Genetic Basis Of Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is a gene?

A

A functional DNA that is used to make a valuable product (RNA or protein)

A factor that controls a phenotype and segregates in pedigrees according to mendels laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an allele?

A

Individual version of a gene of DNA sequence at a locus on a single chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a loci / locus?

A

A unique chromosomal location defining the position of an individual gene or DNA sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do we know a disease has a genetic basis?

A

-If it has a clear Mendelian inheritance pattern (dominant / recessive inheritance pattern)

  • if two people sharing more genetic material with affected people are more likely to have the disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do we know a disease has a genetic basis?

A

-If it has a clear Mendelian inheritance pattern (dominant / recessive inheritance pattern)

  • if two people sharing more genetic material with affected people are more likely to have the disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does it mean if lambda is increased?

A

Increased risk of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the odds ratio?

A

A statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events (A and B)

A with B / A without B

Eg number of people with the allele and with disease / number of people with allele without disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are monogenic conditions?

A

High odds ratio, an allele extremely likely to associate with a disease so effectively sufficient by itself
- caused by a single gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are polygenic conditions?

A

Multiple alleles each with a modest odds ratio (each allele not sufficient to cause condition)
Cumulative effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is polyphagia?

A

Abnormally strong, incessant sensation of hunger or desire to eat, often leading to over eating

Does not subside after eating

Symptom of an underlying medical condition - not a condition itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is obesity defined?

A

Using BMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Equation for BMI? What number would mean obese?

A

Weight / height^2 (kg/m^2)

Obese = >30kg/m^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the beta value / effect size for genetic risk?

A

The effect each allele has on a phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does it mean if:
B > 0
B = 0
B < 0
For genetic risk

A

B > 0 - positive value indicates increased risk
B = 0 - no risk (OR = 1)
B < 0 - negative value indicates reduced risk (protection) OR < 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Polygenic risk score equation? What does each part mean?

A

PRSj - (sum of) Bi * dosage ij
B = risk associated with a particular allele
Dosage = number of each allele the person has (0, 1, 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How to calculate the risk contributed by each allele?

A

B x dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How to calculate the overall risk? (PRS)

A

Polygenic risk score calculated by adding risk for all the alleles

=allele1 (B x dosage) + allele2 (B x dosage) + allele3 (B x dosage) + allele n (B x dosage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a feature of MC4R mutations?

A

Can have opposite effects on obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does GLP-1 do?

A

Helps to regulate blood sugar levels —> makes you feel less hungry and prevent cravings. Also slows the emptying of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do complex diseases result from?

A

The interactions between alleles of several genes, and between genotype and the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens if two loci are close together?

A

Less likely they are to be separated by meiotic recombination over the generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are a and A alleles associated with?

A

A = red
a = blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a SNP?

A

Single nucleotide polymorphism

= DNA base which varies between Individuals in a population

24
Q

What is an effect allele?

A

DNA sequence which causes a particular condition. Eg by altering a protein

25
What happens as the proximity between SNP and effect allele (d) decreases?
More likely to remain linked through generations
26
What is trio analysis?
Describes analysing DNA from an affected child and both their parents
27
What is the standard GWAS for genome testing?
A population containing mostly unrelated people is used to search for loci associated with the disease
28
What mutations are common with neurodevelopmental conditions?
Deleterious de movo mutations Eg autism
29
Phenotype of heterozygote affected?
Dominat
30
Phenotype of heterozygote unaffected?
Recessive
31
Which homozygous is mutant / wild type?
Unaffected = wild type Affected = mutant
32
What does FGFR3 mutation do?
Negative regulatory effect on bone growth
33
What does homozygous lethal mean?
Incompatible with life - many dominant mutations
34
What does autosomal recessive mean?
One copy of gene makes enough of enzyme for function to be normal
35
What is happens when phenylalanine hydroxylase is deficient? What is it?
An enzyme that catalyses hydroxylation of phenylalanine to tyrosine, the rate limiting step in phenylalanine catabolism
36
What can untreated phenylketonuria lead to?
Impaired postnatal cognitive development due to neurotoxic effect pf high Phe levels
37
What do most x linked mutations have?
Recessive phenotypes
38
What is recombination?
At least one crossover event between non-sister chromatids during prophase of meiosis 1
39
What is sickle cell disorder caused by?
Point mutation in the gene encoding B-globin Under low O2 conditions, HbS (haemoglobin sickle) forms long aggregates which distort the shape of red blood cells
40
How does sickle cell disorder treatment work?
1- Cells in bone marrow diseased haemoglobin make red blood cells that are sickle shaped 2- Stem cells extracted 3- Stem cells genetically modified 4- genetically engineered stem cells given 5 - engineered stem cells make healthy fetal haemoglobin and normal red blood cells
41
How does sickle cell disorder treatment work?
1- Cells in bone marrow diseased haemoglobin make red blood cells that are sickle shaped 2- Stem cells extracted 3- Stem cells genetically modified 4- genetically engineered stem cells given 5 - engineered stem cells make healthy fetal haemoglobin and normal red blood cells
42
What causes spinal muscular atrophy?
SMN1 gene (SMN = survival motor neurones) mutation that causes the death of motor neurones, followed by muscle wasting
43
44
What causes achondroplasia? What happens?
FGFR3 gene mutation Negative regulatory effect on bone grown - shortened bones
45
What is the definition of penetrance?
The frequency with which a genotype manifests itself with a given phenotype
46
What is a trait?
An observable characteristic of an individual Eg eye colour, blood group
47
What is primary sex determination?
Determination of the gonads Female karyotype = XX and Male = XY
48
What is secondary sex determination?
Development of male and female sex characteristics - determined by hormones secreted from gonads
49
What does the ovary / testes from form?
Bipotential gonad
50
What two phases does eco day sex determination occur?
Organogenesis and puberty
51
What is the female phenotype?
Absence of gonads and regulated by estrogen - enables development of Müllerian duct
52
What hormoens does the formation of the male phenotype involve? What do they do?
Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) - degeneration of the Müllerian duct Testosterone - differentiation of the wolffian duct into the epidymis, vas deferens and seminal vesicles Development of scortum and penis
53
What are intersex conditions?
Male and female traits seen in the same individual
54
What is androgen insensitivity syndrome?
- XY individuals who have SRY gene - Have testes that make testosterone and AMH - Lack testosterone receptor - Able to respond to estrogen produced by adrenal gland - develop female characteristics
55
What is pseudohermaphroditism?
One type of gonad but the secondary characteristics differ from gonadal sex
56
What is aromatase?
The enzyme that converts testosterone to estradiol Produced by placenta
57