Genetic Information, Variation And relationships Between Organisms (3.4) Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a histone?

A

A protein which provides structural support for a chromosome

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2
Q

Name 3 similarities and differences between DNA in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

A

DNA in prokaryotes:
- circular DNA with no free ends
- relatively short
- not bound to histones

DNA in eukaryotes:
- linear DNA with two ends
- much longer
- tightly wrapped around histone proteins

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3
Q

In which organelles, beside the nucleus, is DNA found in?

A

Mitochondria and chloroplasts

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4
Q

DNA in chloroplasts and mitochondria is similar to the DNA found in _______.

A

Prokaryotes

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5
Q

what is a histone?

A

Proteins which provide structural support for a chromosome

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6
Q

What is a chromosome?

A

Linear DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.

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7
Q

What is chromatin?

A

DNA that is wrapped and coiled around histone proteins.

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8
Q

What is the function of DNA?

A

To store genetic information and codes for proteins

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9
Q

what type of molecule is DNA?

A

Joint nucleotides forming a polymer

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10
Q

What are nucleotides made up of?

A

Phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar, organic bases

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11
Q

phosphate group + deoxyribose sugar=?

A

Sugar phosphate backbone

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12
Q

What are the 4 bases

A

Adenine- thymine
Guanine-cytosine

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13
Q

What is a polypeptide?

A

A polymer made from amino acids, joined together by peptide bonds.

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14
Q

What does supercoiled mean?

A

The amount of twist on a DNA strand, which determines the amount of strain on it.

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15
Q

What is a codon?

A

A DNA or RNA sequence of 3 nucleotides

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16
Q

what is a gene?

A

A section of DNA that codes for certain characteristics

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17
Q

What is an allele?

A

A version of a gene

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18
Q

What is a loci?

A

Location of a gene on a chromosome

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19
Q

What are sister chromatids?

A

Identical chromatids, formed by the DNA replication of a chromosome with both copies joined by a common centromere.

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20
Q

What is an intron?

A

The non-coding sections of DNA which are spliced out of the mRNA sequence during transcription.

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21
Q

Introns stay ___ the nucleus.

A

In

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22
Q

What are exons?

A

The coding sections of genes which can be expresses as functional RNA or polypeptides.

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23
Q

Exons _____ the nucleus.

A

Exit

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24
Q

Genes are located on __________ and occupy specific positions on the chromosome known as its _____.

A

Chromosomes

Locus

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25
Q

Genes are made up of ________ and ____-_____ DNA

A

Coding
Non-coding

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26
Q

Exons are ______ during transcription an from the ___ that exits the nucleus and is expressed as the functional polypeptide.

A

Spliced
MRNA

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27
Q

What is transcription?

A

Making mRNA to DNA

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28
Q

What is mRNA and what does it do?

A

Messenger RNA
A long single strand created during transcription in which the base sequence is complementary to DNA

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29
Q

What is codon?

A

mRNA strand being read in triplets

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30
Q

What is anticodon?

A

Triplets that read on tRNA

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31
Q

Where does transcription take place?

A

In the nucleus

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32
Q

Where does translation take place?

A

Cytoplasm

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33
Q

Describe the process of transcription.

A
  1. The hydrogen bonds in the DNA, between complementary base pairs, is broken by an enzyme.
    • two exposed strands, one used as a template.
  2. One of the DNA strands is used as a template to make the mRNA molecule, the template is called the antisense strand.
  3. Free nucleotides line up by complementary base pairing and adjacent nucleotides are joined by phosphodiester bonds thus forming a molecule of mRNA.
    • The enzyme RNA polymerase catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds.
  4. When a stop codon is reached this ceases. As the RNA polymerase moves away the DNA rejoins, with only 12 bases being exposed at a time to reduce the chance of damage to the DNA.
  5. In eukaryotic cells the pre-mRNA is then spliced to remove the introns leaving just a strand of exons.
  6. The mRNA then moves out of the nucleus through a pore and attaches to a ribosome in the cytoplasm which is the site of next stage of protein synthesis called translation.
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34
Q

