Genetic Disease Flashcards

1
Q

___ pairs of autosomes and ___ pair of sex chromosomes.

A

22; 1

23 pairs of total chromosomes
normal chromosome count is 46

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2
Q

Roughly ___ protein-encoding genes in the human genome.

A

19,000

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3
Q

What results in mutation?

A

alteration in the genetic code (A,C,G,T)

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4
Q

T/F. Mutations of a certain gene locus may affect one or both of the chromosomes in a pair.

A

True.

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5
Q

Define heterozygous and homozygous.

A

When one chromosomal locus in the pair is affected, the individual is heterozygous for the disorder; if the loci of both chromosomes have the mutated gene, the individual is homozygous.

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6
Q

What refers to a permanent change in the DNA? What happens if a mutation affects germ cells vs somatic cells?

A

Mutation.
Those affecting germ cells can be transmitted to progeny.
Those affecting somatic cells can result in tumors or developmental malformations.

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7
Q

What is the difference between point (missense), frameshift, and trinucleotide repeat mutations? Give an example of each.

A
Point mutations (missense mutation) – single nucleotide base substituted. Example: sickle cell anemia
Frameshift mutations – insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs, altering reading frame of the DNA strand (early stoppage of reading frame)
Trinucleotide repeat mutations – amplification of sequence of 3 nucleotides.  Example: Fragile X syndrome
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8
Q

What percentage of neoplasia is inherited?

A

5-15%

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9
Q

What else can alter protein-coding genes other that mutations?

A
  1. polymorphisms
  2. Epigenetic Changes
  3. Alterations in non-coding RNAs
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10
Q

Single nucleotide ___ – variation in just one nucleotide (for example, A or T) at a single site on the DNA molecule. Over 6 ___ have been identified, but most are within ___, ___ or intergenic regions.

A

polymorphism; million; exons; introns

May be markers for multigenic complex diseases, such as diabetes or hypertension.

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11
Q

Polymorphisms also include ___ ___ ___, which are different numbers of large contiguous stretches of DNA, from ___ to ___ of base pairs. About half involve ___-coding sequences, and this may account for much phenotypic variation.

A

Copy number variations; 1,000; millions; gene

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12
Q

What refers to modulation of gene expression without altered DNA sequence?

A

Epigenetic changes

Important in development as well as normal homeostasis.

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13
Q

With epigenetic changes, ___ of ___ residues on promoter regions makes them inaccessible to RNA ___, thus reducing protein synthesis.

A

methylation; cytosine; polymerase

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14
Q

What inhibits the translation of their target messenger RNAs into their corresponding proteins.

A

Micro-RNAs (miRNA’s)

These can control transcription and can “silence” tumor suppressor or apoptotic mechanisms.

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15
Q

T/F. Mendelian disorders are single-gene defects in which one of 2 alleles are affected.

A

True

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16
Q

What consist of a series of genes? Genes contain information to produce ___ that perform specific functions.

A

Chromosomes; proteins

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17
Q

Genetic alteration (mutation) often results in production of abnormal protein, which can alter what?

A

phenotype

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18
Q

Because genes are comprised of many ___ ___, a mutation can occur at different places within the gene, yet produce essentially the same ___ alterations.

A

base pairs; phenotypic

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19
Q

T/F. Mutations of a gene locus will affect only one chromosome in a pair.

A

False, Mutations of a gene locus may affect one or both chromosomes in a pair.

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20
Q

Which of the following is INCORRECT about autosomal dominant disorders?

  1. Mutated gene on one of the autosomes
  2. Expressed in heterozygous state, both parents usually affected
  3. Often present with outward physical changes and the onset is always present from birth, (e.g., Huntington’s disease).
A
  1. correct
  2. Expressed in heterozygous state, ONE parent usually affected
  3. Often present with outward physical changes, but these may have delayed age of onset even though the mutant gene is present from birth, (e.g., Huntington’s disease).
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21
Q

With autosomal dominant disorders, both ___ and ___ can have the disorder and transmit the mutant gene. Approximately ___ of the offspring will have the disease if only one parent is affected.

A

males; females; half

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22
Q

Define reduced or incomplete penetrance.

A

If a person has a mutant gene, but doesn’t or only partially expresses it phenotypically

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23
Q

___ ___ occurs if expression can be identified in all affected persons, but to differing extents.

A

Variable expresivity

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24
Q

T/F. If neither parent affected and there is no family history then the autosomal dominant disorder is termed new or a “de novo” mutation.

