigated linkage using Drosophila?

A

Thomas Hunt Morgan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what are the subphases of prophase?

A

leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what occurs during leptotene?

A

chromosomes become visible as beaded threads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what occurs during zygotene?

A
  • each homologous chromosome finds its pairs and lies alongside it
  • the chromosomes are progressively ‘zipped up’ during synapsis to form a bivalent/tetrad, linked by a synaptomenal complex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what occurs during pachytene?

A

the paired structures condense and wrap around one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what occurs during diplotene?

A

the tetrad opens out following the physical exchange of materials between the chromosome arms through the formation of chiasmata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what occurs during diakinesis?

A

the chromosomes contract and move towards a metaphase plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is a synaptomenal complex?

A

a protein structure that forms between homologous chromosomes and is thought to mediate chromosome pairing, synapsis and recombination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is a tetrad/bivalent?

A

a pair of associated homologous chromosomes held together by a complex and formed during synapsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the highest value that the frequency of recombination can assume?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is signified by a recombination frequency less that 50%?

A

the genes are on the same chromosome ie. they are linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

why doesn’t a recombination frequency of 50% prove that the genes are on separate chromosomes?

A

the genes could be far apart on the same chromsome and so display significant free recombination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what proof was provided by linkage that genes are located on the chromosomes?

A

number of linkage groups = number of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

who constructed the first genetic linkage map?

A

Alfred Sturtevant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is a map unit?

A

a recombinant frequency of 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what cross is carried out in order to construct a linkage map?

A

a three-point cross in which triple heterozygotes are backcrossed to triple mutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how can the order of the loci be established?

A

by comparing the parentals and double recombinants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is the main limitation of the three-point cross?

A

it only works over short segments of chromosome, when one can reasonably assume that any recombinant genotype represents just 1 (not 3, 5 or 7) crossover events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the phenotypic result of an odd and even number of crossovers?

A

an odd number of crossovers gives a recombinant phenotype and an even number gives a parental phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is chiasma interference?

A

the influence of a chiasma on the probability of occurrence of another in close proximity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the effect of a positive chiasma interference?

A

a reduced probability of adjacent chiasma formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

how is a double recombinant frequency calculated, assuming independent assortment?

A

double recombinant frequency = recombinant 1 frequency x recombinant 2 frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the coefficient of coincidence?

A

measures strength of interference

= 1 - [observed / expected]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

which chromosome is the smallest?

A

chromosome 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

define ‘metacentric’

A

the centromere is at the middle of the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

define ‘acentric’

A

the centromere is to one side of the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

define ‘telocentric’

A

the centromere is at one end of the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is Feulgen reagent?

A
  • DNA-binding chemical
  • DNA is stained red
  • semi-quantitative - intensity of dye can be measured to calculate amount of DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is an ideogram?

A

schematic representation of chromosomes showing the relative size and banding patterns of each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what do dark bands signify?

A

heterochromatin - tightly-coiled DNA with few active genes and more A-T base pairs; found around the centromere and on the Y chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

which staining technique results in G-banding?

A

Giemsa staining; binds to phosphate groups of DNA, particularly in regions rich in A-T base pairs, to form an ideogram of dark and light bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what distinguishes a particular chromosome?

A
  • size
  • centromere position
  • arrangement of bands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what is endomitosis?

A

division of chromosomes that is not followed by nuclear division and that results in an increased number of chromosomes in the cell; produces polytene chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

T/F - there is one gene per band

A

F - there are several genes within each band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what is FISH?

A

fluorescent in-situ hybridisation; identify the sequence of the particular gene product and manufacture a probe and its mirror image, labelled with fluorescent dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what is somatic cell hybridisation?

A
  • grow cell lineages in the laboratory
  • make mixed cultures eg. of human and mouse cells
  • treat with a virus eg. inactivated Sendai virus
  • sometimes the cells fuse to form a somatic cell hybrid containing chromosomes from both species
  • select for hybrid cells using a specific poison which only the hybrid cells survive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

why is the (inactivated) Sendai virus used in somatic cell hybridisation?

A

the virus has two attachment sites that force cells to sit close to one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

how are hybrid cells selected for in somatic cell hybridisation?

A
  • one cell lineage is deficient in one enzyme required to break down a particular poison
  • the other cell lineage is deficient in another
  • the poison requires both enzymes to be broken down
  • only hybrid cells will have both enzymes and will survive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

explain what can be identified by observing chromosomes ‘spat out’ by hybrid cells

A
  • hybrid cells often spit out human chromosomes

- by considering phenotypic changes, the location of the particular chromosomes can be determined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

how can parts of the human chromosome be integrated in the hybrid genome?

A

a particular chromosome can be fractionated by irradiation and added to culture; if a chromosome part is integrated, it can be inferred that there must be human genes located at the site of integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

define ‘haplotype’

A

a collection of alleles in a cluster of tightly-linked genes on a chromosome that are likely to be inherited together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is haplotype mapping?

A
  • aims to describe common patterns of human genetic variation
  • identification of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
  • shortcut to full genome sequencing, since blocks can be identified by just one or two SNPs
  • data presented as a Manhattan Plot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is GWAS?

