Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

What is a mutation?

A

A change in the DNA sequence that may or may not affect an organism’s phenotype.

Mutations can occur in various regions of DNA, influencing gene function and expression.

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2
Q

Why are mutations important?

A

They can lead to genetic diversity and evolution, and they may cause diseases or affect traits.

Understanding mutations is crucial for fields like genetics, medicine, and evolutionary biology.

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3
Q

What are the different types of mutations?

A
  • Point
  • Transition
  • Transversion
  • Silent
  • Missense
  • Neutral
  • Frameshift
  • Inframe

Each type of mutation has distinct characteristics and effects on protein function.

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4
Q

What is a trinucleotide repeat expansion mutation?

A

A mutation where a sequence of three nucleotides is repeated more times than normal, potentially leading to disease.

This type of mutation is associated with conditions like Huntington’s disease.

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5
Q

How might mutations in the promoter influence protein products?

A

They can affect the transcription of the gene, leading to changes in the amount or functionality of the protein produced.

Promoter mutations can enhance or reduce gene expression.

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6
Q

What causes cystic fibrosis (CF)?

A

Mutations in the CFTR gene, which encodes a protein responsible for regulating chloride and sodium ions across epithelial cell membranes.

CF is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system.

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7
Q

What protein is responsible for cystic fibrosis?

A

Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator (CFTR).

The CFTR protein plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of salt and water on epithelial surfaces.

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8
Q

What mutations are commonly involved in the development of cystic fibrosis?

A
  • F508del
  • G551D
  • N1303K

F508del is the most common mutation associated with CF.

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9
Q

How are mutations named, such as PHE508DEL?

A

They are named based on the amino acid change and the specific deletion or alteration in the DNA sequence.

PHE508DEL indicates a deletion of phenylalanine at position 508.

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10
Q

Why might genetic testing for cystic fibrosis not provide an accurate diagnosis?

A

Not all mutations in the CFTR gene are tested, and some mutations may not be well understood or detectable.

Genetic variability and the presence of atypical mutations can complicate diagnosis.

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11
Q

In what types of cells can mutations occur?

A
  • Germ-line cells
  • Somatic cells

Germ-line mutations can be inherited, while somatic mutations affect only the individual.

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12
Q

INHERITANCE PATTERNS OF SINGLE GENES

A
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13
Q

There are many ways in which two alleles of a single gene may govern

A
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14
Q

the outcome of a trait

A
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15
Q

• Simple Mendelian

A
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16
Q

• Incomplete penetrance

A
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17
Q

Incomplete dominance

A
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18
Q

Overdominance

A
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19
Q

Codominance

A
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20
Q

A
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21
Q

X-linked

A
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22
Q

Sex-influenced inheritance

A
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23
Q

Sex-limited inheritance

A
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24
Q

Lethal alleles

A
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25
Q

Exercise

A
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26
Q

The pattern of inheritance in this allele is

A
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27
Q

presumably dominant. Is the pedigree analysis

A
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28
Q

consistent with a dominant disorder?

A
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29
Q

Why?

A
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30
Q

Polydactyly:

A
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31
Q

Additional fingers

A
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32
Q

and/or toes. Might be

A
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33
Q

caused by mutant

A
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34
Q

alleles.

A
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35
Q

1-2

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36
Q

II-1

A
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37
Q

II-2

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38
Q

II-3

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39
Q

II-4

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40
Q

II-5

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41
Q

III-1

A
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42
Q

III-2

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43
Q

III-3

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44
Q

IV-

A
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45
Q

1

A
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46
Q

IV-

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47
Q

2

A
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48
Q

3

A
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49
Q

III-4

A
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50
Q

III-5

A
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51
Q

Inherited the polydactyly allele from his

A
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52
Q

mother and passed it on to a daughter and son

A
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53
Q

Does not exhibit the trait himself even

A
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54
Q

though he is a heterozygote

A
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55
Q

Incomplete Penetrance

A
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56
Q

• In some instances

A

a dominant allele does not influence the outcome of a trait in

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57
Q

a heterozygote individual

A
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58
Q

Example = Polydactyly

A
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59
Q

-

A
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60
Q

-

A
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61
Q

Autosomal dominant trait

A
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62
Q

A single copy of the polydactyly allele is usually sufficient to cause this

A
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63
Q

condition

A
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64
Q

But

A

In some cases

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65
Q

the trait

A
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66
Q

The term Incomplete Penetrance indicates

A
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67
Q

that a dominant allele does not always

A
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68
Q

“penetrate” into the phenotype of the

A
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69
Q

individual

A
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70
Q

Incomplete Penetrance

A
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71
Q

• The measure of penetrance is described at the population level

A
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72
Q

If 60% of heterozygotes carrying a dominant allele exhibit the trait allele

A

the

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73
Q

trait is 60% penetrant

A
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74
Q

• Note:

A
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75
Q

-

A
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76
Q

In any particular individual

A

the trait is either penetrant or not

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77
Q

Expressivity

A
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78
Q

Expressivity is the degree to which a trait is expressed

A
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79
Q

What is expressivity?

A

Expressivity is the degree to which a trait is expressed.

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80
Q

How does expressivity vary in polydactyly?

