Genetic Code and Transcription Flashcards

1
Q

The Genetic code is what 3 features?

A
  • Nonoverlapping: Any single ribonucleotide within mRNA is part of one triplet
  • Colinear: Sequence of codons in a gene is colinear
  • Nearly universal: A single coding dictionary is used by viruses,
    prokaryotes, archaea, and eukaryotes
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2
Q

What does messenger RNA do?

A
  • Serves as intermediate in transferring genetic information from DNA to proteins
  • Genetic information is stored in DNA
  • Code that translates it to protein is in RNA
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3
Q

Note: mRNA is the what? tRNA is what? rRNA is what?

A
  • mRNA: codon
  • tRNA: anticodon
    -rRNA: site
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4
Q

The 3rd base pairing is known as the what?

A

WOBBLE!!!

Reminder, first two must sit more stably, so the 3rd one is the wobbly one in accordance with the Wobble Hypothesis

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5
Q

The 3rd base which is the wobble one is which type of RNA?

A

mRNA

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6
Q

Explain the initiator codon

A
  • Methionine (AUG)
  • Initial amino acid incorporated into ALL proteins
  • In bacteria: modified form of methionine
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7
Q

Explain the Termination codons

A
  • UAG, UAA, UGA
  • Do NOT code for any amino acid
  • Are not recognized by tRNA
  • Translation terminated when these codons are encountered
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8
Q

Define Missense Mutations

A
  • Mutations that change the amino acid in the gene
  • Ex.) Change from Serine –> Phenylalanine
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9
Q

Define Nonsense mutations

A
  • Mutations that produce a stop codon internally in gene
  • Translation is terminated
  • Partial polypeptide is produced
  • Ex.) Serine –> STOP codon
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10
Q

Define Frameshift mutations

A

Additions or deletions of bases leading to change in the read out

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11
Q

Explain mItochondrial DNA

A
  • Revealed exceptions to universal genetic code
  • Codon UGA normally specifies termination
    - mtDNA UGA codon encodes tryptophan in yeast and humans
  • Codon AUA normally specifies isoleucine
    - Human mitochondria encodes internal insertion of
    methionine
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12
Q

Explain Overlapping genes

A
  • Single mRNA has multiple initiation points
  • Creates different reading frames
  • Specifies more than one polypeptide
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13
Q

Define ORF: Open Reading Frame

A
  • DNA sequence produces RNA with start and stop
  • Series of triplet codons specify amino acids to make polypeptide
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14
Q

Explain Transcription

A
  • RNA synthesized on DNA template
  • Genetic information stored in DNA is transferred to RNA
  • Serves as intermediate molecule between DNA and proteins
  • Each triplet codon is complementary to anticodon of tRNA
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15
Q

Explain RNA Polymerase

A
  • Enzyme directs synthesis of RNA using DNA template
  • Nucleotides contain ribose, not deoxyribose
  • No primer required for initiation
  • They can start from scratch aka DE NOVO!!!
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16
Q

Define Promoters

A
  • Transcription results in ssRNA
  • Template strand is transcribed
  • Transcription begins with template binding by RNA polymerase at promoter
  • Promoters: Specific DNA sequences in 5′ region upstream of initial transcription point
  • σ subunit responsible for promoter recognition (initiation of transcription)
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17
Q

T/F: Promoters are always upstream to the + site

A

TRUE!!

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18
Q

Pol 2 makes what type of RNA?

19
Q

What happens during the Transcription start site

A
  • DNA double helix is denatured: unwound to make template strand accessible for RNA polymerase
  • Interaction of promoters and RNA polymerase regulates efficiency of transcription
20
Q

What are Consensus sequences?

A

DNA sequences homologous in different genes of same organism

21
Q

What are the 2 consensus sequences of E. coli promoters?

A
  • TTGACA and TATAAT (Pribnow box)
  • Positioned at −35 and −10 with respect to the transcription initiation site
  • (-10) = 10 bases before the start site
22
Q

Explain Chain Elongation

A
  • Ribosomes are added to RNA chain
  • σ subunit dissociates from holoenzyme
  • Elongation proceeds under direction of core enzyme
23
Q

In bacteria, there are 2 type of Terminations involving rho. Explain them

A

Rho-dependent: rho protein binds to RNA sequences and uses ATP hydrolysis to “catch up” with RNA polymerases terminating the transcription

Rho-Independent: “intrinsic termination” meaning signal sequence is on the RNA once it is made.

