Genetic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Hurler Syndrome

Type, Gene, Symptoms, Rx

A

Autosomal Recessive

Gene: alpha-L-Iduronidase

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2
Q

Tay- Sachs:

type
What gene?
Build up of what?
Mutation Type and Result?

A

Autosomal Recessive

Gene: HexA

Build up of GM2 gangliosides leading to neuron damage

Mutation: 4 base insertion causing frameshift mutation. Premature stop codon and truncated protein

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3
Q

Cystic fibrosis

Type
Gene
Mutation type
Result

A

Autosomal Recessive

gene: CFTR

Mutation type: 1 amino acid lost, but in-frame mutation

Result: prevents CFTR chloride channel. Results in thick mucus sections because water isn’t attracted.

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4
Q

Sickle Cell Disease

Type

Mutation type

A

Autosomal Recessive

Mutation: wrong amino acid, (A to T)

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5
Q

Beta-Thalassemia

Type

Mutation type

A

Autosomal recessive

Point mutations decreasing production of beta globin (hemoglobin)

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6
Q

Hereditary hemochromatosis

Type

Gene

Mutation type

Whos affected

A

Autosomal Recessive

Gene: HFE (high iron)

Mutation: single missense resulting in iron overload

Who is affected? adult males more commonly affected

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7
Q

Huntington disease

Type:
Gene:

A

Autosomal dominant

Gene: HD, trinucleotide repeat expansion

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8
Q

Achondroplasia

Type:
Gene:

A

Autosomal dominant

Gene: FGFR-3, glycine to arginine missense, gain of function

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9
Q

Neurofibromatosis Type 1

Type
Gene

A

Type: autosomal dominant

Gene: NF1, nonsense point mutation resulting in shortened protein

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10
Q

Marfan Syndrome

Type
Gene

A

Autosomal dominant

Gene: FBN1, elastic fibers in connective tissue

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11
Q

Lesch - Nyhan Syndrome

Type
Gene

A

X-linked recessive

Gene: HGPRT - involved in purine recycling. Deficient HGPRT results in overproduction of uric acid

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12
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Type
Gene
mutation type

A

X-linked recessive

Gene: dystrophin (muscle fibers, largest human gene)

Mutation type: deletion leading to frameshift.

Milder cases have mutations without frame shift (becker) and protein is partially active

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13
Q

Hemophilia B

Type
males or females?
effect
mutation

A

X linked recessive

Affects males, females have second working X chromosome

Effect: deficiency of factor IX

Mutation: point mutation in promotor region of gene, A to G transition alters transcription factor of factor IX gene

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14
Q

Gowers sign

A

results from weakness of lower limbs

Use arms to “climb” up the legs to elevate the torso.

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15
Q

Rett syndrome

Type
Gene
variation of Sx
Male or female

A

X linked dominant

Gene: MeCP2

Variation in females due to skewed x-inactivation patterns

Generally not transmitted through families

Lethal in males

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16
Q

Fragile X Syndrome

Type
Gene
male or female

A

X linked dominant

Gene: FMR1, CGG repeat expansion in promotor region

More severe in males

Anticipation observed in later generations due to trinucleotide repeat expansion when female carriers pass the trait.

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17
Q

Langer mesomelic dysplasia and Leri-Weill dyschondrosteosis

Type
Mutation

A

Y chromosome disorder

mutation in pseudoautosomal region of SHOX gene

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18
Q

Swyer syndrome

Type
effect

A

Y chromosome, SRY gene disorder

Effect: genotypic male develops as a female

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19
Q

46 XX testicular disorder of development

Type
effect

A

Y chromosome disorder, SRY translocation onto X chromosome

Effect: individuals develop as male, with similar sx to kinefelter

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20
Q

Mitochondrial diseases

A
CEPO
Kearns-Sayre
Leigh
LHON
MERRF
MELAS
Person Syndrome
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21
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

Type
Gene
Sign
Treatment

A

Autosomal recessive

Gene: PAH

Signs; phenylalanine and phenylketones in blood. Phenylketones in urine

Treatment: restrict dietary phenylalanine. if caught early, neurological damange can be mitigated

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22
Q

PKU: causes of intellectual disability

A

high levels of phenylalanine and phenylketones directly toxic to brain

Excess phenylalanine saturates lare neutral amino acid transporter at BBB, leading to excess of phenylalanine in brain and preventing other AAs from entering

Failure to produce adequate dopamine and epi due to lack of tyrosine

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23
Q

Origin of Trisomy 21

A

95% of cases due to mother’s nondisjunction of chromosome 21

5% due to robertsonian translocation

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24
Q

Trisomy 18 (Edward Syndrome)

Origin
Sxs

A

Nondisjunction of chromosome 18 in mother

Sx: intellectual disability
low weight
diaphragmatic hernia
heart defects
small eyes, mouth, receding jaw
kidney defects
clenched fists
rocker bottom feet
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25
Q

trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome)