A

True.

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25
Q

Neurofibromastosis is a ___ ___ disorder with nearly ___% penetrance. It has highly ___ ____.

A

autosomal dominant; 100%; variable expressivity

nearly everyone who has this mutation will show evidence of this relatively common (1/3,000 live births) condition

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26
Q

T/F. Autosomal dominant disorders are the largest group of mendelian disorders.

A

False, autosomal RECESSIVE disorders are the largest group of mendelian disorders.

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27
Q

T/F. With autosomal recessive disorders the trait is expressed only if both genes at a
given locus are affected (homozygous individuals).

A

True, two germline mutations (one from each parent)

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28
Q

Does the parent of an individual affected with an autosomal recessive disorder show the disease?

A

No

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29
Q

With autosomal recessive disorders, what percentage of offspring of heterozygous carrier parents are affected? Carriers?

A

Affected (homozygous dominant) - 25% ( 1 in 4 chance) a HORIZONTAL pattern in family
Carriers (heterozygous) - 50% (2 in 4 chance)

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30
Q

What could be the cause of the appearance of a rare autosomal recessive disease?

A

If the mutant gene is rare, there is a strong probability that the affected child (proband) is the product of a consanguineous relationship.

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31
Q

Many autosomal recessive disorders present with ___ defects that produce inborn errors of ___; in ___ individuals, the disease is not evident clinically, but they may possess reduced amounts (50%) of the normal enzyme.

A

enzyme; metabolism; heterozygous

32
Q

The age of onset of autosomal recessive disorders is more frequently is ___ in life. The expression of the defect tends to be more uniform and ___ ___ is common.

A

early; complete penetrance

33
Q

T/F. Autosomal recessive disorders are transmitted more by men than women.

A

False, they are equally transmitted by men and women.

34
Q

What disorders are transmitted on the sex chromosomes rather than the autosomes and they may be dominant or recessive?

A

X-linked disorders

35
Q

T/F. To date, no Y-linked diseases are known. Only one trait (hairy ears) may be carried on the Y chromosome; all sex-linked diseases are X-linked.

A

True.

36
Q

Y chromosome carries only one significant gene. Name it.

A

SRY - sex-determining region

37
Q

Most X-linked disorders are ___.

A

Recessive

38
Q

Females (who are usually ___ for the gene because they have 2 X chromosomes) are ___; homozygous females and males (who are automatically ___ because they have only 1 X chromosome) are ___.

A

heterozygous; carriers; hemizygous; affected

39
Q

What is an example of a X-linked disorder in males (hemizygous)?

A

Hemophilia A

40
Q

Sixteen days after conception, most (>75%) of one X chromosome in the female zygote is randomly inactivated in all of the cells within the zygote. This phenomenon is known as ___. What does it result in?

A

Lyonization (lyon hypothesis)

The formation of a Barr body

41
Q

T/F. Either the maternal or paternal X may be inactivated in each cell, and that X remains inactivated in the progeny of the cell.

A

True. Therefore, females are genetically mosaic. The cells in normal females represent a mixture of two cell types: those with active paternal X and those with active maternal X.

42
Q

T/F. In disorders of the X chromosome, typically females are an uneven mixture of normal and abnormal chromosomes.

A

False, In disorders of the X chromosome, typically females are an EVEN mixture of normal and abnormal chromosomes.

43
Q

Describe unfavorable lyonization.

A

Unfavorable lyonization refers to inactivation of an abnormally high percentage of normal X chromosomes, leading to clinical evidence of a recessive disease in a heterozygous female.

44
Q

In X-linked dominant disorders, who is affected? Give an example.

A

heterzygous, homozygous and hemi¬zygous are affected. Example: Oral-Facial-Digital syndrome (OFD) type I

45
Q

Diseases caused by mutations in structural proteins are necessary for the formation of normal ___ and ___ ___.

A

bone; connective tissue

46
Q

What two diseases are caused by mutations in structural proteins?

A
  1. Marfan syndrome

2. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

47
Q

Marfan syndrome is an autosomal ___ disorder of ___ tissue due mutation of the ___ gene, resulting in abnormal ___, a glycoprotein necessary for normal ___ fiber production.