Transcription

  1. The ____________bonds in the DNA, between complementary base pairs, is broken by an enzyme.
    • two exposed strands, one used as a template.
  2. One of the DNA strands is used as a template to make the mRNA molecule, the template is called the _________ strand.
  3. Free nucleotides line up by complementary base pairing and adjacent nucleotides are joined by _________________ bonds thus forming a molecule of mRNA.
    • The enzyme RNA ___________ catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds.
  4. When a ______ codon is reached this ceases. As the RNA polymerase moves away the DNA rejoins, with only 12 bases being exposed at a time to reduce the chance of damage to the DNA.
  5. In___________ cells the pre-mRNA is then spliced to remove the introns leaving just a strand of________.
  6. The mRNA then moves out of the nucleus through a ______ and attaches to a ribosome in the cytoplasm which is the site of next stage of protein synthesis called translation.
A

Hydrogen
Antisense
Phosphodiethster
Polymerase
Stop
Eukaryotic
Exons
Pore

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35
Q

Describe the process of translation.

A
  1. mRNA attaches to a ribosome
  2. transfer RNA collects amino acids from the cytoplasm and carries them to the ribosome.
    • can only carry one type of amino acid, and a triplet of bases (anticodon) at the other.
  3. tRNA attaches itself to mRNA by complementary base pairing
    • two molecules attach to mRNA at a time.
  4. The amino acids attached to two tRNA molecules join by a peptide bond and then tRNA molecules detach themselves from the amino acids, leaving them behind.
  5. This process is repeated thus leading to the formation of a polypeptide chain until a stop codon is reached on mRNA
    • this ends the process of protein synthesis.
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36
Q

Translation
1. mRNA attaches to a_________.

  1. transfer RNA collects amino acids from the ___________ and carries them to the ribosome.
    • can only carry ___type of amino acid, and a triplet of bases (anticodon) at the other.
  2. tRNA attaches itself to mRNA by___________ base pairing
    • ___ molecules attach to mRNA at a time.
  3. The amino acids attached to two tRNA molecules join by a _________ bond and then tRNA molecules detach themselves from the amino acids, leaving them behind.
  4. This process is repeated thus leading to the formation of a polypeptide chain until a _____ codon is reached on mRNA
    • this ends the process of protein synthesis.
A

Ribosome
Cytoplasm
One
Complementary
Two
Peptide
Stop

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37
Q

Where does meiosis take place?

A

Sex organs

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38
Q

What does meiosis produce?

A

4 genetically different gametes

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39
Q

_________ cells contain chromosomes in pairs.

A

Diploid

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40
Q

What are homologous chromosomes?

A

Chromosomes that have exactly the same genes

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41
Q

Describe the process of crossing over of chromosomes.

A

Two chromosomes in a homologous pair come together. The chromatids of the two chromosomes wrap around each other to form a bivalent. Parts of the chromatids can break off and exchange between homologous chromosomes. These are recombinant chromosomes. Because the chromosomes have exchanged DNA that means they can exchange alleles.

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42
Q

What is the chiasmata in crossing over?

A

Where crossing over chromosomes are joined.

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43
Q

What does crossing over of chromosomes form?

A

A bivalent

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44
Q

What are recombinant chromosomes?

A

Chromosomes in which the maternal and paternal chromosomes have changed DNA by crossing over

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45
Q

What are the names of the stages of meiosis?

A

Interphase
Prophase 1
Metaphase 1
Anaphase 1
Telophase 1
Cytokinesis
Prophase 2
Anaphase 2
Metaphase 2
Telophase 2
Cytokinesis

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46
Q

Describe the process of interphase.

A

The cell copies the chromosomes and organelles.
The chromosomes are not visible as distinct structures during interphase.

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47
Q

Describe the process of prophase.

A
  • chromosomes condense and become visible.
  • homologous chromosomes link together forming chiasmata. When the chromosomes are paired like this we called it a bivalent. At this point crossing over can take place, exchanging alleles between homologous chromosomes.
  • the nuclear membrane breaks down.
  • the centrioles move to opposite poles of the cell.
  • spindle fibres also start to assemble into the spindle apparatus.
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48
Q

Describe the process of metaphase.

A

The pairs of homologous chromosomes are lines up on the equator of the spindle apparatus.

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49
Q

Describe the process of anaphase.

A
  • the spindle fibres shorten and the homologous chromosomes move towards opposite poles.
  • for this to happen the chiasmata between the homologous chromosomes break.
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50
Q

Describe the process of telophase.

A
  • the chromosomes have now reached the poles of the cell.
  • at this point the nuclear membranes reform and the chromosomes uncoil back to their chromatin state.
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51
Q

Describe the process of cytokinesis.