A

genome-wide association study; examination of many common genetic variants in different individuals to explore association with particular diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

define ‘linkage disequilibrium’

A

the occurrence of combinations of genes in non-random proportions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what is unique about the Y chromosome?

A

almost no crossovers with the X chromosome except at each end; its haplotype is preserved with no recombinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

list some condition-dependent mutants and give examples

A
  • heat-sensitive mutant eg. Drosophila
  • light-sensitive mutant eg. artic hares (genes for pigment switched off as days shorten) and leaves (change in pigmentation as days shorten)
  • nutritional-dependent mutant eg. Phenylketonuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is pharmacogenetics?

A

the branch of pharmacology that investigates the effect of genetic factors on reactions to drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

give some examples of pharmacogenetic cases

A
  • porphyria - usually mild/unnoticeable symptoms but barbiturate drugs precipitate symptoms
  • 10% of the population lack the enzyme to metabolise codeine into morphine and so gain no relief from its administration
  • the Leiden allele increases the risk of venous thromboembolism 6x
    early contraceptive pills increased the risk 3x
    those with the Leiden allele on the contraceptive pill had an increased risk 35x
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

explain the age-related effect of Huntington’s

A

autosomal dominant disease with a delayed age of onset means that an individual is unable to verify whether or not they have the disease for many years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

who popularised the concept of regression towards the mean?

A

Francis Galton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is the concept of regression towards the mean?

A

offspring measure closer to the average of the population than their parents do, rather than to measure as an exact intermediate between their parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

explain how some diseases present themselves related to a threshold

A

many diseases do not initially appear quantitative but have an underlying trait that is normally distributed and that only affects those over a certain threshold with the disease
eg. stoke - blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

how many genotypes and phenotypes are available from 5 different loci, each with two possible alleles, + and - ?

A

there are three possible genotypes at each locus: ++,+-,–
number of genotypes = 3^5 = 243
but there are only 11 different phenotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

define ‘mean’ and ‘variance’

A 
mean = a measure of central tendency
variance = a measure of spread
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

how is the variance calculated?

A

variance = Σ(x- x̄ )^2 / n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

explain the association between phenotype, genotype and environment

A 
phenotype = genotype + environment + genotype-environment interaction
P = V(G) + V(E) + V(GE)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

how is broad-sense heritability calculated?

A

H^2 = V(G) / V(P) = V(G) / V(G) + V(E) + V(GE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what is broad-sense heritability?

A

the proportion of variation due to genetic variation;

a high heritability can be due to shared genes, shared environments or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

give an example of broad-sense heritability

A
  • Achillea millefolium (yarrow plant) grows from sea level to 10 000 feet
  • much variation in height at each elevation
  • very different responses of genotype at different elevations = different norms of reactions
  • modern maize grows better with fertiliser but worse without than older varieties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

how is narrow-sense heritability calculated?

A

H^2 = V(A) / V(P) = V(A) / V(G) + V(E) + V(GE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what is reflected by narrow-sense heritability?

A

narrow-sense heritability reflects the fact that heritability must be subdivided into:

  • additive variance, V(A) - eg. one allele means one extra inch
  • dominant variance, V(D) - eg. sometimes a ‘plus’ will be dominant
  • interaction variance, V(I) - the effects of one gene may be affected by those of another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what is implied by a highly additive variance?

A

rapid response to selection;

this has NEVER been measured for any human character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what is meant by ‘correlation’?

A

the interdependence of variable quantities eg. the measurement of the association between height and weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what is signified by the correlation coefficient?

A 
r = 0 no correlatoin
r = 1/2 intermediate correlation
r = 1 perfect linear correlation
r = -1 perfect linear inverse correlation
-1 <= +1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

how can homozygosity be attained in a line?

A

through inbreeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

which scientist measured correlation between relatives and what was the result?

A

Francis Galton;

there is greater similarity between members of the same family

127
Q

how can it be determined whether or not the variance of a character has a genetic basis?

A
  • breed from individuals with an extreme value of the character
  • if no response to artificial selection, variation probably has no genetic basis
    eg. John Maynard Smith tried to breed a line of flies in which one crossed left wing over right, and another in which the opposite was the case; no response = zero heritability
128
Q

what is indicated by the rapid domestication of the Silver Fox by artificial selection?

A

there must be some genetic variation for such characters in the base stock

129
Q

what is a selection response?

A

difference in the mean value of the character in the offspring of the selected parents compared to that of the parents themselves

130
Q

what is a selection differential?

A

the extent to which the selected parents differ from the population mean

131
Q

how is heritability related to selection?

A

H^2 = selection response / selection differential

132
Q

what is indicated by the comparison of monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins?

A
  • DZ twins are no more related than siblings but share the same environment
  • MZ twins are genetically identical and share the same environment
  • any great similarity between MZs when compared to DZs might indicate a character under the control of a gene
133
Q

what is the problem with comparing MZ and DZ twins?

A
  • MZ twins share an environment to a greater extent than do DZ twins
  • MZ twins often emulate one another in their behaviour
134
Q

who developed the concordance method for MZ/DZ twins?

