Genetics 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe dominant autosomal disorders with example

A
single gene disease 
multiple egenerations affected
child of affected person = 1/2 chance 
m+f equally likely to be effecting 
vertical degree pattern 
gain of function-gene makes protein with a new function

huntingtons- proteins aggregate

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2
Q

Describe autosomal recessive disorders with example

A
two copies of non working gene 
loss of function mutations- 
sibling of affected child has 1/4 chance of being affected 
m+f equally effected 
horizontal pedigree pattern

cystic fibrosis- chloride channel is defective

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3
Q

Why in brittle bones does a mutation in collagen affect skeletal abnormalities

A

Skeleton initially laid down ad collagen, is mineralised later
if collagen is defective then bones are

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4
Q

Describe X linked recessive and dominant disorders

A

RECESSIVE- mainly affects males
brothers of affected son have 1/2 risk, sisters 1/2 risk of being a carrier
affected father= all sons will be healthy, all daughters carriers
carrier mother= 1/2 carrier daughter, 1/2 affected son
e.g haemophilia

DOMINANT-
affected father= all daughters and non sons affected
Affected mother= 1/2 chance son or daughter

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5
Q

Describe Y linked disorders

A

only males affected
all sons of affected father
vertical degree mater

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6
Q

Describe mitochondria disorders and the variability in them

A

Have their own DNA and all mitochondria maternally inherited

all children of affected woman are affected

variability as mitochondria replicate via binary fission so can lose or gain mutated genes due to random segregation , will only express the disease phenotype if over a threshold. can change with time and develop with age

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7
Q

In brittle bones what protein changes and how does this affect electrophoresis

A

From glycine to cysteine. Cysteine can from disulphide bridges to link chains together, 2-mercaptoethanol breaks these.
Glycine is more negative than cysteine so in electrophoresis one of the chains will move less than normal collagen chains.

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8
Q

How does the protein change in brittle bones change the assembly of type 1 collagen

A

glycine changes to cysteine, and cysteine can’t fit so fibrils will be affected.
even if only half colA1 protein is mutated all fibrils will be affected when they are packed together

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9
Q

If the patients are genetically identical what is the likely cause of variance in phenotype?

A

environment

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10
Q

Prenatal diagnostic tests for brittle bones/ osteogenesis imperfect

A

Sample from foetus: amniocentesis, chronic villus sampling

RFLP- mutation makes or breaks restriction site, gel electrophoresis
or
PCR- amplify, gel then probe for mutation

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11
Q

If the patients are related but NOT genetically identical what is the likely cause of variance?

A

Effect of other genes which interact with the disease

could be environment

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12
Q

If the patients are unrelated but the same mutation what is the likely cause of variance?

A

unstable mutations- change with time/age

different mutations in the same gene

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13
Q

What do the dark and light bands of karyotyped chromosomes mean

A

Bands have different staining, dark (heterochromatin) are more compact and have fewer genes, light 9euchromatin) are more open and have more genes

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14
Q

Describe basic nomenclature

A
p= short arm
q=long arm 
del- deletion 
der- derivative (extra material 
dup
ins
\+/- BEFORE chromosome number is gain or loss of whole chromosome
\+/- AFTER chromosome number is gain/loss of part of chromosome

normally put total number of chromosomes then where the gain or loss is

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15
Q

What is aneuploidy and how does it happen

A

Abnormal number of chromosomes: non disjunction

In normal meiosis the aim is to reduce from diploid 2n=46 to haploid n=23, allows genetic variation through random assortment and recombination
Non disjunction results in an uneven number of chromosomes In daughter cells if in Meiosis I all daughter cells affected, if meiosis 2 then half but it still results in a trisomy and monosomy

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16
Q

Why is sex chromosome aneuploidy tolerated

A

there is X inactivation of excess X chromosomes, only one is active
low gene content of Y chromosome

both X and Y have PAR (pseudo autosomal region) - regions of a chromosome that remain active even after inactivation

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17
Q

Where does trisomy 21 arise and what are the risk factors

A

in maternal non disjunction- the risk of this increases with age because the oocyte remains in meiosis 1 for a long time and the factors which hold chromatids together are degraded