A
  • the cell divides into two haploid cells - they no longer contain pairs of homologous chromosomes.
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52
Q

What does meiosis produce?

A

4 haploid gametes

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53
Q

What is independent assortment?

A

In metaphase 1 , when homologous chromosomes pairs line up on the spindle we can’t predict wether the paternal or maternal chromosome will end up in each gamete.

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54
Q

How do you calculate the number of genetically different gametes produced by independent assortment?

A

2n (to the power of n) n= number of homologous chromosome pairs.

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55
Q

What are the two ways in which meiosis produces genetic variation in its gametes?

A

Crossing over
Independent assortment

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56
Q

What are the features of the genetic code?

A

• non-overlapping: meaning that each triplet is only read once and triplets don’t share any bases.
• Genes are separated by non-coding repeats of bases.
• is degenerate: meaning that more than one triplet codes for the same amino acid,
–> this reduces the number of mutations which are mistakes in the base sequence such as base deletion, insertion or substitution.

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57
Q

Gene mutations involve a change in the ______ ________ of chromosomes.

A

Base sequence

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58
Q

Due to the ___________ nature of the genetic code, not all base substitutions can cause a change in the sequence of encoded amino acids.

A

Degenerate

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59
Q

_________ __________ can increase the rate of gene mutation. M

A

Mutagenic agents

60
Q

What are the 3 types of mutation?

A

Substitution mutation
Deletion mutation
Non - disjunction

61
Q

What is substitution mutation?

A

Where one base is substituted for another

62
Q

what is deletion mutation?

A

Where one base is deleted

63
Q

What is non-disjunction mutation?

A

Mutation in the number of chromosomes

64
Q

What is a frame shift mutation?

A

Where a deletion of a base leads to the bases shifting

65
Q

What are the advantages of asexual reproduction?

A
  • identical clones - can survive in a stable environment
  • only 1 parent needed - quicker as do not have to look for a mate/pollinator, no courtship
66
Q

what are the advantages of sexual reproduction?

A
  • genetic variation - offspring more adapted to environment
67
Q

What is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction?

A
  • less resilient to disease
  • vulnerable to changes in condition
  • competition for resources
68
Q

What are the disadvantages of sexual reproduction?

A
  • have to raise young (not in all cases)
  • courtship
  • look for mate
69
Q

Tick:

Feature of division: Mitosis Meiosis
One cell division I
Two cell divisions I
DNA replicates I
Formation of bivalent and chiasmata I
Crossing-over I
Independent segregation of homologous chromosomes. I
Separation of chromatids I
Two daughter cells end products I
Four daughter cells end products I
Daughter cells are haploid I
Daughter cells are diploid (if original cell was diploid) I
New combinations of alleles produced in daughter cells I

A
  1. Mitosis
  2. Meiosis
  3. Mitosis + meiosis
  4. Meiosis
  5. Meiosis
  6. Meiosis
  7. Mitosis + meiosis
  8. Mitosis
  9. Meiosis
  10. Meiosis
  11. Mitosis
  12. Meiosis
70
Q

What type of selection is antibiotic resistance an example of?

A

Directional selection

71
Q

What is human birth weight an example of?

A

Stabilising selection

72
Q

Interspecific variation

A

Variation between different species

73
Q

Intraspecific variation

A

Variation within members of the same species

74
Q

What is sampling?

A

Taking measurements of selected individuals from the population being investigated

75
Q

Why might sampling measurements not be representative?

A

Sampling bias - selection process may be biased, unrepresentative choices, deliberately or unknowingly

Chance- pure chance

76
Q

How do you conduct a random sample?

A
  • divide study area into a grid of numbers and lines
  • using random numbers from a table or computer generator, obtain a series of coordinates
  • take samples at the intersection of each pair of coordinates
77
Q

How can you minimise the effect of bias?

A
  • use a large sample - more reliable data
  • analysis of data collected - determine the extent to which chance may have influenced the data
78
Q

What are the characteristics of a normal distribution curve?

A
  • mean median and mode are the same
  • curve never touches the x axis
  • shows continuous variation
79
Q

What is standard deviation a measure of?

A

The spread of data about the mean

80
Q

+ SD =?
_

A

68% spread about the mean

81
Q
A

95% spread about the mean

82
Q

What does P=0.05 mean?