A

Francis Galton

135
Q

for which condition was there found to be considerable concordance? is there any problem with this conclusion?

A

schizophrenia;
but being an identical twin may exert stresses so that twins may have eg. low birth weight, high tendency for mental illness for unfavourable environmental reasons, often placental

136
Q

why are DZ twins often more genetically similar than expected?

A

many twins undergo blood transfusion from their DZ pair during pregnancy or even partly fused as a chimera so that they do not recognise their twin’s tissue as foreign after birth

137
Q

what leads to variation in MZ twins?

A
  • resemblance/otherwise can be changed by the environment

- there are massive differences in time when twins split, affecting the final phenotype

138
Q

when do mirror-image twins split?

A

after the development of the positional axis of the embryo

139
Q

what are dichorionic and monochorionic MZ twins?

A

dichorionic = separate placentas
monochorionic = share the same placenta
dichorionic twins survive much better than do monochorionic twins;
a later split increases the likelihood of monochorionic MZ twins (and of them being conjoined)

140
Q

what can arise as a result of monochorionic twins?

A
  • twins may develop poorly since they are starved of blood supply and may also be born earlier ie. similarity due to prenatal environmental reasons rather than genetic ones
  • twin to twin transfusion may occur, in which one twin takes blood from the other
  • donor = anaemic and underweight; recipient = overweight with heart problems
141
Q

what is an example of an epigenetic effect on twins?

A

eg. X chromosome inactivation
- in female twins, different proportions od paternal/maternal X chromosomes may be inactivated
- in one set of MZ twins, one twin was born with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked recessive disease
- would not expect either twin to contract disease
- twins were heterozygotes; the maternal X was inactivated in one twin (no effect) and the paternal in the other (leading to the particular condition)

142
Q

when a plant heterozygote is selfed, what is the effect on the proportion of heterozygotes and on the allele frequency?

A
  • the proportion of heterozygotes is reduced

- the allele frequency does not change

143
Q

define ‘identical by descent’

A

used to describe a matching segment of DNA shared by two or more people that has been inherited from a recent common ancestor without any intervening recombination

144
Q

define ‘homozygosity by descent’

A

possessing two genes at a given locus that are descended from a single source, such as may occur in inbreeding

145
Q

how is F, the coefficient of inbreeding, measured?

A

F = ΣN (1/2)^n

where N = number of loops; n = number of ancestors in each loop

146
Q

what happens to the value of F as the degree of kinship decreases?

A

the value of F decreases very rapidly, to be effectively outbred beyond second cousins or so

147
Q

true or false: F can build up over generations

A

true

148
Q

give an example of an effect of inbreeding

A

Syringomelia in King Charles spaniels - their brains are too big for their skulls, resulting in acute pain; an operation is performed to reduce the pressure

149
Q

what is genetically interesting about the population of Finland?

A
  • population of 5 million
  • genetically distinct from all other European countries
  • 33 recessive diseases are unique to Finland due to inbreeding
150
Q

what is an example of a recessive disease unique to Finland?

A

vLINCL - variant late infantile neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis

151
Q

deinf ‘inbreeding depression’

A

when you are sad because you are inbred.

alternatively, the reduced biological fitness in a given population as a result of inbreeding

152
Q

define ‘parthenogenesis’

A

asexual reproduction in which the embryo develops from an unfertilized egg cell

153
Q

what does SCNT stand for?

A

somatic cell nuclear transfer

154
Q

what is somatic cell nuclear transfer?

A

a donor nucleus from a somatic cell is implanted into an enucleated oocyte

155
Q

define ‘anisogamy’

A

sexual reproduction involving two dissimilar gametes, differing in size and/or form

156
Q

define ‘isogamy’

A

sexual reproduction involving gametes of similar morphology (shape and size)

157
Q

what is unique about the species Drosophila bifurca?

A

the male fly produces sperm several times his own body length; up to 58 mm long

158
Q

define ‘pseudoautosomal regions’

A

the pseudoautosomal regions, PAR1, PAR2, and PAR3, are homologous sequences of nucleotides on the X and Y chromosomes, allowing recombination during meiosis; genes in this region are not inherited in a strictly sex-linked fashion

159
Q

where is PAR1 located?

A

at the terminal region of the short arms

160
Q

where is PAR2 located?

A

at the tips of the long arms

161
Q

how has the Y chromosome changed?

A
  • lost thousands of genes and gained only a few in the process of decay
  • much reshuffling, reduction, import of genes from elsewhere (most of which rust away)
162
Q

what is the Y chromosome comprised of?

A
  • around 80 functional genes

- a quarter of the chromosomes is made up of huge palindromes

163
Q

describe the palindromes found on the Y chromosome

A
  • eight massive palindromes
  • made up of 3 million bases
  • 99.97% identical in the mirror image
  • many functional genes sit in double copy inside these - perhaps an unusual form of mutation repair?
164
Q

what is SRY?

A

sex-determining region Y

  • encodes DNA-binding protein (SRY protein)
  • mutations lead to sex-related disorders
  • may have arisen from gene duplications of X-chromosome-bound gene Sox3
  • role in testes development
165
Q

what is unique about the sex chrosomomes of the platypus?