A

In polydactyly, the number of digits can vary. A person with several extra digits has high expressivity of this trait, while a person with a single extra digit has low expressivity.

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81
Q

What are essential genes?

A

Essential genes are those that are absolutely required for survival.

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82
Q

What happens in the absence of essential genes?

A

The absence of their protein product leads to a lethal phenotype.

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83
Q

What proportion of genes are estimated to be essential for survival?

A

It is estimated that about 1/3 of all genes are essential for survival.

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84
Q

What are nonessential genes?

A

Nonessential genes are those not absolutely required for survival.

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85
Q

What is a lethal allele?

A

A lethal allele is one that has the potential to cause the death of an organism, usually inherited in a recessive manner.

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86
Q

What effect do many lethal alleles have?

A

Many lethal alleles prevent cell division, which can kill an organism at an early age.

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87
Q

What do many lethal alleles prevent?

A

Many lethal alleles prevent cell division.

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88
Q

When do some lethal alleles exert their effect?

A

Some lethal alleles exert their effect later in life.

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89
Q

What are examples of diseases caused by lethal alleles?

A

Huntington disease and Early Onset Alzheimer’s Disease.

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90
Q

What are the characteristics of Huntington disease and Early Onset Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

They are characterized by progressive degeneration of the nervous system, dementia, and early death.

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91
Q

What is the typical age of onset for Huntington disease and Early Onset Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

The age of onset of the disease is usually between 30 and 50.

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92
Q

How can a lethal allele affect phenotypic ratios?

A

A lethal allele may produce ratios that seemingly deviate from Mendelian ratios.

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93
Q

What is an example of a lethal allele in cats?

A

The Manx cat carries a dominant mutation that affects the spine.

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94
Q

What effect does the Manx cat mutation have?

A

This mutation shortens the tail.

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95
Q

Why is the Manx allele considered lethal?

A

This allele is lethal as a homozygote dominant.

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96
Q

What is the expected phenotypic ratio of live offspring when crossing two heterozygous Manx cats?

A

The expected phenotypic ratio of the live offspring is 2:1.

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97
Q

What is the P generation?

A

P generation refers to the parental generation in a genetic cross.

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98
Q

What is the F1 generation?

A

F1 generation is the first filial generation resulting from a cross between the P generation.

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99
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

In incomplete dominance, the heterozygote exhibits a phenotype that is intermediate between the corresponding homozygotes.

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100
Q

What are the alleles for flower color in the four o’clock plant?

A

CR = wild-type allele for red flower color, CW = allele for white flower color.

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101
Q

What phenotype results from the F1 generation in the four o’clock plant?

A

The F1 generation exhibits a pink phenotype.

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102
Q

What is the significance of the CR protein in the F1 generation?

A

In this case, 50% of the CR protein is not sufficient to produce the red phenotype.

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103
Q

What is the phenotypic ratio observed in codominance?

A

1:2:1 phenotypic ratio

This is different from the 3:1 ratio observed in simple Mendelian inheritance.

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104
Q

What is codominance?

A

Codominance occurs when two alleles are both expressed in heterozygous individuals.

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105
Q

How many different alleles can influence the same trait?

A

Three or more different alleles can influence the same trait.

Example: ABO blood group.

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106
Q

What determines the ABO blood group?

A

The ABO blood group is determined by the type of antigen present on the surface of red blood cells.

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107
Q

What are the alleles that determine the ABO blood group?

A

The three alleles are:
1. Allele IA, produces antigen A
2. Allele IB, produces antigen B
3. Allele i, no surface antigen is produced.

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108
Q

What is the relationship between allele i and alleles IA and IB?

A

Allele i is recessive to both IA and IB.

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109
Q

What is the relationship between alleles IA and IB?

A

Alleles IA and IB are codominant.

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110
Q

What type of allele is recessive to both IA and IB?

A

The allele is recessive to both IA and IB.

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111
Q

How are alleles IA and IB related?

A

Alleles IA and IB are codominant.

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112
Q

What happens in a heterozygous individual with alleles IA and IB?

A

Both IA and IB are expressed in a heterozygous individual.

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113
Q

What is the genotype for blood type A?

A

The genotype can be pApa or lAi.

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114
Q

What surface antigen is present in blood type A?

A

Antigen A.

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115
Q

What serum antibodies are present in blood type A?

A

Against B.

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116
Q

What is the genotype for blood type B?

A

The genotype can be B/B or Bi.

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117
Q

What surface antigen is present in blood type B?

A

Antigen B.

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118
Q

What serum antibodies are present in blood type B?

A

Against A.

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119
Q

What is the genotype for blood type AB?

A

The genotype is JAB.

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120
Q

What surface antigens are present in blood type AB?

A

Antigen A and Antigen B.

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121
Q

What serum antibodies are present in blood type AB?

A

None.

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122
Q

What is the role of glycosyl transferase in blood type A?

A

It is encoded by the A allele and produces Antigen A.

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123
Q

What is the role of glycosyl transferase in blood type B?

A

It is encoded by the B allele and produces Antigen B.

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124
Q

What is the carbohydrate tree on the surface of RBCs composed of?

A

It is composed of three components.

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125
Q

What is the carbohydrate tree on the surface of RBCs composed of?

A

The carbohydrate tree is composed of three sugars.