A

The probability of the value being due to chance is more than 5%

83
Q

Define a population.

A

A group of organisms in the same place at the same time that are able to interbreed and produce fertile offspring

84
Q

What are the 3 types of adaptation?

A

Behavioural
Physiological
Anatomical

85
Q

Behavioural adaptation

A

The way an organism acts to increase its chance of survival e.g. hibernation

86
Q

Physiological adaptation

A

An internal process that can regulate homeostasis/benefit it in its environment eg snake venom

87
Q

Anatomical adaptation

A

Structural feature/ becomes fitted to its environment e.g. polar bears have white fur

88
Q

In order for natural selection to occur there needs to be _______________ within a population.

A

Variation

89
Q

Describe the process of natural selection

A
  • new alleles are brought about by mutations
  • the new allele is advantageous and therefore organisms are more likely to survive and reproduce
  • pass on advantageous allele to offspring
  • frequency of allele will increase
90
Q

Natural selection

  • new alleles are brought about by _________
  • the new allele is advantageous and therefore organisms are more likely to survive and reproduce
  • pass on advantageous allele to __________
  • frequency of allele will increase
A

Mutations
Offspring

91
Q

Genetic drift

A

A change in a population’s allele frequencies that occurs due to change rather than selective pressures. E.g an ice age

92
Q

Directional selection

A

Occurs when environmental conditions change. Individuals with phenotypes suites to the new conditions will survive and pass on their genes. Over time the mean of the population will move towards these characteristics

93
Q

Founder effect/ genetic bottleneck

A

an extreme example of genetic drift that happens when the size of a population is severely reduced. Events like natural disasters (earthquakes, floods, fires) can decimate a population, killing most individuals and leaving behind a small, random assortment of survivors.

94
Q

Directional selection

A

For one extremes trait.
Against the other extreme trait

Normal distribution curve, bell curve shifts

95
Q

Stabilising selection

A

For moderate traits
Against both extremes

Selection for mean values
Extremes are selected against

96
Q

Disruptive selection

A

For both extremes
Against moderate traits

Diverse into 2 populations
Mean is not favoured

97
Q

Describe how antibiotic resistance is an example of directional selection

A
  • variation - some strains of bacteria and some aren’t
  • competition - non-resistant bacteria are killed (e.g by penicillin)
  • survival of the fittest - resistant bacteria survive
  • passing on of genes - the resistant bacteria reproduce and pass on their adaptations to their offspring
98
Q

Explain how human birth weight is an example of stabilising selection

A
  • variation - there are a variety of weights a baby can be born
  • competition - a normal weight is beneficial. Too small/large can make it hard to survive
  • natural selection - keeps weights in the middle range. Mean weight survive and pass on adaptations to offspring
99
Q

What did Carl Linnaeus group organisms by?

A

Structure and characteristics

100
Q

Who created the binomial name system?

A

Carl Linnaeus

101
Q

Describe the binomial name system

A

The genus goes first with a capital letter, followed by the species with a lower case
Written in italics

102
Q

define a species

A

A group of organisms who share similar genes, and can reproduce to produce fertile offspring

103
Q

What is phylogeny?

A

The evolutionary relationship between organisms

104
Q

What are the elements of phylogenic classification?

A

Domain
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species

105
Q

Name a domain (on spec)

A

Eukarya

106
Q

Name the kingdoms (on spec)

A

Animal, fungi, plant, bacteria, protoctista

107
Q

Name a phylum (on spec)

A

Chortada

108
Q

Name a class (on spec)

A

Mammals

109
Q

What does a phylogenic tree show?

A

How closely organisms are related
Common ancestors

110
Q

What system did Carl Woese create?

A

3 domain system

111
Q

Which classification system is currently used?

A

3 domain - Carl Woese

112
Q

How did Carl Woese create the 3 domain system?

A

Used evidence from chemical analysis

113
Q

What makes up the 3 domain system?

A

Archaea
True bacteria
Eukaryotes

114
Q

Courtship behaviour is carried out by organisms to attract a mate of the right_______.

A

Species

115
Q

Courtship behaviour is ___________ specific

A

Species

116
Q

why is courtship behaviour species specific?

A

prevents interbreeding, making reproduction more successful (as mating with the wrong species won’t produce fertile offspring).

117
Q

The more closely related species are, the more _______ their courtship behaviour.