A

the platypus has 5Xs and 5Ys, which form a chain during meiosis

166
Q

what information is only passed through the female line?

A

that contained in the cytoplasm and in the mitochondria

167
Q

give an example of an experiment that demonstrates that genetic information is stored in the cytoplasm

A

variegated patterns in Mirabilis jalapa - the phenotype of the progeny is that of the mother and the father’s phenotype has no effect

168
Q

which scientist studied Miribalis jalapa for patterns of cytoplasmic inheritance?

A

Carl Correns

169
Q

what did Carl Correns propose?

A

that the proposed gene for variegated patterns in Mirabilis jalapa was in the cytoplasm and hence passed on through matrilineal inheritance

170
Q

what was the phenotype of progeny of variegated females of the species Mirabilis jalapa?

A

offspring were green/white/variegated depending on what part of the egg cytoplasm they had received; there is a segregation of cytoplasmic determinants during the development of the plant

171
Q

give an example of a maternally inherited character

A
  • the ‘poky’ mutant of Neurospora fungus has slow growth and small colonies
  • gene in the mitochondria
  • mitochondrion is the site of the cell’s energy metabolism and needed for growth
  • mutants lack cytochromes
172
Q

how are patterns of mating determined in Chlamydonas (unicellular freshwater algae)?

A

the algae have ‘mating types’ - they can only mate with an individual not of their own mating type

173
Q

what could result in the uniparental inheritance of some characters in photosynthetic organisms?

A
  • chloroplasts are passed down from only one parents

- genes are contained in chloroplast DNA and held in the cytoplasm

174
Q

which scientist studied uniparental inheritance involving genes contained in chloroplast DNA?

A

Ruth Sager

175
Q

define ‘cytonet’

A
  • also known as ‘heteroplasmon’
  • a eukaryotic cell whose non-nucleic (cytoplasmic) genome is heterozygous
  • due to mutation in which cytoplasm is passed down by both parents
176
Q

how can the frequency of cytohets be increased?

A

by treating with UV light

177
Q

what is the non-nucleic genome?

A

the cytoplasmic genome, comprised of that of cytoplasmic organelles, chloroplasts and mitochondria

178
Q

what is the difficulty of producing a linkage map of Chlamydonas and how can this be resolved?

A
  • cannot produce a linkage map if only one parent passes on the genome
  • need two independent genomes present together
  • 1% of crosses results in cytohets, which can be use to make a linkage map of the genome
179
Q

what is the difficulty of producing a linkage map of Chlamydonas and how can this be resolved?

A
  • cannot produce a linkage map if only one parent passes on the genome
  • need two independent genomes present together
  • 1% of crosses results in cytohets, which can be use to make a linkage map of the genome
180
Q

what was the problem when trying to identify the central locus when carrying out a three-point cross on Chlamydonas?

A

comparing the parentals to double recombinants did not produce any consistent result - the gene map was circular

181
Q

describe the DNA found in mitochondria

A
  • closed circles of DNA
  • many copies present in each cell
  • carry genes for transfer RNAs, ribosomal RNAs, cytochromes and other metabolic genes
  • slightly different genetic code from nuclear DNA
  • no introns
182
Q

give an example of how the genetic code in the mitochondria is different to that in the nucleus

A

some codons code for amino acids in the mitochondria but are stop codons in the nucleus

183
Q

why is it thought that the mitochondrial genome has no introns?

A

probably due to the different evolutionary history of the mitochondria from the nuclear genome (endosymbiosis)

184
Q

describe the mechanism of infection by Wolbachia

A
  • bacteria in insects is passed down through eggs, eg. in ladybirds
  • some kill all males
  • female larvae eat the corpses of their brothers to fain fitness
  • this helps the bacteria, which are passed down through eggs, not sperm
  • infection continues
185
Q

give examples of mitochondrial inheritance in humans

A

Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy

  • congenital degeneration of the optic nerve, leading to blindness
  • due to deletion of a section of mitochondrial DNA

myoclonic epilepsy with ragged-red fibres (MERRF)
- abnormal mitochondria with crystallin inclusions

186
Q

which organelle is damaged through ageing and how can this be detected?

A

mitochondria - drooping eyelids through muscle weakness as a subtle early sign of disease

187
Q

what is the impact of the bottleneck effect on the pattern of mitochondrial diseases among siblings?

A
  • as cells divide, the mitochondria (500-2000 per cell) will be randomly divided between the two cells
  • some cells will have many damaged mitochondria and other only a few
  • some children will have very severe symptoms and their siblings, scarcely any
188
Q

what is the probability of a woman with mitochondrial disease having affected children?

A
  • likely to have all children affected to some extent

- not like a recessive disease, in which there is a 1/4 chance that each child will inherit the condition

189
Q

where in the body are mitochondria seldom renewed?

A

in the brain and heart

190
Q

true or false: sex is a mechanism for reshuffling genes through recombination

A

true

191
Q

what are the qualities of a perfect Hardy-Weinberg population?