Origin
Sx

A

Origin: 95% nondisjunction in mother. 5% Robertsonian translocation

Sx: intellectual disability
Microcephaly, holoprosencephaly
postaxial polydactyly
cleft lip/palate
small eyes, large triangluar nose
deafness
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26
Q

Turner syndrome

Cause
Sx
Treatment

A

45, X

Cause: one X chromosome, so only 1 copy of PAR1 and PAR2 genes

Sx: short stature, learning disabilities, braod neck, visual impairments, kidney abnormalities, ovarian dysgenesis and lack of secondary sexual characteristics

Treatment: growth hormone and estrogen therapy

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27
Q

Klinefelter Syndrome

Origin
Sx
Treatment

A

47, XXY

Sx: often SUBTLE

Treatment: testosterone therapy, speech therapy, physical therapy

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28
Q

Exons

A

coding regions that contain DNA sequence that translates to the final protein product

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29
Q

Introns

A

non-coding regions that contain regulatory information and can be removed by splicing

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30
Q

Molecular fingerprint

A

uses polymorphisms to identify an individual. identifies using the number of repeats in a sequence.

CODIS is used by the FBI to search a set of 15 VNTR loci

Everyone has 2 sets of chromosomes with their own repeat polymorphism pattern

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31
Q

STRP

A

2-5 bp

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32
Q

VNTR

A

14-500 bp

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33
Q

CNV

A

2 million bp

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34
Q

Paternity testing

A

uses VNTR analysis and compares bands of potential fathers to child.

If no bands are shared, the individual is not the father.

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35
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

introduces new stop codon

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36
Q

silent sense mutation

A

base change that doesn’t alter the amino acid

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37
Q

missense mutation

A

wrong amino acid

38
Q

Frameshift mutations

A

1-2 bp deleted or added (or multiples) cause codons to be read in the wrong frame.

39
Q

In-frame mutation

A

3bp added or deleted, extra amino acid is inserted/deleted but remaining codons are read correctly

40
Q

DNA 3’ and 5’ ends

A

3’ OH group, 5’ terminal phosphate.

41
Q

Techniques for genotyping or sequencing DNA

A

PCR, southern blot, cloning

Detects and quantitates specific genes

42
Q

Measures gene expression

A

northern blot, microarray, qRT-PCR, Next Gen sequencing

43
Q

Measures protein expression

A

Western blot, ELISA

detects presence and relative quantity of protein

44
Q

4 steps of PCR

A

denature, anneal, elongate, repeat for 20-35 cycles

45
Q

Principle of independent assortment

A

an allele transmitted at one locus has no influence on which allele is transmitted at another locus

46
Q

Gene frequency

A

how often a particular gene sequence (allele) occurs in a population

47
Q

genotype frequency

A

how often a given genotype occurs in a population

48
Q

Occurrence risk

A

risk of producing an affected child when no children have yet been produced

49
Q

Recurrence risk

A

risk of producing an affected child when one or more children with the disease have been produced

50
Q

Autosomal Dominant Diseases

A

Huntingtons Disease (HD),

Achondroplasia (FGFR-3)

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

Marfan Syndrome (FBN-1)

Familial hypercholesterolemia (LDL receptor gene)

51
Q

6 Characteristics of autosomal recessive inheritance

A

1/4 of offspring btwn heterozygous affected

if parents are carriers, multiple affected children likely

sometimes no family hx of disease

carrier individuals are present in skipped generations

males and females equally likely

cosanguinity present

52
Q

Hardy Weinberg Principle

A

(p+q)^2 = p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

(p+q)^2 = gene frequency

p^2 = homozygous dominant frequency

q^2 = homozygous recessive frequency

2pq = heterozygous frequency

53
Q

Find 2pq (heterozygous frequency)

A

q^2 = tt frequency. find this (given)

square root it (you end with q)

subtract q from 1 (you end with p)

calculate 2pq

54
Q

Principle of segregation

A

genes remain intact and distinct in next generation, they are not blended.

55
Q

Lysosomal storage disorders

A

Hurler syndrome, Tay-Sachs

56
Q

Autosomal recessive diseases

A

Hurler syndrom (a-L-iduronidase, glycosaminoglycan)

Tay Sachs (HexA, GM2 gangliosides)

Cystic Fibrosis (CFTR)

Sickle Cell (B-globin gene

B-Thalassemia (B-globin)

Hereditary hemochromatosis (HFE)

57
Q

Sporadic occurance

A

de-novo mutation

achondroplasia, NF1

58
Q

Germline mosiacism

A

Germline consists of more than one distinct population of cells.

osteogenesis imperfecta

59
Q

Delayed age of onset

A

diseasae doesn’t manifest until adulthood

huntington disease, hemochromatosis

60
Q

Reduced penetrance

A

not everybody carrying the genotype will express the associated phenotype

Retinoblastoma (Rb, 90% penetrance)