A

Similar

118
Q

Courtship behaviour can be a way to signal ____________ maturity

A

Reproductive

119
Q

Courtship behaviour is a way to form a ______ with their pair, to increase reproductive success - not necessary for all species

A

Bond

120
Q

Courtship behaviour can be used for ______________ mating with other individuals in some species

A

Synchronised

121
Q

What is biodiversity?

A

This is the general term used to describe the variety in the living world.

122
Q

How can you measure species diversity?

A

Simpson’s diversity index

123
Q

Biodiversity reflects how well an __________ functions.

A

Ecosystem

124
Q

How does diversity index relate to the stability of an ecosystem?

A

• The higher the species diversity index, the more stable the ecosystem usually is.

125
Q

An ecosystem with a high diversity index is more likely to have at least one _______ which may survive a change in conditions e.g. A drought

A

Species

126
Q

Species diversity

A

refers to the number of different species and the number of individual species within a community.

127
Q

Genetic diversity

A

refers to the variety of genes possessed by the individuals that make up any ONE species.

128
Q

Ecosystem diversity

A

refers to the range of different habitats within a particular area

129
Q

A community dominated by one or two species is considered to be _____ diverse than one in which several different species have a similar abundance. Simpson’s Diversity Index is a measure of diversity which takes into account the number of species present, as well as the relative abundance of each species. As species richness and evenness_______, so diversity increases.

A

Less
Increase

130
Q

In extreme conditions, the communities in an ecosystem are dominated by the ________ rather than the species within them.

A

Climate

131
Q

What is the diversity index in extreme environments?

A

Low

132
Q

What is the diversity index in less hostile environments?

A

High

133
Q

Name some natural threats to biodiversity.

A

Low population
Low breeding rate
Natural disasters

134
Q

Name some human threats to biodiversity.

A

Habitat modification
Overexploitation of selected species
Global warming
Hunting
Pollution

135
Q

What is the impact of agriculture on species diversity ?

A

Decreases species diversity

136
Q

Why does agriculture decrease species diversity?

A

Farmers select one species which reduces the genetic variety by reducing the alleles to the ones they desire

Competition and the addition of pesticides adds up to a loss of species diversity

137
Q

What is the effect of hedgerows on species diversity? Why?

A

They increase the species diversity
They house rare and fragile species e.g wild flowers, insects, birds and small mammals

138
Q

What are the 4 methods of investigating genetic diversity?

A
  • genome sequencing
  • mRNA sequencing
  • amino acid sequencing
  • immunological comparisons
139
Q

Why can’t you classify organisms on their appearance alone?

A
  • the same characteristics could be coded for by more than one gene
  • the same characteristics could haves arisen separately
  • the characteristics could have been influenced by the environment and not the genes
140
Q

What is interspecific variation?

A

The difference between species

141
Q

What is intraspecific variation?

A

Variation within one species

142
Q

What is genome sequencing?

A

• uses gene technology to read the base sequences of organisms. The genetic diversity of a species can be measured by sampling DNA.
• More closely related individuals should have less variation in the DNA base sequences.

143
Q

What is mRNA sequencing?

A

• Traits are due to genes being expressed, through expression mRNA is used.
• So by looking at mRNA we can see what genes are expressed and what they code for.
More closely related organisms should have more similar mRNA sequence.
- mRNA sequencing only shows the expressed genes in a genome

144
Q

What is amino acid sequencing?

A

• The sequence of amino acids can be studied as this can be taken back to the mRNA sequence and thus the DNA sequence.
• Related organisms have similar DNA sequences , hence similar amino acid sequences, hence similar proteins.

145
Q

What are immunological comparisons?

A

• Similar proteins will bind to similar antibodies
○ Example: human antibody might bind to same antigen as chimpanzee antibody, but not as rabbit antibody as they are more distantly relatives.

• Fewer the number of similar antigens the less precipitate is formed and the more distantly the species are related.
146
Q

Describe the process of an immunological comparison.

A
  • serum allium from species A (human) is injected into species B (rabbit).
  • species B (rabbit) produces antibodies specific to all the antigen sites on the Adium from species A (human).
  • serum is extracted from species B (rabbit); this serum contains antibodies specific to the antigens on the allium from species A.
  • serum from species B is mixed with the blood from a third species (species C)
  • the response is the formation of a precipitate. The greater the number of similar antigens, the more precipitate is formed and the more closely the species are related.