A
  • all genes are equally likely to copy themselves (ie. no effect on physical fitness)
  • no mutation
  • no immigration
  • random mating
192
Q

state the Hardy-Weinberg equation

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

where p = dominant allele; q = recessive allele

193
Q

what is the result of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A

population stability

194
Q

according to HW, how do genotype and allele frequencies change?

A

genotype frequencies change but allele frequencies do not

195
Q

what is the incidence of rare alleles in a HW population?

A

the incidence of rare alleles is far higher in heterozygotes than in homozygotes

196
Q

what factors affect the HW equilibrium?

A
  • small populations
  • inbreeding
  • selection
  • mutation
  • migration
197
Q

define ‘genetic drift’

A

variation in the relative frequency of different genotypes in a small population due to the chance disappearance of particular alleles as individuals die/fail to reproduce

198
Q

what is the standard deviation of a HW population?

A

standard deviation = SQRT(pq/N)

where N = population size

199
Q

when are shifts between generations largest in a HW population?

A
  • when pq is large (eg. p = 0.5, q = 0.5) ie. at intermediate gene frequencies
  • when N is small ie. slower divergence in larger populations
200
Q

true or false: in a HW population, a lost gene can be recovered

A

false; once a gene is gone, it is gone forever

201
Q

how is the harmonic mean calculated?

A

= k / [1/N1 + 1/N2 + 1/N3 + … + 1/Nk]

202
Q

what is the advantage of calculating the harmonic mean instead of the ‘regular’ mean?

A

it shows the importance of bottlenecks on the population (which may be unknown/unknowable due to how long ago they occurred)

203
Q

which genetic effects are demonstrated by the population of Tristan da Cunha?

A
  • founder effect
  • several secondary bottlenecks
  • highest incidence in the world of retinoblastoma
  • very high frequency of asthma
  • due to genetic change without natural selection
204
Q

what is a ‘bottleneck’?

A

a sharp reduction in population size due to environmental effects

205
Q

what is the founder effect?

A

loss of genetic variation that occurs when a new population is established by a very small number of individuals from a larger population

206
Q

which condition has a high incidence in Pingelap?

A

achromatopsia (colourblindness)

207
Q

why is it that cheetahs can accept skin transplants from one another?

A

there is almost no genetic variation in cheetahs, possibly due to a population bottleneck

208
Q

what is the effective population size?

A

the number of individuals in a population that contribute offspring in the next generation

209
Q

why do bottleneck populations lead to inbreeding and what is the effect of this?

A
  • small populations with no free choice of mates

- reduces the incidence of heterozygotes - homozygotes by descent

210
Q

give an example of the high incidence of a disease due to the founder effect

A

high incidence of Ellis-van Creveld in the Amish population

211
Q

define ‘genetic admixture’

A

a genetic admixture occurs when individuals from two or more previously separated populations begin interbreeding as a result of migration, resulting in the introduction of new genetic lineages into a population

212
Q

define ‘genetic swamping’

A

the process that occurs two genetically isolated populations come into contact and the genes from a larger population dominate over the genes in the small population, reducing its genetic diversity

213
Q

what is the effect of migration on gene frequencies

A

migration homogenises gene frequencies over time; if sufficient interbreeding, two populations will become the same, but can take a long time for recombination to break up blocks of linked genes

214
Q

explain how markers along the genome can be used to assess the risk of hypertension for an individual with both European and African origins

A
  • African-Americans have high levels of hypertension
  • if sections of chromosome 6 or chromosome 21 is of African origins, higher risk
  • an increased risk hints at the location of the gene responsible
215
Q

what is assortative mating?

A

a non-random mating pattern in which individuals with similar genotypes and/or phenotypes mate with one another more frequently than would be expected under a random mating pattern

216
Q

give of an example of positive assortative mating

A

sheep mate with sheep similar to themselves or that look like their mothers

217
Q

what is the effect of negative assortative mating?

A

an increase in the number of heterozygotes over time

218
Q

how may negative assortative mating have arisen?

A

perhaps it evolved as an anti-inbreeding mechanism, since inbreeding can expose hidden recessives

219
Q

what are the chances of a child of unrelated parents surviving its first year? how does this change if the child’s parents are cousins?

A
  • the child of unrelated parents is 98% likely to survive first year
  • the figure drops to 96% for the child of cousins
  • this represents a doubling of the mortality rate due to inbreeding
220
Q

give an example of a trait for which there is random mating and of one for which mating is generally non-random in the human population

A

random mating for eg. blood groups

non-random mating for eg. skin colour

221
Q

how do chimpanzees reduce the chances of inbreeding?

A
  • behavioural mechanism to reduce excess homozygosity in offspring
  • young males are driven out at puberty
  • this reduces the chances of them mating with their sisters
222
Q

how does sex avoid excess homozygosity in offspring?

A
  • mechanism of self-incompatibility

- one genotype (male) can only mate with a different one (female)

223
Q

why are many hermaphroditic plants self-sterile?

A

to avoid inbreeding by self-fertilisation

224
Q

how do hermaphroditic plants avoid inbreeding?