61
Q

Variable Expression

A

affects severity of disease independent of penetrance

NF-1

62
Q

Pleiotropy

A

exerts its effects on multiple aspects of physiology or anatomy

Cystic fibrosis, Marfan Syndrome

63
Q

Heterogeneity

A

mutations at different gene loci can produce the same disease phenotype

Osteogenesis imperfecta

64
Q

Genomic Imprinting

A

paternal and maternal chromosomes contribute different amounts of gene product

Prader willi (from father), angelman (from mother)

65
Q

Anticipation

A

displays an earlier age of onset/more severe expression in more recent generations

Myotonic dystrophy, fragile X, huntington

66
Q

Cosanguinity

A

mating between related individuals

Rare recessive diseases

67
Q

X-Activation, incompletion

A

15% of genes on X chromosome remain active

XIST gene
PAR1/PAR2 genes behave like autosomes, their products are found on x and y chromosomes

68
Q

replicative segregation in mtDNA

A

random distribution of mtDNA among daughter mitochondria, and random distribution of mitochondria between daughter cells

69
Q

Homoplasmy and heteroplasmy

A

homoplasmy = daughter cell received pure population of mito, all with normal or all with mutated DNA

Heteroplasmy = daughter cell received mixed population of mitrochondria, some with and some without mutated mtDNA

70
Q

polygenic model

A

trait in which variation thought to be a combined effect of multiple genes

additive polygenic model states the number of phenotypic classes increases as the number of genes controlling a trait increases.

Applied to quantitative traits

71
Q

Threshold model

A

applied to qualitative traits, all-or-nothing traits.

Must meet a threshold of liability to develop disease

Threshold may be different in different populations

72
Q

Pyloric stenosis

A

Threshold model example

males more effected

sx: recurrent vomiting, dehydration, electrolyte imbalance.

73
Q

Factors affecting recurrence risk

A

of affected family members

degree of relationship to proband

increases if proband is of less commonly affected sex

severity of disease in proband

74
Q

Twin types

A

monozygotic = identical twins

Dizygotic = fraternal twins

75
Q

heritability (h)

A

the proportion of variation in a disease trait that can be attributed to genes

h = 2(Cmz - Cdz)

76
Q

amniocentesis

A

optimal time: 15-20 weeks

tests: cytogenic analysis, DNA testing, Fetal a-fetoprotein (AFP)

High AFP = high risk of neural tube disorders
Low AFP = risk of trisomies

77
Q

Chorionic Villus Sampling

A

optimal time: 10-12 weeks

sample collected: fetal trophoblastic tissue

tests: cytogenic analysis, DNA testing

Conditions: chromosomal abnormalities

78
Q

Ultrasonography

A

Optimal time: 16-18 weeks

Visualization of fetus for structural abnormalities

79
Q

Maternal serum screening and Nuchal Translucency

A

optimal time: 11-14 weeks

Sample collected: maternal serum + ultrasounds

Tests: AFP in mothers serum, increased nuchal translucency suggests risk of chromosomal anomalies

Conditions: trisomies and neural tube disorders

High AFP = neural tube
Low AFP = trisomies

80
Q

Triple Screen

A

combines three proteins: maternal AFP, hCG and estriol

Accurate at 16-18 weeks

concerns with false positives

81
Q

Cell-free fetal DNA testing

A

measures fetal DNA shed into mothers blood during pregnancy

simple blood draw for mom

Results should be confirmed with another method

Tests for trisomies, aberrant numbers of sex chromosomes, sex of baby

82
Q

acrocentric chromosomes

A

13, 14, 15, 21, 22

Involved in Robertsonian translocations

83
Q

Cell cycle beginning

A

mitogen binds to receptor

Phosphorylation cascade via Ras

MAPK activated, increases synthesis of MYC

MYC transcription factor increases expression of cyclin D.

84
Q

Cyclin-CDK complexes in cell cycle

A

G1 early - cyclin D-CDK4/6

G1 late - Cyclin E- CDK2

G1/S .- Cyclin A-CDK2

S/G2 - Cyclin A-CDK1

M - Cyclin B-CDK1

“Do Enter After the Bell”

85
Q

Antimetabolites

A

Methotrexate

S phase of cell cycle

inhibits synthesis of dTMP and purines thereby disrupting DNA production

86
Q

Mitotic inhibitors

A

Paclitaxel

G2/M phase

bind to microtubules, arrests mitosis in metaphase

induces apoptosis by blocking function of apoptosis inhibitor Bcl-2

87
Q

Anti-tumor antibiotics

A

Doxorubicin, anthracycline, daunorubicin

Intercalating into DNA

88
Q

Alkylating agents

A

Cisplatin, carboplatin

interphase

forms covalent interstrand and intrastrand crosslink with purine bases

interferes w/ DNA repair, synthesis and transcription

89
Q

Immunotherapy

A

Herceptin/Trastuzumab

binds to extracellular domain of HER2 that has RTK activity, blocking downstream signalling

reduces number of cells in S phase

90
Q

inhibition of cancer promoting proteins

A

Imatinib/Gleevac

a signal transduction inhibitor via RTK

91
Q

Inhibiting angiogenesis

A

Avastin

Inhibitor of VEGF receptor.