Genetic Skeletal Dysplasias, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis and Legg-Calve-Perthe Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are genetic skeletal dysplasia?

A

Genetic disorders of skeletal development at birth, subdivided into chrondroplasias (i.e. achondroplasia) and osteodysplasia (i.e. osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the chondriocyte aetiology of GSD?

A

Chondrodysplasia: mutations in genes affecting cartilage matrix proteins, transmembrane receptors, TF and ion transporters

o Achondroplasia: AD condition involving mutation in FGFR3 gene on CHr4. 50% de novo. Increased FGFR3 gene function leading to reduced endochondrial ossification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the osteocyte aetiology of GSD?

A

Osteodysplasia: mutations in genes for bone development.

o Osteogenesis imperfecta: AD mutation for Type I collagen. Substitution of glycine residues in the normal glycine-X-Y alternation sequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the epidemiology of the different aetiologies of GSD?

A

ACD: 1/10k py.

OI: 1/20k py.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would you find the history or exam of someone with achondroplasia?

A

Average trunk length, short limbs, megalocephaly, short stature, angular deformity of extremities. Cervicomedullary compression may be present (ataxia, pain, aopnea, incontinence).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the types of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

· Type I recurrent fractures and blue sclera, early deafness.

· Type II: most severe, may be stillborn or die in infancy from respiratory insufficiency. Fragile, low BW, small thorax.

· Type III: in utero fractures, macrocephaly, triangular facies, scoliosis.

· Type IV: moderate short stature, bowing of legs, often mobile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What investigations would you do for ACD?

A

· Radiology: large skull cap vones, small cranial base and facial bones.

· MRI spine for cervical stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What investigations would you do for OI?

A

· DEXA: BMD<75% normal

· Lumbar SXR: for cmpresson from fractures.

· Collagen synthesis analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the management for the two types of GSD?

A

ACD: Gh/IGF, neuro follow up, surgical decompresion of cervical stenosis, leg lengthening.

OI: prompt fracture splinting or casting to restore function, physiotherapy in young children, mobility aid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the complications of ACD and OI?

A

ACD: CVJ deformities leading to spinal comrpession, quadripareisis and respiratory arrest.

OI: recurrent pneumonia, brainstem compresison, hydrocephalys, syringohydromyelia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the prognosis of ACD and OI?

A

AD: normal lifespan and intelligence

OI: Type I/IV associated with normal lifespan, Type III respiratory problems, Type II die in infancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Group of chronic arthropathies in childhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 7 ILAR subtypes?

A
  1. Systemic: sJIA: >1j, preceded by fever>3d with rash, lymphadenopathy etc.
  2. Oligoarticular : <4 joints, may be persistent or extended.
  3. Polyarticular, RF negative
  4. Polyarticular, RF positive
  5. Enthesitis-related arthritis ERA: arthritis and enthesitis, sacroiliac/lumbosacral pain, HLAB27, male>6y, acure anterior uveitis, Reiter syndrome (reactive arthritis following GI or STI infection)
  6. Psoriatic arthritis: With psoriasis
  7. Undifferentiated: No category or more than 2 of the baove
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the aetiology and Ddx for juvenile idiopathic arthitis?

A

Aberrant immune or inflammatory response leading to T cell activation, humoral immunity or innate immunity initiation. HAL subtypes linked to risk.

DDx: Bacterial/viral infection, malignancy, vasculitis, CT disease. Septic arthritis if single joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the epidemiology of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Most common rheumatic disease in children. 150/100k. sJIA mostly (10%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the history/ exam of someone with Juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

General: acute joint swelling, pain, warm, stiff, worse AM, improve with activity, reduce range of movement, contractures.

sJIA, symmetrical, polyarticular, myalgia, abdominal pain, fever, rash.

pGALS screening.

17
Q

What investigations would you use for Group of chronic arthropaties in childhood?

A

FBC, markers of inflammation ESR CRP ferritin. RF, ANA, HLA subtype, slit lamp exam (anterior uveitis) XR, USS, MRI.

18
Q

What is the management of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Holistic aproach: symptom tx (analgesia), steroids, DMARDS (MTX, entarcept anti TNFa)

19
Q

What are the complications and prognosis of someone with Juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Anterior uveitis is asymptomatic, failure to screen this may lead to glaucoma, cataracts and blindness. THEREFORE DO SLIT LAMP EXAM!!!!

High proportion of children develop destructive bone disease. 30-40%, requiring early joint replacement.

20
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (Perthe disease)?

A

Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis of the femoral head.

21
Q

What is the aetiology of Perthe disease?

A

General: unknown, probably multifactoria. 25% bilateral (doe not occur at same time). May be due to altered growth pattern, trauma, and fibrinolysis defects like sickle cell crisis. Rapide epyphiseal growth and lack of supply keeping up.

Classification: Modified Elizabethtown – I sclerotic (withor without loss of height), II fragmentation (A early B late), III healing (A peripheral, B medial 1/3), IV healed.

Associated with sickle cell, premature, SES low, low BW, high parental age, passive smoking

22
Q

What is the epidemiology of Perthe Disease?

A

12/100k.

23
Q

What would you find in the history of Perthe Disease?

A

Limp: early sign, intermittent, abductor lurch, post exercise. Painles slimp.

Pain: classically painless, may have mild intermittent pain in anterior thigh or hip pain secondary to necrosis of affected bone, referred to medial aspect of ipsilateral knee or thigh.

24
Q

What would you find in the examination of Perthe disease?

A

Look: atrophy of the quad due to disuse. Leg length inequality, hip adduction flexion deformity, Trendelburg gait.

Feel: nil

Move: restricted ROM, mostly internal rotation and abduction . global rROM in late.

Roll test: supine position, roll foot on internal and external rotation. Guarding or spasm with internal rotation.

At risk femoral head signs: high age, high weight, loss of movement, adduction contracture, flexion with adduction

25
Q

What investigations would you do for Perthe Disease?

A

Bloods: FBC, CRP/ESR (septic arthritis), Hb electrophoresis (SCA)

Joint aspiration to exclude septic arthritis.

XR: AP and frog leg – Catterral at risk signs: gage sign, calcificaiton lateral to the epiphysis, sublaxation, epiphyseal angle, diffuse metaphyseal reaction.

Imaging: bone scan, arthrography, MRI.

26
Q

What is the management of Perthe Disease?

A

General: catterrall criteria and radiological grde, ET classification.

Containment theory: secure injured femoral head within socket and movement continued.

Conservative: only in healing stage >8yo.

Surgical: to achieve containment and salvage the joint, proximal femoral osteotomies, acetabular surgery, abduction osteotomies and chictomy.

27
Q

What are the complications and prognosis of Perthe Disease?

A

Permanent femoral head deformity, early OA.

Iowa long term follow up study: 40% had joint replacement, 10% disabling arthritis, 10% hip score<80%.