A
  • they are self-sterile
  • if different individuals are two closely related, fertilisation does not occur
  • this is enforced outbreeding to prevent the loss of genetic diversity
225
Q

explain the mechanism of forced outbreeding in hermaphroditic plants

A
  • depends on a system of self-incompatibility
  • often involves many alleles at a locus
  • if pollen and egg carry the same one, fertilisation fails
  • pollen lands on the style and must grow a pollen tube to reach the egg
  • pollen is haploid; the style tissue is diploid
  • eg. a x ab fails; b x ab fails; c x ab succeeds
  • this system requires at least three alleles
226
Q

what is the effect of the forced outbreeding mechanism on a new allele

A
  • any new allele is initially at a great advantage, since no plant will carry it
  • advantage decreases as the allele becomes more common over generations (identity by descent)
227
Q

define ‘frequency-dependent selection’

A

frequency-dependent selection is the term given to an evolutionary process where the fitness of a phenotype depends on its frequency relative to other phenotypes in a given population

228
Q

what is the ‘Bruce effect’?

A
  • female mice from one inbred line prefer males from another
  • females even prefer to lie in bedding soaked with the urine of a different male
  • if a pregnant female mated to a male from her own line is exposed to a new male from a different line, she reabsorbs her foetuses in order to mate with the new male
  • mice can tell the kinship of potential partners by smell, particularly of urine
  • mate choice mechanism is similar to the ‘self-not-self’ recognition in the immune system, but instructs to accept (not reject) a genetically different individual
229
Q

what is an inbred line?

A
  • homozygous at all loci

- different lines are fixed from different alleles

230
Q

what is a major histocompatibility complex?

A

a set of cell surface molecules which control a major part of the immune system in vertebrates

231
Q

how does the immune system relate to inbreeding?

A
  • perhaps the immune system developed in part as a mechanism to prevent inbreeding
  • some women have recurrent spontaneous abortions - they may have husbands with similar histocompatibility antigens to their own
232
Q

give an example of a way in which humans have attempted to minimise the effects of inbreeding

A
  • Tay Sachs is a (recessive) nervous degenerative disorder
  • high frequency (1/16) of Tay Sachs carriers in the Jewish group Dor Yeshorim
  • nearly all individuals carry the same mutation
  • possibly due to a population bottleneck
  • use of matchmakers to prevent two carriers for the condition from marrying
  • anonymous testing of individuals
  • idea of Rabbi Eckstein
233
Q

how many women may Ashkenazi Jews be descended from?

A

four

234
Q

what is reflected by the selective number (S)?

A

S reflects the ability of genotypes to contribute to the next generation

235
Q

what is the nature of the selective number (S) for a recessive lethal allele?

A

S is negative and absolute

236
Q

explain the allele frequencies for a recessive lethal using H-W

A

if a is lethal, frequency a = q / (1+q) and frequency p = p / (1+q)

237
Q

what is a major failure of the eugenics argument related to selection against a recessive allele

A

selection against a recessive allele is much slower when rare; this is reflected by a curve of disappearance for a recessive lethal allele

238
Q

at what speed do dominant alleles disappear?

A

very quickly

239
Q

how much time does it take for a new recessive/dominant allele to increase in frequency?

A

recessive - takes a very long time

dominant - takes a much shorter time

240
Q

give an example of the rapid spread of an advantageous dominant allele

A

the alleles for insectiside resistance spread quickly under selection

241
Q

how can the Murray collection be used to demonstrate the phenomenon of antibiotic resistance?

A
  • the collection includes reference strains of harmful bacteria gathered between 1914 and 1950
  • lept in suspended animation
  • all susceptible to every single antibiotic used today
242
Q

how can resistance be spread?

A
  • infectious third parties
  • plasmids
  • sections of mobile DNA inserted into genetic material
243
Q

give an example of a bacteria with multiple resistance

A

Plague bacillus in Madagasar

  • resistance to ampicillin. chloramphenicol, streptomycin, spectinomycin, kanamycin, tetracycline, suphonamides
  • resistance genes to all seven on a single length of mobile DNA
244
Q

give an example of natural selection in humans

A

the ACE gene

  • long version and short version
  • only those with two copies of the long version have climbed Everest without oxygen
  • only those with two copies of the long version are able to improve their performance with training
  • short version is common in Africa
  • long version is increasingly more common the further away from Africa
  • short homozygotes retain salt more - an advantage in the arid, hot conditions of Africa
  • then, in colder/drier regions, perhaps the long version was favoured in high stress conditions with less need for salt retention
  • perhaps short homozygotes are more likely to have a high blood pressure?
245
Q

on average, how many new mutations are found in each child compared to its parents?

A

sixty

246
Q

why is genetics important in early cancer diagnosis?

A

a genetic change is detectable long before symptoms appear

247
Q

how can the age of body parts be checked?

A

by calculating how much radioactive carbon is lost when those body parts are exposed to a source of rdiation

248
Q

how often are various tissues replaced?

A
  • skin cells 2 week
  • red blood cells 4 months
  • liver not yet reached first birthday
249
Q

what is the relationship between rate of regeneration and probability of cancer?

A

tissues that are regenerated more often have a greater rate of division and therefore a higher incidence of cancer due to mutations as the cells divide

250
Q

how did de Vries discover mutation?