Primary spermatocytes undergo many divisions per year and can accumulate defects.
paternal age doesn’t affect, only for some single gene disorders that enhance sperm viability
Paternal smoking is a risk factor

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18
Q

What is crossing over, when does it occur and how an it go wrong/lead to aneuploidy

A

In prophase 1, increases genetic diversity
pair of chromosomes aligns, chiasma forms and crossover occurs

If the chromosomes misalign then they can cross over wrongly leading to del - deletion of a gene in some and dup- duplication of a DNA region in others

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19
Q

What is chromosome inversion and what are the types

A

Paracentric - far from centromere
Pericentric- around centromere

people often unaffected, happens when the DNA that breaks off gets inverted

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20
Q

What is translocation and insertion

A

involve non homologous chromosomes
In an insertion, DNA from one chromosome is moved to a non-homologous chromosome in a unidirectional manner. In a translocation, the transfer of chromosomal segments is bidirectional and reciprocal – a reciprocal translocation.

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21
Q

What is Williams syndrome, what is the phenotype and how can it be detected

A

A deletion from one chromosome, will have short upturned nose, long philtre, arched eyebrows, friendly+ social cocktail party personality

7q11.23del

FISH (fluorescent thing) will detect a lack of elastin on effected chromosome

if its a 7q11.23 duplication then will be the opposite- delayed speech, autistic behaviours, flat eyebrows, broad nose

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22
Q

What are the three classes of chromosomes

A

Metacentric- has a short arm (p) and a long arm (q)
Submetacentric- short arm becomes shorter
Acrocentric- short arm replaced with a stalk and small bit of DNA

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23
Q

What is Robertsonian translocation

A

between Afrocentric chromosomes, homologous or non homologous
most show no effects but problems in offspring

13+14, 14+15, 14+21

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24
Q

What is mosaicism

A

Presence of two or more populations of cells with different genotypes
X inactivation leads to mosaic expression

Mosaicism can arise via: non disjunction or loss of extra chromosome: causes milder phenotype and some aneuploidy can survive if mosaic

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25
Q

What is the mendelian trait

A

controlled by a single gene, phenotype follows dominant e.g. ABO blood group

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26
Q

What is a complex trait

A

Controlled by multiple genes and the effect of the environment e.g height, weight, skin, eye colour

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27
Q

What are some examples of Complex and mendelian diseases

A

mendelian- cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anaemia

complex- diabetes, cardiovascular disease, asthma, mental health diseases

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28
Q

What are SNPs, how can they be used and why are they useful

A

Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms

they are DNA sequence variations that occur when a single nucleotide is changed, the single nucleotide polymorphism frequency between control groups ad ones with disease are found, if one is more frequent its likely to be a susceptibility gene

They are useful for public health, can target those who have susceptibility genes- high risk groups and have preventative strategies from the beginning which will save resources in the long term.

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29
Q

What is missing heritability and what could be the reason for it

A

genetic variants in Genome-Wide Association Studies (GWAS) cannot completely explain the heritability of complex traits. Traditionally, the heritability of a phenotype is measured through familial studies using twins, siblings and other close relatives, making assumptions on the genetic similarities between them. When this heritability is compared to the one obtained through GWAS for the same traits, a substantial gap between both measurements arise with genome wide studies reporting significantly smaller values.

could be due to :
rare variants of small effect, low frequency variants with intermediate effects, interactions between susceptibility genes, miscalculation of heritability

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30
Q

What is pharmacogenetics and why is personalised medicine a thing

A

The study of variability in drug response due to genetic difference, it may have no effect on some and a severe effect on others
The action of the drug is the same bu the response and how its metabolised is genetic

aims for increased efficacy and decreased adverse side effects
personalised medicine aims to treat patients depending on specific characteristic of their disease

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31
Q

What prenatal scans are there and why are they useful

A

Nuchal scan- 10-14 weeks gestation- dates pregnancy, diagnoses multiple pregnancy, major fatal abnormalities, early miscarriage or risk of Down syndrome and other chromosomal abnormalities by looking at maternal age, blood hormone levels, nuchal translucency thickness, blood flow through metal heart
Midtrimester anomoly scan
Ultrasound scans