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126
Q

What can be added to the carbohydrate tree by the enzyme glycosyl transferase?

A

A fourth sugar can be added.

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127
Q

What does the i allele encode?

A

The i allele encodes a defective enzyme.

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128
Q

What is the effect of the i allele on the carbohydrate tree?

A

The carbohydrate tree is unchanged.

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129
Q

What does the IA allele encode?

A

IA encodes a form of the enzyme that can add N-acetylgalactosamine to the carbohydrate tree.

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130
Q

What does the IB allele encode?

A

IB encodes a form of the enzyme that can add galactose to the carbohydrate tree.

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131
Q

How are the A and B antigens recognized?

A

The A and B antigens are different enough to be recognized by different antibodies.

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132
Q

What must occur for safe blood transfusions?

A

The donor’s blood must be a ‘match’ with the recipient’s blood.

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133
Q

What happens if a type O individual receives blood from a type A, B, or AB?

A

Antibodies in the recipient’s blood will react with antigens in the donated blood cells.

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134
Q

What is the result of the reaction between antibodies and antigens during a transfusion?

A

This causes the donated blood to agglutinate.

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135
Q

What may result from the agglutination of donated blood?

A

A life-threatening situation may result because of clogging of blood vessels.

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136
Q

What is the composition of the carbohydrate tree on the surface of RBCs?

A

The carbohydrate tree is composed of three sugars.

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137
Q

What role does the enzyme glycosyl transferase play in the carbohydrate tree?

A

It can add a fourth sugar to the carbohydrate tree.

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138
Q

What does the i allele encode?

A

The i allele encodes a defective enzyme.

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139
Q

What is the effect of the i allele on the carbohydrate tree?

A

The carbohydrate tree is unchanged.

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140
Q

What does the IA allele encode?

A

IA encodes a form of the enzyme that can add the sugar N-acetylgalactosamine to the carbohydrate tree.

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141
Q

What does the IB allele encode?

A

IB encodes a form of the enzyme that can add the sugar galactose to the carbohydrate tree.

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142
Q

How do the A and B antigens differ?

A

The A and B antigens are different enough to be recognized by different antibodies.

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143
Q

What must occur for safe blood transfusions?

A

The donor’s blood must be a ‘match’ with the recipient’s blood.

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144
Q

What happens if a type O individual receives blood from a type A, B, or AB?

A

Antibodies in the recipient blood will react with antigens in the donated blood cells, causing agglutination.

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145
Q

What may result from the agglutination of donated blood?

A

A life-threatening situation may result because of clogging of blood vessels.

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146
Q

What are the ABO blood types?

A

A, B, AB, O

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147
Q

What is the genotype for blood type A?

A

JAJA or lAi

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148
Q

What are the serum antibodies for blood type A?

A

against B

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149
Q

What is the genotype for blood type B?

A

B/B or /Bi

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150
Q

What are the serum antibodies for blood type B?

A

against A

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151
Q

What is the genotype for blood type AB?

A

JAB

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152
Q

What are the serum antibodies for blood type AB?

A

none

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153
Q

Who is a universal recipient?

A

Blood type AB

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154
Q

Who is a universal donor?

A

Blood type O

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155
Q

What is overdominance?

A

The phenomenon in which a heterozygote is more vigorous than both of the corresponding homozygotes.

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156
Q

What is another name for overdominance?

A

Heterozygote advantage

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157
Q

What is an example of overdominance?

A

Sickle-cell anemia

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158
Q

What type of disorder is sickle-cell anemia?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder

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159
Q

What alleles are involved in sickle-cell anemia?

A

HbA and HbS

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160
Q

What does HbA encode?

A

Normal hemoglobin, hemoglobin A

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161
Q

What does HbS encode?

A

Abnormal hemoglobin, hemoglobin S

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162
Q

What happens to HbSHbS individuals under low oxygen tension?

A

Their red blood cells deform into a sickle shape.

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163
Q

What is expressivity?

A

Expressivity is the degree to which a trait is expressed.

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164
Q

What does high expressivity indicate in polydactyly?

A

A person with several extra digits has high expressivity of this trait.

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165
Q

What does low expressivity indicate in polydactyly?

A

A person with a single extra digit has low expressivity.

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166
Q

What are essential genes?

A

Essential genes are those that are absolutely required for survival.

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167
Q

What happens if essential genes are absent?

A

The absence of their protein product leads to a lethal phenotype.

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168
Q

What proportion of all genes are estimated to be essential for survival?

A

It is estimated that about 1/3 of all genes are essential for survival.

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169
Q

What are nonessential genes?

A

Nonessential genes are those not absolutely required for survival.

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170
Q

What is a lethal allele?

A

A lethal allele is one that has the potential to cause the death of an organism.

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171
Q

How are lethal alleles usually inherited?

A

Lethal alleles are usually inherited in a recessive manner.

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172
Q

What effect do many lethal alleles have on cell division?

A

Many lethal alleles prevent cell division, which can kill an organism at an early age.

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173
Q

What do many lethal alleles prevent?

A

Many lethal alleles prevent cell division.

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174
Q

What is the effect of some lethal alleles?

A

Some lethal alleles exert their effect later in life.

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175
Q

What diseases are associated with lethal alleles that exert effects later in life?