A

dominant; connective; FBN1; fibrillin; elastic

48
Q

What is the prevalence of Marfan syndrome?

A

1 in 5,000

49
Q

Describe a patient with Marfan Syndrome.

A
  1. Tall, thin body habitus with abnormally long legs, arms and fingers (arachnodactyly – “spider fingers”)
  2. Dislocation of lens of the eye
  3. Aortic aneurysm and dissection leading to heart failure and aortic rupture
50
Q

What disease has a least 6 different types, probably because this is a problem of collagen synthesis, and there are about 30 different types of collagen?

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

51
Q

Describe a patient with Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome.

A
  1. Hyperextensible skin and hypermobile joints
  2. Skin fragility and delayed wound healing
  3. Rupture of colon, large arteries
  4. Hernias
52
Q

Give two examples of diseases caused by mutations in genes encoding receptor proteins or channels.

A
  1. Familial hypercholesterolemia - LDL receptor

2. Cystic fibrosis- Chloride channel protein

53
Q

___ ___ is one of the more common inherited disorders, with a frequency of 1
in ___ in the population. Mutation in the gene for the ___ receptor (over 900 different mutations have been identified) results in impaired metabolism and increased LDL cholesterol in the plasma.

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia; 500; LDL (low density lipoprotein)

54
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia causes ___ of the skin and premature ___. ___ have 2-3x increased cholesterol levels, but homozygotes have over ___ normal levels. ___ often die of MI before 20 years of age.

A

xanthomas; atherosclerosis; Heterozygotes; 5x; Homozygotes

55
Q

What recent drug has been approved to treat the homozygous form of familial hypercholesterolemia?

A

lomitapide

56
Q

What are three examples of diseases caused by mutations in enzyme proteins?

A

Phenylketonuria
Galactosemia
Lysosomal storage diseases

57
Q

___ is an autosomal ___ disorder that affects 1 in ___ Caucasian infants. Severe lack of ___ ___, leading to hyperphenylalaninemia and PKU.

A

Phenylketonuria; recessive; 10,000; phenylalanine hydroxylase

58
Q

What happens to infants with PKU? Can this disease be prevented?

A

Affected infants are normal at birth, but elevated phenylalanine levels impair brain development, and mental retardation is evident by 6 months of age.

Screening of newborns for this condition is mandatory in the US. Restriction of dietary phenylalanine intake will prevent the mental retardation.

59
Q

What group of diseases is classified by the following?

  1. Autosomal recessive transmission
  2. Commonly affect infants and young children
  3. Accumulation of insoluble large molecules (sphingolipids and mucopolysaccharides) in macrophages with hepatosplenomegaly
  4. Frequent CNS involvement, mental retardation and/or early death
A

Lysosomal storage diseases

60
Q

What are some examples of Lysosomal storage diseases?

A

Tay-Sachs disease
Niemann-Pick disease
Gaucher disease
Mucopolysaccharidoses
Hurler disease (MPS type I): α-L-iduronidase
Hunter syndrome (MPS type II): L-iduronidase sulfatase

61
Q

T/F. Hunter syndrome is AR and caused by deficiency of alpha-L-iduronidase (laronidase). It has a life expectancy of 6-10 years if left untreated. Bone marrow transplant or enzyme replacement may improve outlook, but not all aspects of the disease are corrected. Cost of the enzyme – can be > $300,000 annually.

A

False, HURLER DISEASE (MPS TYPE I) is AR and caused by deficiency of alpha-L-iduronidase (laronidase). It has a life expectancy of 6-10 years if left untreated. Bone marrow transplant or enzyme replacement may improve outlook, but not all aspects of the disease are corrected. Cost of the enzyme – can be > $300,000 annually.

62
Q

Hunter syndrome is a ___ deficiency of ___ ___. There is an absence of ___ clouding and milder clinical course, but otherwise similar to Hurler syndrome

A

X-linked; L-iduronate sulfatase; corneal

63
Q

What type of diseases have two or more genes responsible, plus environmental (nongenetic) influences, with many physiologic traits (height, weight, blood pressure, hair color) and may underlie common diseases such as diabetes, hypertension, gout, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, etc.?

A

Multifactorial (polygenic) inheritance disorders

64
Q

Define cytogenetic disorders.

A

these are chromosomal aberrations (breakage and translocations) affecting autosomes and sex chromosomes.