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32
Q

What is nuchal translucency and what does it indicate

A
Thickness of fluid at back of neck 
higher than 3mm can indicate:
1) chromosomal abnormalities like downs
2) birth defects- cardiac anomalies, pulmonary defects, renal defects, abdominal wall defects
3) skeletal dysplasias

NT is a screening test and is not diagnostic

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33
Q

When is prenatal testing arranged and with what aim

A

Following abnormal nuchal or mid trimester scan
inc risk of downs
if previous pregnancy affected
if parents carrier of chromosome rearrangement or genetic condition

to inform and prepare parents, allow in utero treatment, manage remainder of pregnancy, prepared for complications after, allow termination of an affected foetus

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34
Q

What are some non invasive prenatal testing methods

A

Cell-free foetal DNA- analyses DNA fragments in maternal plasma, most of the DNA from the mother and 10-20% from foetus. Can test for aneuploidy T13, T18 and T21

Non Invasive Prenatal diagnosis methods:
achondroplasia, apert syndrome: test if runs in family
sexing if there is an X linked condition in condition - if male then test if female then no test
detect if maternal or paternal mutation has been inherited

35
Q

What are the limitations and begets of non invasive pregnancy diagnosis and non invasive pregnancy testing

A

if have twins/multiple pregnancy its not possible to tell which fetus the NDA is from
proportion of cell-free foetal DNA is reduced in women with high BMI
Women must prepare themselves form the implications of an invasive test result and consider the consequences of the results- whether they want to know

however, non invasive testing reduces the amount of invasive testing
no increased risk of miscarriage
less expertise is required to perform a blood test than invasive
get a result much earlier as offered earlier

36
Q

What are some invasive tests and when are they offered

A

offered if there is a known risk

Chronic villus sampling (from placenta)- 11-14 weeks, 1-2% chance of miscarriage, trans abdominal or transvaginal, samples of chorionic villi which is developing into placenta, faster result that amniocentesis

Amniocentesis (fluid from around baby)- 16 weeks, sample of amniotic fluid containing fetal cells, up to 1% risk of miscarriage, infection and rh sensitisation is a risk

37
Q

With the DNA samples obtained from invasive tests, what tests are done

A

Test for genetic disorder worried about
karyotype if chromosomal abnormality in family
QF-PCR- looks for t13,18,21. quantitative fluorescence polymerase chain reaction. Small sections (markers) of DNA from the sample are amplified, labelled with fluorescent tags and the amounts measured by electrophoresis.

38
Q

What test is offered if there are concerns on the 20 week scan

A

CGH array- looks for small/large imbalances in chromosomes like micro deletions and duplications

if something is found test the parents to see if they are a carrier

39
Q

How is a CGH array done

A

DNA is extracted and labelled with different fluorescent dyes
Hybridised and washed
Scanned to detect red and green signals
analyse data to see gains and losses in DNA

40
Q

What is trio exome

A

Exome is the coding region of DNA, DNA is taken from foetus/baby and parents

Identifies causal mutations

its considered when the foetus in previous pregnancy had significant anomalies

41
Q

What are the options for family planning where there is a known reproductive risk and explain these

A

Conceive naturally no testing
conceive naturally with prenatal testing
egg/sperm donors - not anonymous, licensed fertility centre is better
adoption: registration and checks (medical and criminal background checks), assessment and approval (home visits, panel review and see if suitable)
choose not to have children
pre implantation genetic diagnosis- uses IVF and additional step to test embryo before implantation

42
Q

What is the process of pre implantation genetic diagnosis and embryo testing

A

Stimulation of ovaries - hyper stimulation of ovaries to remove lots of eggs
Egg collection
Insemination - single sperm injected into centre of egg, reduced amount of non-embryo DNA which could inc risk of single faulty gene conditions
Fertilisation
Embryo biopsy (take one cell)- once blastocyst
embryo testing
embryo transfer of non defected ones
pregnancy test

43
Q

What is pre implantation genetic diagnosis used for and what is the eligibility criteria