A

Huntington disease and Early Onset Alzheimer’s Disease.

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176
Q

What are the characteristics of Huntington disease and Early Onset Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

They are characterized by progressive degeneration of the nervous system, dementia, and early death.

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177
Q

What is the usual age of onset for Huntington disease and Early Onset Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

The age of onset is usually between 30 and 50.

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178
Q

How may a lethal allele affect phenotypic ratios?

A

A lethal allele may produce ratios that seemingly deviate from Mendelian ratios.

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179
Q

What is an example of a lethal allele in cats?

A

The Manx cat carries a dominant mutation that affects the spine.

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180
Q

What does the Manx mutation do?

A

This mutation shortens the tail.

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181
Q

Why is the Manx allele considered lethal?

A

This allele is lethal as a homozygote dominant.

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182
Q

What is the expected phenotypic ratio of live offspring when crossing two heterozygous Manx cats?

A

The expected phenotypic ratio of the live offspring is 2:1.

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183
Q

Tt

A
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184
Q

What is the difference?

A
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185
Q

White

A
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186
Q

Re

A
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187
Q

d

A
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188
Q

P generation

A
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189
Q

P (parental)

A
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190
Q

generation

A
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191
Q

Cross-

A
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192
Q

fertilize

A
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193
Q

Purple

A
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194
Q

White

A
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195
Q

Pin

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196
Q

F1 generation

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197
Q

Self-fertilize

A
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198
Q

F1

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199
Q

generation

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200
Q

Purple

A
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201
Q

Incomplete Dominance

A
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202
Q

In incomplete dominance the heterozygote exhibits a

A
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203
Q

phenotype that is intermediate between the corresponding

A
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204
Q

homozygotes

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205
Q

Red

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206
Q

White

A
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207
Q

• Example:

A
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208
Q

Flower color in the four o’clock plant

A
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209
Q

Two alleles

A
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210
Q

A
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211
Q

CR = wild-type allele for red flower color

A
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212
Q

CW = allele for white flower color

A
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213
Q

P generation

A
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214
Q

Pink

A
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215
Q

F

A

generation

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216
Q

Re

A
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217
Q

Whit

A
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218
Q

generation

A
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219
Q

CWC

A
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220
Q

W

A
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221
Q

In this case

A

50% of

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222
Q

the CR protein is not

A
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223
Q

cufficiant to produca

A
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224
Q

Human Pedigree for Duchenne muscular dvstronhv-Affected individuals are shown

A
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225
Q

with filled symbol $ @ • OTt ? dO>bols.

A
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226
Q

X-linked Genes

A
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227
Q

Many species have males and females that

A
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228
Q

differ in their sex chromosome composition

A
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229
Q

Certain traits are governed by genes on the sex

A
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230
Q

chromosomes

A
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231
Q

Question 1: A X-linked recessive trait that leads to disease will

A
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232
Q

affect males or females the most? Complete a Punnett Square to

A
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233
Q

answer this question.

A
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234
Q

• Question 3: Complete a Punnett Square

A
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235
Q

Consider a cross between an affected female

A
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236
Q

golden retriever (XdXd) and unaffected male

A
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237
Q

(XDY). What offspring would you expect?

A
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238
Q

Affected offspring?

A
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239
Q

Carriers?

A
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240
Q

Reverse the genotype of the aft

A
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241
Q

does the outcome differ from the scenario

A
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242
Q

above?

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243
Q

Reciprocal Cross

A
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244
Q

• Allele / is recessive to both IA and IB

A
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245
Q

•Alleles IA and IB are codominant

A
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246
Q

• They are both expressed in a heterozygous individual

A
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247
Q

Blood type:

A
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248
Q

Genotype:

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249
Q

Surface antigen:

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250
Q

Serum antibodies:

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251
Q

(a) ABO blood type

A
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252
Q

RBC

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253
Q

N-acetyl-

A
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254
Q

galactosamine

A
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255
Q

ii

A
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256
Q

neither A or B

A
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257
Q

against A and B

A
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258
Q

Antigen A

A
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259
Q

RBC

A
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260
Q

pApa orlAi

A
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261
Q

against B

A
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262
Q

Antigen B

A
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263
Q

Antigen A

A
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264
Q

Antigen B

A
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265
Q

RBC

A
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266
Q

B

A
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267
Q

B/B or Bi

A
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268
Q

B

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269
Q

against A

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270
Q

Galactose

A
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271
Q

RBC

A
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272
Q

AB

A
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273
Q

JAB

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274
Q

A and B

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275
Q

none

A
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276
Q

Glycosyl transferase

A
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277
Q

encoded by A allele

A
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278
Q

Antigen A

A
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279
Q

Active

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280
Q

site

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281
Q

RBC

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282
Q

N-acetyl-

A
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283
Q

galactosamine

A
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284
Q

Glycosyl transferase

A
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4
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285
Q

encoded by B allele

A
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286
Q

RBC

A
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287
Q

Antigen B

A
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288
Q

• Active

A
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289
Q

site

A
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290
Q

RBC

A
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291
Q

Galactose

A
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292
Q

(c) Formation of A and B antigen by glycosyl transferase

A
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293
Q

RBC

A
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294
Q

The carbohydrate tree on the surface of RBCs is composed of three

A
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295
Q

• Allele / is recessive to both IA and IB

A
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296
Q

•Alleles IA and IB are codominant

A
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297
Q

• They are both expressed in a heterozygous individual

A
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298
Q

Blood type:

A
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299
Q

Genotype:

A
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300
Q

Surface antigen:

A
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301
Q

Serum antibodies:

A
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302
Q

(a) ABO blood type

A
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303
Q

RBC

A
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304
Q

N-acetyl-

A
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305
Q

galactosamine

A
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306
Q

ii

A
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307
Q

neither A or B

A
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308
Q

against A and B

A
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309
Q

Antigen A

A
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310
Q

RBC

A
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311
Q

pApa orlAi

A
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312
Q

against B

A
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313
Q

Antigen B

A
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314
Q

Antigen A

A
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315
Q

Antigen B

A
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316
Q

RBC

A
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317
Q

B

A
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318
Q

B/B or Bi

A
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319
Q

B

A
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320
Q

against A

A
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321
Q

Galactose

A
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322
Q

RBC

A
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323
Q

AB

A
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324
Q

JAB

A
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325
Q

A and B

A
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326
Q

none

A
327
Q

Glycosyl transferase

A
328
Q

encoded by A allele

A
329
Q

Antigen A

A
330
Q

Active

A
331
Q

site

A
332
Q

RBC

A
333
Q

N-acetyl-

A
334
Q

galactosamine

A
335
Q

Glycosyl transferase

A
336
Q

encoded by B allele

A
337
Q

RBC

A
338
Q

Antigen B

A
339
Q

• Active

A
340
Q

site

A
341
Q

RBC

A
342
Q

Galactose

A
343
Q

(c) Formation of A and B antigen by glycosyl transferase

A
344
Q

RBC

A
345
Q

The carbohydrate tree on the surface of RBCs is composed of three

A
346
Q

• Tt (

A
347
Q

10 >

A
348
Q

L

A
349
Q

• The carbohydrate tree on the surface of RBCs is composed of three

A
350
Q

sugars

A
351
Q

• A fourth can be added by the enzyme glycosyl transferase

A
352
Q

The i allele encodes a defective enzyme

A
353
Q

The carbohydrate tree is unchanged

A
354
Q

IA encodes a form of the enzyme that can add the sugar N-

A
355
Q

acetylgalactosamine to the carbohydrate tree

A
356
Q

IB encodes a form of the enzyme that can add the sugar galactose to the

A
357
Q

carbohydrate tree

A
358
Q

• The A and B antigens are different enough to be recognized by

A
359
Q

different antibodies

A
360
Q

Copyright ©The McGraw-Hill Companies

A

Inc. Permission required for reproduction or display

361
Q

For safe blood transfusions to occur

A

the donor’s blood must be

362
Q

a

A
363
Q

match

A
364
Q

(answer: always the same

A

always different or a

365
Q

“match”) with the recipient’s blood.

A
366
Q

What it might occur if a type O individual receives blood from a type

A
367
Q

A

A

B or AB?

368
Q

Antibodies in the recipient blood will react with antigens in the donated blood

A
369
Q

cells

A
370
Q

This causes the donated blood to agglutinate

A
371
Q

A life-threatening situation may result because of clogging of blood vessels

A
372
Q

Antigen A

A
373
Q

Antigen B

A
374
Q

Antigen A

A
375
Q

Antigen B

A
376
Q

Antigen A

A
377
Q

Antigen B

A
378
Q

Antigen A

A
379
Q

Antigen B

A
380
Q

RBC

A
381
Q

N-acetyl-

A
382
Q

galactosamine

A
383
Q

RBC

A
384
Q

Blood type:

A
385
Q

Genotype:

A
386
Q

Surface antigen:

A
387
Q

Serum antibodies:

A
388
Q

(a) ABO blood type

A
389
Q

ii

A
390
Q

neither A or B

A
391
Q

against A and B

A
392
Q

JAJA or lAi

A
393
Q

against B

A
394
Q

RBC

A
395
Q

B

A
396
Q

B/B or /Bi

A
397
Q

against A

A
398
Q

Galactose

A
399
Q

RBC

A
400
Q

AB

A
401
Q

JAB

A
402
Q

A and B

A
403
Q

none

A
404
Q

Who is an universal recipient?

A
405
Q

Who is an universal donor?

A
406
Q

Overdominance

A
407
Q

A
408
Q

-

A
409
Q

Overdominance is the phenomenon in which a heterozygote is

A
410
Q

more vigorous than both of the corresponding homozygotes

A
411
Q

It is also called heterozygote advantage

A
412
Q

• Example = Sickle-cell anemia

A
413
Q

-

A
414
Q

-

A
415
Q

-

A
416
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder

A
417
Q

Affected individuals produce abnormal form of hemoglobin

A
418
Q

Two alleles

A
419
Q

HbA • Encodes the normal hemoglobin

A

hemoglobin A

420
Q

A
421
Q

HoS • Encodes the abnormal hemoglobin

A

hemoglobin S

422
Q

• HbSHbS individuals have red blood cells that deform into a sickle

A
423
Q

shape under conditions of low oxygen tension

A
424
Q

Tt

A
425
Q

• HbSHbS individuals have red blood cells that deform into a sickle

A
426
Q

shape under conditions of low oxygen tension

A
427
Q

Two major effects

A
428
Q
  1. Sickling phenomenon greatly shortens
A
429
Q

the life span of the red blood cells

A
430
Q

Anemia results

A
431
Q
  1. Odd-shaped cells clump
A
432
Q

Partial or complete blocks in capillary circulation

A
433
Q

Normal red

A
434
Q

blood cell

A
435
Q

Sickled red

A
436
Q

blood cell

A
437
Q

Thus

A

affected individuals tend to have pain

438
Q

vision problems and other symptoms

A
439
Q

The sickle cell allele is at fairly high frequency in

A
440
Q

parts of Africa where malaria is found

A
441
Q

in!