24
Q

Explain Termination

A
  • Enzyme traverses entire gene
    until a termination nucleotide
    sequence is encountered
  • In bacteria: Termination
    transcribed into RNA causes
    newly formed transcript to fold
    back on itself (hairpin)
  • Rho-dependent termination
    depends on the rho (ρ)
    termination factor
25
Q

Explain Transcription in Eukaryotes

A
  • 3 types of RNA polymerases
  • Occurs within nucleus (unlike prokaryotes)
  • mRNA must leave nucleus for translation
  • Chromatin remodeling: Chromatin must uncoil to make DNA accessible to RNA Pol
  • RNA polymerases rely on transcription factors (TFs) to scan/bind DNA
  • Enhancers and silencers control transcription regulation
  • RNA Pol I,II, and III involved`
26
Q

RNA Pol 1 Product AND Location

A

Product: rRNA

Location: Nucleolus

27
Q

RNA Pol 2 Product and Location

A

Product: mRNA, snRNA

Location: Nucleoplasm

28
Q

RNA Pol 3 Product and Location

A

Product: 5SrRNA and tRNA

Location: Nucleoplasm

29
Q

Give me everything you know about RNA Pol 2 (long answer)

A
  • Responsible for transcription of wide range of genes in
    eukaryotes
  • Activity of RNAP II is dependent on cis-acting elements
    and trans-acting transcription factors
  • RNAP II core-promoter determines where RNAP II binds
    to DNA
  • Regulatory sequences influence efficiency of transcription initiation by RNAP II
    - Proximal-promoter elements
    - Enhancers
    - Silencers
  • TATA box involved here
30
Q

What is the TATA Box?

A
  • Core-promoter element
  • Binds TATA-binding protein (TBP) of transcription factor TFIID: determines start transcription start site
31
Q

Explain Enhancers and Silencers

A
  • Found upstream, within, or downstream of gene
  • Enhancers increase transcription levels; silencers decrease them
  • Modulate transcription from a distance
  • Act to increase or decrease transcription in response to cell’s requirement for gene product
32
Q

Explain Transcription Factors and provide 2 examples

A
  • Transcription factors facilitate RNAP II binding and initiation of transcription

EXAMPLES:
- General transcription factors: Required for all RN
AP II-mediated transcription
- Transcription activators and repressors: Influence efficiency or rate of RNAP II transcription
initiation

33
Q

Cap and Tail

A
  • Eukaryotic mRNAs require processing to produce mature m
    RNAs
  • Posttranscriptional modifications
    * Addition of 5′ cap (7-mG cap)
    * Addition of 3′ tail (poly-A tail)
    * Excision of introns
34
Q

Explain Introns (intervening sequences)

A
  • Regions of initial RNA transcript not expressed in amino acid sequence of protein
  • DNA sequences not represented in final mRNA product
  • Exons are sequence retained and expressed
  • Prokaryotes do not have introns
  • Heteroduplexes: Introns present in DNA but not mRNA loop out
35
Q

Understand Posttranscriptional modifications: Splicing

A
  • Introns are removed by splicing
  • Exons are then joined together in mature mRNA
  • Mature mRNA is smaller than initial RNA
36
Q

Why do we even have introns?

A

Introns give diversity depending on how splicing takes place

Ex.) Hemoglobin and Myoglobin

37
Q

Define Self-Splicing RNAs

A

Self-excision group I introns
occurs in bacteria, lower
eukaryotes, and higher
plants

38
Q

What is Spliceosome and what does the Reaction involve?

A
  • Pre-mRNA introns spliced
    out by spliceosome
  • Reaction involves:
    * Formation of lariat structure
    * Splice donor and acceptor sites
    * Branch point sequence
39
Q

What are the 2 forms of RNA editing?

A

Substitution editing and Insertion/deletion editing

40
Q

Define Substitution editing

A

Identities of individual nucleotide bases are altered; prevalent in mitochondria and chloroplast RNA derived in plants

41
Q

Define Insertion/Deletion editing

A
  • Nucleotides are added/deleted from total number of bases
  • Prevalent in mitochondrial and chloroplast RNAs
42
Q

What does it mean that the genetic code is DEGENERATE?

A
  • Many amino acids are specified by more than one codon
  • Ex.) UCU, UCC, UCA, and UCG all code for Serine
43
Q

What are the only 2 amino acids encoded by a SINGLE codon?

A

Tryptophan and Methionine