A

Genetic disorders: translocation carriers, HD, DMD, CF
Nationally funded for three rounds
HFEA requires license

Female under age 39, BMI of 19-30, both don’t smoke, stable relationship and living together, no living unaffected children, risk of having a child with serious condition, female has appropriate hormone levels and will respond to treatment, no welfare concerns,

44
Q

What is the role of a genetic counsellor

A

Arrange and explain CVS, amniocentesis, PGD and cell free foetal DNA
facilitate decision making - previous experience, family situation, religion, personal beliefs, balancing miscarriage risk with genetic risk, dealing with indecision and couples not agreeing
give results
see patients in clinic following diagnosis in utero
arrange termination if necessary

45
Q

What is phenylketonuria, how is it treated and what happens if untreated

A

Lack of phenylalanine hydroxylate, build up the amount of phenylalanine as it can’t be converted into to tyrosine as don’t have enzyme.
substrate build up due to lack of enzyme
as it can’t be converted phenylketones are produced instead

if untreated: cognitive impairment, fairer skin, hair and eyes due to lack of melanin, recurrent vomiting, behavioural difficulties

treatments- low protein diet with tyrosine supplement

46
Q

What is haemophilia

A

Blood clotting disorder, uncontrolled bleeding, internal bleeding into joints/brain

if untreated then fatal
treatment- VIII clotting factor from freeze dried plasma derived factor concentrates

47
Q

When there is a protein mutation, what should pharmacological therapies be targeting to achieve

A

treating condition not symptoms
treatments not cures
normalise function of mutant protein

48
Q

What is a pharmacological chaperone

A

Protein folding in the endoplasmic reticulum sometimes fails, if it fails the ER degrades the misfolding proteins. Chaperones cause small molecules to enter the cell and correct the misfolded proteins so they can be active and exported out to use instead of degraded - a quality control check. If the defective protein bypasses these check then will lack activity in lysosomes

49
Q

How are chaperones used in Fabry disease

A

Fabry disease is a deficiency of alpha galactosidase A, globotriaosylceramide (glycoside0 builds uo instead. Mutations cause misfiling
MIGALASTAT is a small molecule chaperone and stabilises the enzyme into the correct shape

50
Q

What are pharmacological modulators

A

Commonly used drugs, receptor agonists or antagonists and ion channel activators or blockers
e.g can inhibit Bcl-abl kinase inhibitors

(Philadelphia chromosome (Ph) results from a translocation between the breakpoint cluster region (BCR) gene on chromosome 9 and ABL proto-oncogene 1 (ABL1) gene on chromosome 22. The fusion gene, BCR-ABL1, is a constitutively active tyrosine kinase which promotes development of leukemia)

51
Q

How can a pharmacological modulator be used to help cystic fibrosis

A

They have a defective chloride channel due to CFTR gene and the mutation causes them not to open
IVACAFTOR binds to the chloride channel and allows it to open which activated it. IS mutation specific as have to have the inactive Cl- channels

52
Q

How can combination therapy be useful for cystic fibrosis

A

Has a mutation which causes a missing amino acid and therefore the channel is misfiled and inactivated
combination chaperone and activator/modulator
chaperone to stop the misfolding of the channel in the first place and activator/modulator to impact existing ones
ORKAMBI does this

53
Q

What drugs can be used for diseases caused by nonsense mutations which have a premature stop codon, give an example a disease this works on

A

the premature stop codon prevents protein production as its shortened

AMINOGLYCOSIDE antibiotics can bind to the ribosome and cause mistranslation - stop them responding to the stop codons so the protein isn’t shortened

Duchenne muscular dystrophy- has a premature stop codon
Becker muscular dystrophy- missing section
using a amino glycoside (ataluren) means that instead of Duchenne they will have Beckers which is much less severe

54
Q

Why is gene therapy difficult to achieve

A

hard to achieve specificity for mutation, getting therapy to right placenta too its easier in vitro/ ex vivo than in vivo