A
442
Q

< 0.1

A
443
Q

0.1-0.19

A
444
Q

0.2-0.99

A
445
Q

1.0-4.9

A
446
Q

5.0-9.9

A
447
Q

10.0-18.9

A
448
Q

2 19.0

A
449
Q

Births with a pathological Hb disorder per 1

A

000 live births

450
Q

Copyright ©The McGraw-Hill Companies

A

Inc. Permission required for reproduction or display

451
Q

• Malaria is caused by a protozoan

A

Plasmodium

452
Q

-

A
453
Q

A
454
Q

This parasite undergoes its life cycle in two main parts

A
455
Q

One inside the Anopheles mosquito

A
456
Q

The other inside red blood cells

A
457
Q

• Malaria is caused by a protozoan

A

Plasmodium

458
Q

This parasite undergoes its life cycle in two main parts

A
459
Q

One inside the Anopheles mosquito

A
460
Q

The other inside red blood cells

A
461
Q

Life Cycle of the Malaria Parasite

A
462
Q

sexual stage:

A
463
Q

male or female

A
464
Q

camerocutes

A
465
Q

Torm

A
466
Q

5 mosquito

A
467
Q

stages

A
468
Q

blood cell

A
469
Q

= ne mosquio consumes

A
470
Q

the pagastie during blood

A
471
Q

The mosquito injects the

A
472
Q

paraste when roles

A
473
Q

ookinete

A
474
Q

oocyst

A
475
Q

6

A
476
Q

late

A
477
Q

mosquito

A
478
Q

stage

A
479
Q

human 2

A
480
Q

liver stage

A
481
Q

sporozoites

A
482
Q

human

A
483
Q

Red blood cells of heterozygotes

A

are likely to rupture when infected by

484
Q

Plasmodium sp.

A
485
Q

This prevents the propagation of the parasite

A
486
Q

• HAHS individuals have an “advantage” over because they do not

A
487
Q

suffer from sickle cell anemia and are more resistant to malaria.

A
488
Q

Schizogonic cycle

A
489
Q

Remember that:

A
490
Q

AA

A
491
Q

Invasion

A
492
Q

• HbSHbS

A

= suffer from

493
Q

sickle cell anemia

A
494
Q

• HbAHbA

A

= are less

495
Q

resistant to Malaria

A
496
Q

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3499995/pdf/mjhid-4-1-e2012065.pdf

A
497
Q

AS

A
498
Q

Selective sickling

A
499
Q

of parasitised

A
500
Q

AS red cells

A
501
Q

Selective phagocytosis

A
502
Q

of sickled parasitised AS red cells

A
503
Q

Toololall lo Ivialalla

A
504
Q

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/artic

A
505
Q

AS red cells

A
506
Q

Selective phago….

A
507
Q

O Cd 0 > sicked parasitisee

A
508
Q

What pattern of inheritance do you observe in the

A
509
Q

pedigree chart in the next slide?

A
510
Q

How did you reach that conclusion?

A
511
Q

Who are carriers?

A
512
Q

Who are affected?

A
513
Q

Affected

A
514
Q

with DMD

A
515
Q
  • Unaffected
A
516
Q

presumed heterozygote

A
517
Q

III-

A
518
Q

1

A
519
Q

II-

A
520
Q

1

A
521
Q

III-

A
522
Q

2

A
523
Q

I-1

A
524
Q

I-2

A
525
Q

II-

A
526
Q

2

A
527
Q

III-

A
528
Q

3

A
529
Q

II-

A
530
Q

3

A
531
Q

II-

A
532
Q

4

A
533
Q

III-

A
534
Q

4

A
535
Q

II-

A
536
Q

5

A
537
Q

III-

A
538
Q

5

A
539
Q

II-

A
540
Q

6

A
541
Q

III-

A
542
Q

6

A
543
Q

III-

A
544
Q

7

A
545
Q

III-

A
546
Q

8

A
547
Q

IV-

A
548
Q

IV-

A
549
Q

2

A
550
Q

IV-

A
551
Q

3

A
552
Q

IV-

A
553
Q

IV-

A
554
Q

4

A
555
Q

5

A
556
Q

IV-

A
557
Q

6

A
558
Q

IV-

A
559
Q

7

A
560
Q

Human Pedigree for Duchenne muscular dystrophy-Affected individuals are shown

A
561
Q

with filled symbols. Female carriers are shown with half-filled symbols.