A

he repeated Mendel’s experiments using Oenothera lamarckiana and observed sudden heritable changes between generations

251
Q

who discovered mutation?

A

Hugo de Vries

252
Q

what is Oenothera lamarckiana?

A

the evening primrose

253
Q

what is unique about the mutation rate of Oenothera lamarckiana?

A

uniquely high mutation rate due to system of chromosome breakage and rejoining

254
Q

true or false: mutation is the raw material for evolution

A

true

255
Q

give an example of ow immune defences are based on somatic mutations

A

the very rapid mutation rate of immunoglobin genes constantly produces new variant forms of antibody ready to attack any new antigen

256
Q

give an example of a disease thought to be due to mutation alone

A

Proteus syndrome - causes bone overgrowth by somatic mutation
(Joseph Merrick, the elephant man)

257
Q

what categories of mutations are found in Drosophila?

A
  • morphological - loss-of-function (mostly) and gain-of-function
  • conditional - show gene-environment interaction
258
Q

give an example of a gain-of-function mutation in Drosophila

A

homeotic mutations such as antennapedia or bithorax

259
Q

describe how the mutations in maize can be observed

A
  • maize endosperm (tissue surrounding the embryo - visible as corn-on-the-cob) is triploid
  • every corn-cob is a family of different individual seeds
  • it is therefore possible to examine many individuals quickly, since the seed colour is affected
260
Q

which scientist investigation mutation in maize?

A

Lewis Stadler

261
Q

explain the locus-specific test for recessive mutations

A
  • corn colour locus C = coloured; c = white
  • cc female x CC male
    = endosperm is triploid - one allele from the male and two from the female
  • without mutation, every kernel is Ccc (coloured)
  • any mutation from C to c is visible as a white kernel
262
Q

true or false: mutation rates at different loci are the same

A

false

263
Q

describe a direct method of detecting mutations in mice

A
  • mice homozygous recessive for several coat-colour mutations are crossed with mice wildtype at all loci
  • if there is no mutation, all offspring should be heterozygous for all loci
  • any mutation is visible as a change in coat colour
264
Q

what is the effect of injecting a mouse pregnant with heterozygour offspring with a mutagen?

A

the offspring will be born with patches of coloured hair

265
Q

what are the problems with counting human mutations?

A
  • illegitimacy
  • heterogeneity
  • phenocopies
266
Q

what is heterogeneity?

A

several diseases are phenotypically similar and therefore difficult to differentiate

267
Q

explain the heterogeneity of polydactyly

A

polydactyly is due to mutations at many different loci, but mutation at a single locus gives a very high rate and so was initially believed to be the cause

268
Q

define ‘phenocopy’

A

an individual showing features characteristic of a genotype other than its own, but produced environmentally rather than genetically

269
Q

give an example of a phenocopy condition

A

some gene mutations give rise to shortened limbs (phocomelia), but thalidomide gave the same phenotype

270
Q

name a factor that contributes to the intrinsic stability of genes

A
  • the size of the gene

- larger genes eg. Duchenne muscular dystophy have higher mutation rates

271
Q

name a factor that contributes to the intrinsic stability of genes

A
  • the size of the gene - larger genes eg. Duchenne muscular dystophy have higher mutation rates
  • certain sequences seem to mutate eg. human fingerprint has a 1% mutation rate
272
Q

give one theory as to why so many millions of gametes are made

A

perhaps this is a mechanism for filtering out new harmful mutations and only allowing the ‘best’ sperm or egg to ‘win’

273
Q

what is the difference between proofreading and repair?

A
  • proofreading = false segments are detected and synthesis is stopped until the incorrect segment is removed
  • repair = actual reversal of damage
274
Q

what is the error rate of newly synthesised DNA?

A

1/10^9 nucleotides, but the majority are repaired or kill the cell

275
Q

which scientist discovered that ionising radiation causes mutation?

A

Hermann Muller

276
Q

what is the relationship between the wavelength and wave penetration?

A

as the wavelength gets shorter, the waves become more penetrating

277
Q

how do gamma and x-rays act as ionising radiation?

A

they produce ions by colliding which atoms, which then produce free radicals in the cell, potentially damaging the DNA

278
Q

which parts of the electromagnetic spectrum act as ionising radiation?

A

gamma rays, x-rays and the higher ultraviolet part of the spectrum

279
Q

what is ‘target theory’?

A

the theory that organisms have ‘targets’, the injury of which leads to injury of the entire organism

280
Q

what is the implication of target theory?

A
  • even a small increase in x-ray dosage is dangerous if given over a long enough period
  • there is no safe low level of x-rays
  • inevitable increase in genetic load
281
Q

define ‘genetic load’

A

the increase in human damage resulting in the decline of the species

282
Q

what are the effects of irradiating a male and immediately mating to a female versus delaying mating for a few hours?

A
  • immediate mating - approximately linear relationship of mutation incidence with dose
  • delayed mating - low doses of x-rays much less effectiv in causing mutation, even resulting in repair
283
Q

how many were killed in Hiroshima from radiation sickness?