55
Q

How does ex vivo/ in vitro gene therapy work

A

patients cells are collected, therapeutic gene is put into inactivated virus, viruses mixed with patients stem cells and the fixed stem cells are re introduced

for example in mitochondrial inherited diseases there are two methods

pronuclear transfer - DNA is taken from fertilised egg and transferred to a donor egg which has normal mitochondria
maternal spindle transfer- chromosomes removed from unfertilised egg that has the mitochondrial mutation and put into donor egg without nucleus then fertilised

56
Q

How can viruses be utilised in gene therapy

A

Can engineer to carry therapeutic gene

virus choice depends on target tissue

57
Q

How is in vitro gene therapy used in severe combined immune-deficiency

A

Have no B or T cell mediated response
can be X linked or due to adenosine deaminase deficiency

Bone marrow transplant kill the patients and replace with a donors if X linked

If due to ADA then - strimvelis is made which allows an autologous transplant to happen if there are no donors. Two samples of bone marrow are take, one is used to make strimvelis which expands the CD34+ cells, they infect this with lentivirus which carries the adenosine deaminase gene. these cells are grown. the patient is then treated with busulfan to kill their hameatopoeitic stem cells and the new rein fused transformed cells are implanted

58
Q

What are examples of in vivo therapy

A

Supplementation - if they lack a functional gene then can inject a virus carrying a working copy of the gene. injected locally to eye, spine,brain or systematically

Leber congenital amaurosis type 2- mutation in RPE65 causes progressive blindness as loses retinal cells, can have supplemental injection into back of eye with cells that express RPE65 so there may be some restoration of vision

59
Q

What is gene silencing

A

For dominant diseases that have gain of function
can be used for recessive genes if has effects on other proteins
can be used for non genetic diseases

60
Q

what are the two methods of gene silencing with examples

A

1) Antisense oligonucelotides- are short modified nucleic acids complementary to targets. DNA in the cell is converted to RNA then to mRNA which s made into protein, antisense oligonucleotides bind to mRNA and destroy it which blocks translation. Can also alter after splicing.
e. g. intoresen is used in transthyretin related hereditary amyloidosis which has a mutation in transthyretin, cleaves it and stops build up
e. g.2 eteplirsen is an antisense oligonucleotide that can cause the skipping of exon 51 by causing splicing

2) RNAi- (siRNA) dsRNA that is complimentary to target, modification prevents degradation and allows it to enter the cell. The pathway of RNA interference starts when Dicer cuts dsRNA into small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) that subsequently target homologous mRNAs for destruction RISC formation. the target mRNA Is then cleaved.
e. g lumasiran is used in primary hyperoxaluria type 1. has a mutation in AGT so gylcooxelate builds up and is broken down to oxalate not glycine which causes kidney damage. doesn’t replace the gene but stops the conversion

61
Q

What is exon skipping and when is it used

A

In pre-RNA processing, oligonucleotides cause and exon to be skipped, skips the disease coding exon and allows to put RNA back into reading frames.
To be used it has to be in large proteins and the exon can’t be vital proteins
e.g. in duchess muscular dystrophy there’s a premature stop, in Becker there’s a missing exon so by exon skipping it improves

62
Q

What is a possible gene silencing therapy

A

Possible CRISPR-cas
a bacterial system disables bacteriophages, recognises and cleaves foreign DNA. may have off targets
already used to alter genome of IVF embryos

63
Q

What is cancer

A

derived from single cells that have acquired characteristics of continually dividing in an unrestrained manner and invading the surrounding tissues, also avoid apoptosis.
This is acquired through changes to the DNA to cancer genes

64
Q

What causes cancer

A

Chemicals like smoking
Radiation ENVIRONMENTAL FACTOR
Viruses can introduce their own genes EXOGENOUS FACTOR
SUSCEPTIBILITY FACTOR GENETICS - hereditary more susceptible

65
Q

What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumour

A

Benign- mass of well differentiated cells that grow slowly DOESNT INVADE tissue or metastasise

Malignant- not self limited in its growth, escapes apoptosis, poorly differentiated, invade surrounding tissues and spread- metastasis

66
Q

What do cancer cells look like

A
Large number of dividing cells 
Large nucleus that's variably shaped
variation in size and shape 
Lost normal features of cell 
Disorganized 
poorly defined boundary
67
Q

What are the different types of cancer

A

Carcinomas: most common - lung breast and colon, epithelial

Sarcomas- cancers from cells found in supporting tissues of the body: bone, cartilage, fat, connective tissue and muscle

Lymphomas: cancers from lymph nodes and tissues of body immune system

Leukaemias: cancers of immature blood cells, grow in bone marrow and tend to accumulate in bloodstream

68
Q

Six hallmarks of cancer

A

self sufficiency in growth signals- activate H-Ras oncogene
evade apoptosis- produce IGF survival factors
insensitivity to anti-growth signals- lose Rb suppressor
sustained angiogenesis- produce VEGF inducer
limitless replicative potential- telomerase tuned on
tissue invasion and metastasis - inactivate E-cadherin

69
Q

What increases the risk of developing cancer

A

Correlated with how often stem cells in that tissue divide

70
Q

Difference between germ-line and somatic mutations

A

Germline mutations are in the egg or sperm, will affect all offspring and are heritable

Somatic mutations- Non gremlin tissues, non-inheritable and very common happens when mutations accumulate in somatic cells over many years

71
Q

What are the different types of mutations as well as genetic mutations

A

Single base substitutions- point mutations, missence
Deletions/insertions
duplications
inversions
translocations : reciprocal (both in the non homologous pair have parts switched), non reciprocal (only one has been given a segment)

Chromosome instability- higher rate of mis-segregation due to defective cell quality mechanism
Aneuploidy: loss in DNA repair system, allows chromosomal rearrangements

72
Q

Overview of how cancers develop and how its multistep

A

Starts with an irreversible genetic alteration, can be inherited-germline mutation or as a Somali mutation, there is hyper proliferation due to defect in tumour suppressor genes e.g. APC , then early adenoma, intermediate adenoma, late adenoma, carcinoma and metastasis. It develops as they acquire additional mutations involving DNA repair genes like RB, K-ras and p53

73
Q

What somatic mutation does UV light cause

A

crosslink adjacent pyrimidine bases like CC, CT, TC and TT to become dimers via covalent bonds. C to T is most common in UV light, if these DNA changes occur in critical genes like BRAF kinase then initiation begins

The light initiates a reaction between two molecules of thymine, one of the bases that make up DNA. The resulting thymine dimer is very stable, but repair of this kind of DNA damage–usually by excising or removing the two bases and filling in the gaps with new nucleotides–is fairly efficient. Even so, it breaks down when the damage is extensive. longer the exposure to UV light, the more thymine dimers are formed in the DNA and the greater the risk of an incorrect repair or a “missed” dimer. If cellular processes are disrupted because of an incorrect repair or remaining damage, the cell cannot carry out its normal functions. At this point, there are two possibilities, depending on the extent and location of the damage. If the damage is not too extensive, cancerous or precancerous cells are created from healthy cells. If it is widespread, the cell will die.

74
Q

What distinct somatic mutation does smoking have

A

Changes G to T

75
Q

What is a passenger mutation and a driver mutation

A

Passenger mutation- many mutations that are tolerated by somatic cells - often heterozygous state. don’t affect the fitness of clones no advantage bu associated with clonal expansion as they occur in the same cells that might have the driver mutation
Driver mutation- few mutations that can confer a selective advantage and are recurrently found -in a homozygous state. cause clonal expansions

Cancer is the continuous acquisition of genetic variation by random mutation, natural selection may eliminate cells that have acquired mutation or choose cells with mutations that might be able to survive and grow better-chooses the driver mutation
Driver mutations have a growth advantage- positively selected
oncogenes- cancer genes where driver mutations are activating or resulting in new functions
tumour supressors- cancer genes where mutations are inactivating their functions
candidate driver- cells with mutations of the gene more likely to become cancerous, has a greater impact on protein mutation that passenger

76
Q

What are oncogenes

A

Genes that have the ability to cause cancer, begin as proto-oncogenes which are to prevent cancer and regulate cell proliferation but acquire a mutation. The mutation will activate oncogenes by chromosomal rearrangements,, gene amplification through MyC and mutation through Ras. Will usually be dominant and a gain of function mutation, will escape apoptosis and proliferate