A
562
Q

X-linked Genes

A
563
Q

Human Pedigree for Duchenne muscular dvstronhv-Affected individuals are shown

A
564
Q

with filled symbol $ @ • OTt ? dO>bols.

A
565
Q

X-linked Genes

A
566
Q

Many species have males and females that

A
567
Q

differ in their sex chromosome composition

A
568
Q

Certain traits are governed by genes on the sex

A
569
Q

chromosomes

A
570
Q

Question 1: A X-linked recessive trait that leads to disease will

A
571
Q

affect males or females the most? Complete a Punnett Square to

A
572
Q

answer this question.

A
573
Q

• Question 3: Complete a Punnett Square

A
574
Q

Consider a cross between an affected female

A
575
Q

golden retriever (XdXd) and unaffected male

A
576
Q

(XDY). What offspring would you expect?

A
577
Q

Affected offspring?

A
578
Q

Carriers?

A
579
Q

Reverse the genotype of the aft

A
580
Q

does the outcome differ from the scenario

A
581
Q

above?

A
582
Q

Reciprocal Cross

A
583
Q

Sex Chromosomes and Traits

A
584
Q

• Sex-linked genes are those found on one of the two types of sex

A
585
Q

chromosomes

A

but not both

586
Q

• X-linked

A
587
Q

Males are more likely to be affected

A
588
Q

• Y-linked

A
589
Q

Transmitted from father to son

A
590
Q

-

A
591
Q

Males are the only ones affected

A
592
Q

-

A
593
Q

Sex Chromosomes and Traits

A
594
Q

Pseudoautosomal inheritance refers to the very few genes found

A
595
Q

on both X and Y chromosomes

A
596
Q

Found in homologous regions needed for chromosome pairing

A
597
Q

Pseudo (fake)

A
598
Q

Mic2

A
599
Q

gen

A
600
Q

e

A
601
Q

Y

A
602
Q

Mic2

A
603
Q

gen

A
604
Q

e

A
605
Q

The following pedigree chart represent a disorder that runs in a family.

A
606
Q

A. What pattern of inheritance better explains the observed pattern? (autosomal dominant

A

autosomal recessive or

607
Q

&-linked recessive

A

Y-linked recessive or Y-linked dominant? Explain in detail how did you reach to that

608
Q

The following pedigree chart represent a disorder that runs in a family.

A
609
Q

A. What pattern of inheritance better explains the observed pattern? (autosomal dominant

A

autosomal recessive or

610
Q

&-linked recessive

A

Y-linked recessive or Y-linked dominant? Explain in detail how did you reach to that

611
Q

conclusion.

A
612
Q

Note: Carriers are not represented in half-filled

A
613
Q

becouse the

A
614
Q

1-1

A
615
Q

1-2.

A
616
Q

parent con be

A
617
Q

a corier

A
618
Q

auto somaldominal

A
619
Q

at least and parent will

A
620
Q

be affected

A
621
Q

II-1

A
622
Q

II-2

A
623
Q

II-3

A
624
Q

11-4

A
625
Q

III-1

A
626
Q

III-2

A
627
Q

III-3

A
628
Q

III-4

A
629
Q

III-5

A
630
Q

IV-1

A
631
Q

IV-2

A
632
Q

IV-3

A
633
Q

IV-4

A
634
Q

IV-5

A
635
Q

IV-6

A
636
Q

Sex-influenced Traits

A
637
Q

A
638
Q

Traits where an allele is dominant in one sex but recessive in the

A
639
Q

opposite sex.

A
640
Q

Alleles are not found on sex chromosomes. Most sex-influenced

A
641
Q

traits are autosomal

A
642
Q

A
643
Q

Sex-influenced does not mean sex-linked

A
644
Q

Sex-influenced Traits

A
645
Q

Example: Pattern of baldness in humans

A
646
Q

Tt

A
647
Q

Sex-influenced Traits

A
648
Q

Example: Pattern of baldness in humans

A
649
Q

Caused by an autosomal gene

A
650
Q

Allele B is dominant in males

A

but acts as recessive in females who are

651
Q

heterozygous.

A
652
Q

in male determine by dominant allele

A
653
Q

Genotype

A
654
Q

Phenotype

A
655
Q

Phenotype

A
656
Q

in Males

A
657
Q

in Females

A
658
Q

BB

A
659
Q

Bb

A
660
Q

bald BB

A
661
Q

bald (BB)

A
662
Q

bald Bb

A
663
Q

nonbald Bb

A
664
Q

bb

A
665
Q

nonbald bb

A
666
Q

nonbald (66)

A
667
Q

in female determine by recessive allele

A
668
Q

Sex-influenced Traits

A
669
Q

Pattern baldness appears to be related to the production of

A
670
Q

Sex-influenced Traits

A
671
Q

Pattern baldness appears to be related to the production of

A
672
Q

testosterone

A
673
Q

Baldness results from overexpression of a gene that converts

A
674
Q

testosterone to 5-a-dihydrotestosterone (DHT) which binds to cellular

A
675
Q

receptors and alters expression of many genes (e.g. on the scalp)

A
676
Q

Females heterozygotes (Bo) are not bald

A
677
Q

Homozygous women (BB) will have a significant thinning of the hair

A
678
Q

relatively late in life

A
679
Q

Sex-influenced Traits

A
680
Q

• Example: Pattern of baldness in humans

A
681
Q

-

A
682
Q

Caused by an autosomal gene

A
683
Q

Allele B is dominant in males

A

but acts as recessive in females who are

684
Q

heterozygous.