65
Q

T/F. Chromsomal abnormalities occur in an estimate of 1 in 200 newborns and as many as 50% of 1st trimester spontaneous abortions.

A

True.

66
Q

A normal chromosomal count (2 X 23 = 46) is termed ___. An increased chromosome count that is a multiple of that normally seen (i.e. 3 X 23 or 4 X 23) is termed ___ and generally results in spontaneous abortion. Any number that is not an exact multiple of the normal chromosome count is termed ___. Examples include an extra chromosome (___; 2 X 23 + 1 =47) and absence of a chromosome (___; 2 X 23 – 1 = 45).

A

euploid; polyploidy; aneuploidy; trisomy; monosomy

67
Q

How do structural autosomal abnormalities occur?

A

usually from chromosome breakage followed by loss or rearrangement of material

68
Q

___ is transfer of a part of one chromosome to another nonhomologous chromosome. Usually fragments are exchanged between two chromosomes (___ translocation). ___ is loss of a portion of a chromosome. ___ is when a chromosome breaks in two points, then the released fragment is reunited after a complete turnaround.

A

Translocation; reciprocal; Deletion; Inversion

69
Q

What is the most common chromosomal disorder that is associated with advanced maternal age? What happens if 45 y/o?

A
Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)
45 years – 1:25
70
Q

What is the cause of Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)? Describe a down syndrome patient.

A

Due to meiotic non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during formation of the ovum

Mental retardation; epicanthic folds; flat facial profile; cardiac malfomations; increased susceptibility to infection (including severe periodontal disease in childhood); large tongue; increased prevalence of acute leukemia

71
Q

What are two cytogenetic disorders involving sex chromosomes?

A
  1. Klinefelter syndrome

2. Turner syndrome

72
Q

T/F. Klinefelter syndrome is defined as male hypogonadism that develops when there
are at least two X chromosomes and one or more Y chromosomes. Patients have increased length of lower limbs; reduced body hair; gynecomastia; most common reason for hypogonadism.

A

True.

73
Q

What dental issues do patients with Klinefelter syndrome present with?

A

increased frequency of taurodontism (enlarged molars, and enlarged pulpal horns)

74
Q

___ syndrome is due to partial or complete absence of one of the X chromosomes. Markedly short stature; webbing of the neck; low posterior hairline; shield-like chest; high-arched palate; variety of congenital cardiovascular malformations; failure to develop secondary sex characteristics; primary amenorrhea.

A

Turner

75
Q

Describe how the following help diagnose genetic diseases.

A

Fluorescence in situ Hybridization (FISH) - Uses fluorescent dye-labeled probes that recognize sequences specific to chromosomal regions

Comparative Genomic Hybridization - Uses different colored dyes attached to large segments of the test DNA and normal DNA, followed by hybridization. The relative amounts of each DNA sample are assessed based on the color of the hybridized product, and gene amplification or deletion can be identified

Molecular Diagnosis of Genetic Disorders
1) PCR analysis – amplify the DNA in question, then:
2) Compare the order of nucleotides of this DNA to a normal DNA sequence
3) Use restriction enzymes and run the segments on gel electrophoresis, compare to normal DNA
4) Add fluorescently labeled (different colors) nucleotides that are complementary to either the wild-type (normal) or mutant sequence, then continue the PCR, determining which
nucleotide is incorporated during primer extension.

76
Q

Determine which of the following are indications for prenatal and postnatal genetic analysis.

  1. Mother’s age >34 years
  2. Parent who is a carrier of a chromosomal translocation
  3. Hx of a previous child with chromosomal abnormality
  4. Parent who is a carrier of an X-linked disorder
  5. Multiple congenital anomalies
  6. Unexplained mental retardation and/or developmental delay
  7. Suspected aneuploidy (e.g., Down syndrome)
  8. Suspected sex chromosomal abnormality
  9. Infertility
  10. Multiple spontaneous abortions
A

Prenatal
Mother’s age >34 years
Parent who is a carrier of a chromosomal translocation
Hx of a previous child with chromosomal abnormality
Parent who is a carrier of an X-linked disorder

Postnatal
Multiple congenital anomalies
Unexplained mental retardation and/or developmental delay
Suspected aneuploidy (e.g., Down syndrome)
Suspected sex chromosomal abnormality
Infertility
Multiple spontaneous abortions