ONE MUTATION IS ENOUGH TO CAUSE CANCER

77
Q

What is an example of an acquired mutation in an oncogene

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia
The BCR protein has serine threonine kinase activity. The ABL protein has many roles in the cellular pathway, it acts as an inactivating switch for tyrosine kinase. When translocation occurs within chromosomes 9 and 22 and create the Philadelphia gene, the tyrosine kinase activity is switched on indefinitely and will phosphorylase the Ras protein. Ras controls cellular signalling for many pathways like cell growth, adhesion, migration. Ras controls cell proliferation by being switched on/off when mutated it’s switched on and proliferates in an uncontrollable manner.

78
Q

What is the activity of Ras governed by and mutation in the P12 gene causes what

A

When Ras is bound to GDP it is inactive, GEF catalyses the release of GDP, due to nucleotide exchange Ras has a higher affinity for GTP so will bind. This will switch on signalling pathways. The GAP protein will hydrolyse GTP and cause Ras to be inactive again

Mutation causes a switch to guanine or cysteine which makes the GDP domain of Ras insensitive and switches it on causing cell proliferation

79
Q

What rare mutations in oncogenes can be inherited and what can it lead to

A

Mutation in KIT leads to GI stromal tumour
RET- thyroid cancer
CDK4-malignant melanoma
MET- papillary renal cancer

80
Q

What are tumour suppressor genes and some examples

A

A gene that regulates the cell cycle during division. Mutation in tumour suppressors leads to a loss of function. One mutation makes them a susceptible carrier but a if ,mutations are accumulated it leads to the activation of oncogenes and cancer.
The function of tumour suppressor genes is to stop division if there is DNA damage and control apoptosis
For example the BRAC1 gene is needed as a cell checkpoint and DNA repair, if acquire a mutation it’s more likely that other tumour suppressor cells will be mutated too

81
Q

What is retinoblastoma and the two hit hypothesis

A

Rb is a tumour suppressor and blocks the effect of the E2F family by binding to it and stops cells entering S phase of the cell cycle until it has passed all checks needed to move out of G1
When the cell passes these checks and is ready to bind Rb is phosphorylated by cyclin dependent kinase to become inactivated and release the E2F family
Rb belongs to the protein pocket family as E2F can bind
The two hit model suggests that bilateral inheritance of a Rb mutations means the onset of Rb cancer will be young and unavoidable, however unilateral inheritance is not enough to cause cancer and will need a second hit/mutation in the good gene to cause a cancer- this second one would be a somatic mutation

So chances for a hemline mutation carrier to get a somatic mutation is much greater than someone who doesn’t have a mutation in both to get two somatic mutations

82
Q

What is p53 and how does it work

A

Tumour suppressor encoded by TP53
The function of p53 is to bind to DNA and regulate gene expression to prevent the accumulation of mutation- it can activate DNA repair, cause apoptosis, arrest growth and promote senescence if telomeres are shortened. P53 must be maintained at low levels as it is constantly ubiquinated by E3 kinases MDM2 and MDM4, and is only phosphorylated by ATM and ATR if damage is detected, causing it to detach from E3 ligands and function.

People who inherit one copy of p53 gene will most likely get tumours in childhood : Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Can also occur due to damage to DNA by mutagens
Unstable because they can’t stop cell cycle to repair DNA, and can’t induce apoptosis

83
Q

What are the roles of BRCA1 and BRCA2 in DNA repair

A

BRCA1 is phosphorylated by ATM and CHK2 when double stranded DNA damage is sensed, BRCA1 binds to BRCA2 which interacts with RAD51 to form a complex that will repair DNA
Mutation means that there is increase unrepaired DNA damage which may lead to deletion or insertion which makes truncated proteins

84
Q

How can viruses cause cancer

A

DNA of virus mixes with cell DNA and triggers changes in the cells to make them multiply and interferes with normal cellular programming.
E7 is a small protein with no intrinsic enzyme activity, but evolved a few amino acids that can bind to Rb and promote its degradation which leads to cell proliferation.