A
685
Q

Genotype

A
686
Q

BB

A
687
Q

Bb

A
688
Q

bb

A
689
Q

Phenotype

A
690
Q

in Males

A
691
Q

bald

A
692
Q

bald

A
693
Q

nonbald

A
694
Q

Phenotype

A
695
Q

in Females

A
696
Q

bald

A
697
Q

nonbald

A
698
Q

nonbald

A
699
Q

Exercise:

A
700
Q
  • <
A
701
Q

A
702
Q

Exercise:

A
703
Q

What might be the phenotypic outcome (% of bald

A
704
Q

specify their sex) of a cross between a

A
705
Q

heterozygous bald male and a heterozygous

A
706
Q

female. Complete a Punnett Square.

A
707
Q

bal

A
708
Q

male

A
709
Q

6

A
710
Q

female

A
711
Q

BB

A
712
Q

M → bald

A
713
Q

F→ bold

A
714
Q

Bb

A
715
Q

M → bald

A
716
Q

F → no bald

A
717
Q

bB

A
718
Q

M → bald

A
719
Q

f-no bald

A
720
Q

bb

A
721
Q

M→ no bald

A
722
Q

= → nobald

A
723
Q

bE

A
724
Q

4

A
725
Q

4

A
726
Q

0.5

A
727
Q

75

A
728
Q

25

A
729
Q

and

A
730
Q

IV-1

A
731
Q

IV-L

A
732
Q

IV-3

A
733
Q

-<1

A
734
Q

is not because

A
735
Q

is not shouting the

A
736
Q

shenatype

A
737
Q

GENE INTERACTIONS

A
738
Q

• Two or more different genes influence the outcome of a

A
739
Q

single trait

A
740
Q

E.g. height

A

weight and pigmentation are affected by many

741
Q

different genes in combination with environmental factors

A
742
Q

The term epistasis describes the situation in which a gene can mask the

A
743
Q

phenotypic effects of another gene

A
744
Q

Epistatic interactions often arise because two (or more) different proteins

A
745
Q

participate in a common cellular function

A
746
Q

For example

A

an enzymatic pathway

747
Q

Enzyme

A
748
Q

Enzyme

A
749
Q

Colorless

A
750
Q

precursor

A
751
Q

Colorless

A
752
Q

intermediat

A
753
Q

e

A
754
Q

P

A
755
Q
  • Purple
A
756
Q

pigmen

A
757
Q

The recessive c allele encodes

A
758
Q

an inactive enzyme

A
759
Q

PP

A
760
Q

The recessive p allele encodes

A
761
Q

an inactive enzyme

A
762
Q

PP

A
763
Q

If an individual is homozygous for either recessive allele

A
764
Q

It will not make any functional enzyme C or enzyme P

A
765
Q

Therefore

A

the flowers remain white

766
Q

no intramediat the color will

A
767
Q

not work

A
768
Q

A Cross Involving a Two-Gene Interaction Can

A
769
Q

Produce two distinct phenotypes

A
770
Q

Inharitance of flower color in the ewaat non

A
771
Q

It will not make any functional enzyme C or/enzyme P

A
772
Q

Therefore

A

the flowers 0>

773
Q

no inteamed at the color will

A
774
Q

not work

A
775
Q

A Cross Involving a Two-Gene Interaction Can

A
776
Q

Produce two distinct phenotypes

A
777
Q

• Inheritance of flower color in the sweet pea

A
778
Q

-

A
779
Q

Lathyrus odoratus normally has purple flowers

A
780
Q

Bateson and Punnett obtained several true-breeding

A
781
Q

varieties with white flowers

A
782
Q

They carried out the following cross

A
783
Q

-

A
784
Q

P: True-breeding purple X true-breeding white

A
785
Q

F1: Purple flowered plants

A
786
Q

F2: Purple- and white-flowered in a 3:1 ratio

A
787
Q

These results were not surprising

A
788
Q

Copyright ©The McGraw-Hill Companies

A

Inc. Permission required for reproduction or display

789
Q

But these results were

A
790
Q

White variety #1

A
791
Q

White variety #2

A
792
Q

Complementation: Each

A
793
Q

recessive allele (c and p)

A
794
Q

is complemented by a

A
795
Q

wild-type allele (C and P).

A
796
Q

This phenomenon indicates

A
797
Q

that the recessive alleles

A
798
Q

are in different genes.

A
799
Q

Complementation

A
800
Q

F2 generation

A
801
Q

Recessive Epistasis:

A
802
Q

Homozygosity

A
803
Q

for the recessive allele

A
804
Q

of either gene results in

A
805
Q

a white phenotype

A

thereby

806
Q

masking the purple

A
807
Q

(wild-type) phenotype.

A
808
Q

Both gene products

A
809
Q

encoded by the wild-type

A
810
Q

alleles (C and P) are

A
811
Q

needed for a purple

A
812
Q

phenotype.

A
813
Q

Thus

A

the F2 generation contained purple and white flowers in a ratio of