A

80 000

284
Q

which cancers had an increased incidence in survivors of Hiroshima?

A

lung and thyroid

285
Q

how did Chernobyl compare to Hiroshima in terms of radiation?

A

at Chernobyl,

  • at least 10 million people exposed to radiation
  • far less immediate exposure
  • fewer than 60 deaths
  • total predicted death toll of 4000
286
Q

what is the effect of UV light?

A

UV light causes thymine dimers, a powerful somatic mutation

287
Q

what is Xeroderma pigmentosum?

A

individuals lack a particular repair enzyme and UV carcinogenesis is therefore lethal

288
Q

who discovered that war gases cause mutations?

A

Charlotte Auerbach - she knew that war gases caused radiomimetic burns and found that these caused mutation

289
Q

what is mustard gas?

A

mustard gas is an alkylating agent

290
Q

define ‘alkylating agent’

A

a substance that causes the replacement of hydrogen by an alkyl group

291
Q

define ‘base analog’

A

a chemical that can substitute for a normal nucleobase in nucleic acids

292
Q

give an example of a base analog

A

5-bromouracil (5BU)

293
Q

define ‘acridine’

A

a dye that inserts itself into the growing popypeptide chain, causing a frameshift

294
Q

how was the system of the Ames test made more similar to humans?

A

by adding minced-up fresh rat liver, since enzyme may metabolise otherwise harmless chemicals to convert them into mutagens

295
Q

give some examples of diseases that are characterised by a failure of DNA repair

A

Bloom’s syndrome, Werner’s syndrome, progeria

296
Q

what is the relationship between germinal mutation and age of parents?

A

an increased parental age increases the likelihood of any offspring having such conditions as achondroplastic dwarfism, since there is an increase in mutation rate with age

297
Q

what is the age difference between fathers of haemophiliacs and the average?

A

fathers of haemophiliacs are 11 years older than the average age

298
Q

what is the increased incidence of achondroplasia in children of fathers of age 45 compared to those of fathers of age 25?

A

11 x

299
Q

why is the incidence of many hereditary disorders increased by the age of the father?

A
  • only one division in the germline is meiotic
  • the rest (producing spermatogonia) are mitotic
  • there are more mitotic divisions between sperm and sperm in older fathers than in young ones
300
Q

why is the age of the mother less of a factor when considering the incidence of many hereditary disorders?

A
  • set of eggs made at puberty
  • released at intervals
  • fewer cell divisions
  • smaller accumulation of mutations
301
Q

how could the cell act as a cellular clock? how is this differete in cancer cells?

A
  • every time a cell divides, part of the telomere is lost (mutation)
  • once this reaches a maximum, the cell stops dividing
  • cancer cells do not have this mutational reduction in telomere length
  • continue to divide uncontrollably
302
Q

in which gender is there more mutation and in which is there more recombination?

A

there is more mutation in males and more recombination in females - more crossovers and more splicing (repair)
women fix men’s screwups

303
Q

which scientist noted the similarity between European languages and those of Northern India?

A

William Jones

304
Q

what was the suggestion of William Jones regarding the similarity of different languages?

A

he proposed that they had evolved and formed a reconstructed tree suggesting evolution from a common ancestor; inevitable faults in transmission from generation to generation

305
Q

what was the widely-held theory concerning the origin of language before the proposal of Jones?

A

it was previously held that language is of divine origin, given to man during the episode of the Tower of Babel

306
Q

when is it thought that the first language existed?

A

~50 000 years ago

307
Q

what is the genetic relationship between humans and chimpanzees?

A
  • we are a much diminished species when considering bodily attributes
  • we have lost hundreds of genes since our split with our common ancestor
308
Q

what are the main differences between chimpanzees and humans?

A

chimpanzees ————— humans
hairy and strong ———- same number of hairs but reduced thickness
powerful teeth ———- reduced teeth
huge jaw musculature ———- mutation in single gene that makes myosin, resulting in smaller muscle cells throughout
chimps eat twice as much in relation to body weight ———- intestine wall half the length
must chew ———- reduced stomach; cooking
raw food only ———- will starve on raw food
more sperm, more sperm competition ———- less sexually impressive; smaller testes
penis spines ———- loss of penis spines
less evolved brains ———- enormous increase in brain size per body mass
communication ———- speech
more variation based on geographical location ———- very little geographical variation

309
Q

summarise evolution in three words

A

descent with modification

310
Q

how many HIV virus particles are transmitted per sexual encounter?

A

one

311
Q

what is the implication of natural selection on CCL3L1?

A

homozygotes for the allele will survive much longer than heterozygotes, and those with no alleles will die first

312
Q

how many copies of the CCL3L1 allele do chimps and other primates have compared to humans?

A

many more copies and so are unaffected/affected only mildly by eg. SIV

313
Q

give an example of how language can serve as evolution in the mind

A
  • the incidence of HIV has been reduced through education programmes focusing on reducing promiscuity
  • HIV has been largely contained by the development of anti-viral drugs
314
Q

what is verbal dyspraxia?

A

the inability to understand grammar (FOXP2 gene)

BIOL1005 Dina (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions