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Generic Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a normal PT time for an adult?

A

9.5-12 seconds

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2
Q

What is a normal digoxin level during digoxin therapy?

A

0.5-2 nanograms/mL

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3
Q

What is a normal BUN level?

A

10-20 mg/dL (below 60 years of age)

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4
Q

What does a high BUN (over 25 mg/dL) indicate?

A

Dehydration

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5
Q

What does a low BUN (less than 8 mg/dL) indicate?

A

Fluid volume overload

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6
Q

What is a normal aPTT time?

A

20-39 seconds

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7
Q

aPTT time is measured during what type of drug therapy?

A

Heparin

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8
Q

What is a normal potassium level?

A

3.5-5.0 meq/L

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9
Q

What are the normal values for calcium?

A

8.5-10.2 mg/dL

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10
Q

What are normal values for magnesium?

A

1.5-2.5 mg/dL

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11
Q

What are normal values for phosphorus?

A

2.7-4.5 mg/dL

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12
Q

What are normal values for serum creatinine?

A

0.7-1.4 mg/dL

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13
Q

What are normal values for WBCs?

A

5,000 - 10,000 cells/mm3

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14
Q

What are normal values for total serum protein?

A

6-8 grams/dL

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15
Q

What does an A1c level of 7% or less indicate in a diabetic?

A

Good control of serum glucose levels

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16
Q

What does an A1c level of 7-8% indicate in diabetics?

A

Fair control of serum glucose

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17
Q

What does an A1c level of 8% or higher indicate diabetics?

A

Poor control of serum glucose

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18
Q

What test is used to monitor warfarin effectiveness?

A

PT time/INR

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19
Q

What is a normal serum amylase level?

A

25-151 units/liter

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20
Q

What happens to serum amylase levels in pancreatitis?

A

They rise

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21
Q

What is a normal HgB level for an adult female?

A

12-16 g/dL

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22
Q

What is a normal platelet count?

A

150,000-400,000 cells/mm3

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23
Q

What vitamin may be lacking in a vegan diet?

A

B12

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24
Q

Why should a pt bear down during parenteral nutrition tubing changes?

A

To prevent air embolism

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25
Q

What position should a pt be in if the nurse suspects an air embolism and why?

A

In left-side laying position with the feet above the head, because the embolism should be trapped in the right side of the heart

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26
Q

What must a patient be assessed for before beginning infusions of fat emulsions?

A

Allergy to eggs

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27
Q

Should the nurse increase the rate of a fat (lipid) emulsion infusion if the infusion falls behind? Why?

A

No because of risk of fat overload or fluid overload

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28
Q

What is a bolus?

A

A single dose given all at once

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29
Q

A nurse comes across a patient with these symptoms: headache, dyspnea, chills, increased pulse rate. He is apprehensive. He has received 600 mL of fluid in 45 minutes. What are these symptoms of? What should the nurse do FIRST?

A

Circulatory overload

Slow the IV infusion

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30
Q

What is the first thing a nurse should do after injecting a medication into the port of an IV bag?

A

Agitate the bag to mix the meds

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31
Q

What does an infiltrated IV site look/feel like?

A

Cool to the touch, swollen, pale

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32
Q

How does the nurse know that an IV needle has successfully entered the vein and it is safe to advance the catheter?

A

Backflash of blood into the chamber of the IV catheter

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33
Q

If the nurse knows that the IV spike end of IV tubing has been contaminated, should she clean the end of the spike or get new tubing?

A

Get new tubing

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34
Q

What should the nurse do in the case of a IV site that has developed phlebitis…should she tell the HCP?
Where should the new IV be restarted?
Should she remove the catheter at the old infected site?
What should be applied to the infected site?

A

Restart the IV in a different vein
Notify the HCP
Remove the catheter
Apply warm compress to speed resolution of the inflammation

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35
Q

A client who is experiencing severe hypotension would require what type of IV fluid solution to quickly increase intravascular volume and increase BP?

A

5% dextrose in lactated ringers (Hypertonic)

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36
Q

A client with a PICC line at home should restrict their activity T or F?

A

T but only minimally

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37
Q

A client discharged to home with a PICC line should wear this type of identifying item.

A

Medic-alert bracelet or tag

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38
Q

How is PICC line placement confirmed?

A

With chest X-ray

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39
Q

What kind of diet do patients with Meniere’s disease require and why?

A

Low-sodium to reduce fluid retention

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40
Q

What is a normal ESR range?

A

0-20 mm/h

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41
Q

High BUN can lead to what symptoms?

A

Confusion and disorientation

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42
Q

What should be done with bullets from forensic cases?

A

They should be wrapped in gauze and put in a cup

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43
Q

What should be done with clothing from a forensic victim?

A

Should be placed in paper bag

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44
Q

What should be done with a patient who is experiencing alchohol withdrawal delirium?

A

Turn on the lights and stay with the patient

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45
Q

Can a nursing assistant remove dead leaves from a plant in a patient’s room?

A

No

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46
Q

Carbamazepine interferes with what type of drug?

A

Oral contraceptives

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47
Q

A patient on furosemide should select which drink and why?

A

Orange juice, because it replaces lost potassium

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48
Q

How is acute glomerulonephritis treated?

A

Antibiotics, diuretics and antihypertensives

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49
Q

A patient with renal failure should be on what type of diet?

A

High protein

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50
Q

Why should procedures be spaced out in a patient with increased ICP?

A

Because excessive stimulation can further increase ICP

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51
Q

What is the average head circumference of a neonate? What might increased circumference indicate?

A

32-36cm; increased circumference may indicate hydrocephaly or increased ICP

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52
Q

The provider should be notified before transfusing PRBC’s if the pt’s temperature is above what?

A

Above 100F

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53
Q

How long must the nurse remain with a client who has just begun a blood transfusion to ensure that a transfusion reaction is not occurring?

A

15 minutes

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54
Q

What class of drug is typically used in alcohol withdrawal?

A

Benzodiazepines

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55
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids can predispose a pt to what condition, and what should be done to prevent this?

A

May increase risk of oral yeast infection; should rinse mouth out with water afterward to prevent

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56
Q

What is a clonidine patch used for and how often should it be changed?

A

It is an anti-hypertensive and should be changed every 7 days

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57
Q

What drug is normally given before cardioversion?

A

Midazolam IV

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58
Q

What do granular casts in a urinalysis indicate?

A

Renal disease

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59
Q

What is the major sign of phlebitis?

A

Area around the IV site will be reddened

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60
Q

What is the most common cause of SIADH?

A

Cancer (esp. lung cancer)

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61
Q

What position should a pt be put into for shock?

A

Should have extremities elevated

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62
Q

Intraocular pressure in glaucoma is higher at what time of day?

A

In the morning

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63
Q

What is a normal PaO2 level?

A

80-100

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64
Q

What should a mother do to prevent spread of the flu when breastfeeding her child?

A

Wear a surgical mask

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65
Q

During which of Erikson’s stages does a child learn to play with others?

A

Industry v. inferiority

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66
Q

Clozapine may have what effect on WBC counts?

A

Decrease them

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67
Q

Fosomax (alendronate) is used to treat what condition?

A

osteoporosis

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68
Q

Clients with this bone disorder are not a good candidate for ECT.

A

Osteoporosis

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69
Q

perseveration

A

repetitive behaviors

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70
Q

What is the use of the drug Methylergonovine?

A

Prevents bleeding after childbirth (postpartum bleeding)

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71
Q

What is the use of the drug Zolpidem?

A

Sedative (for insomnia) brand name Ambien

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72
Q

What is the use of the drug Citalopram?

A

It is an SSRI for depression

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73
Q

What type of drug is Gabapentin? What is its trade name?

A

Gabapentin (Neurontin) is an anti-epileptic.

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74
Q

What is the drug Chlordiazepoxide used for? What is notable about it? What is its drug class? Major side effect?

A

Benzodiazepine (first benzo to be synthesized) – for anxiety and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Major S/E = drowsiness/blurred vision.

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75
Q

What type of drug is Naproxen? What is its use?

A

NSAID for inflammation

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76
Q

What type of drug is disulfram? What is it’s trade name?

A

Antabuse – creates an unpleasant reaction to alcohol.

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77
Q

A burn victim needs a diet that is high in what type of food?

A

Burn victims need high protein diet.

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78
Q

T/F Lupus is an autoimmune disease.

A

True Lupus is an autoimmune disease. (Chronic, systemic).

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79
Q

What type of tissue is affected by the inflammatory disease LuPus

A

Connective Tissue (Skin, joints, membranes, kidneys, CNS)

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80
Q

What are some medications that may be used with Lupus, and why?
(3)

A

Corticosteroids - reduce inflammation
Immunosuppressive (Cyclophosphamide, azathioprine)
Acetominophen - discomfort

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81
Q

At what level of digoxin in the blood is considered digoxin poisoning/dig tox?

A

> 2 ng/mL

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82
Q

What is the distinguishing symptom of Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

The body shows pain and color changes of the extremities when exposed to cold

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83
Q

Raynaud’s phenomenon is a symptom of what chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease?

A

Lupus erythematosus

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84
Q

What type of animal carries the hantavirus?

A

Rodents (rats)

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85
Q

What type of symptoms does hantavirus cause?

A

Fatigue, fever and muscle aches

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86
Q

A person who takes ginkgo balboa extract and coumadin is at risk for what problem? Why?

A

Hemmorhage - ginkgo is used to increase circulation, and it may act as an anticoagulant.

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87
Q

How is Hepatitis A Virus transmitted?

A

fecal-oral.

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88
Q

What two types of Hepatitus are transmitted via the fecal-oral route?

A

HepA, HepE are both transmitted by oral-fecal contact.

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89
Q

What types of hepatitis are transmitted via blood/body fluids?

A

HepB, HepC, HepD are transmitted via body fluids.

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90
Q

What two types of hepatitis co-infect?

A

B and D are transmitted together.

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91
Q

What type of hepatitis is non-infectious?

A

Toxic hepatitis

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92
Q

What is the most prominent symptom of myesthenia gravis?

A

muscle weakeness

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93
Q

At what point should the nurse handle/touch a client’s radium implant?

A

Never

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94
Q

What warrants the use of contact precautions?

A

Stool incontinence, draining wounds, uncontrolled secretions, pressure ulcers, ostomy bags, presence of rash

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95
Q

dyscrasia meaning

A

disorder

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96
Q

Haloperidol (Haldol) is a typical or atypical antipsychotic?

A

Typical

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97
Q

Dexamethasone falls into what drug class?

A

corticosteroid

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98
Q

Normal hemoglobin level for adult male?

A

13-18

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99
Q

Normal values AST/ALT?

A

8-40 units

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100
Q

T/F Pulse pressure is affected by morphine sulfate.

A

FALSE

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101
Q

When should a PKU test be performed on an infant?

A

Ideally 2 days after birth; as close to discharge as possible.

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102
Q

Urinary frequency [INCREASES/DECREASES] with age.

A

increases d/t reduced bladder capacity.

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103
Q

Nocturia occurs as one ages because of what reason?

A

Decreased ability to concentrate urine increases urine formation.

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104
Q

Chlorpromazine is an antiemetic/antipsychotic that is contraindicated when treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms; why?

A

May decrease blood pressure, lower seizure threshold.

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105
Q

Promethazine (antipsychotic) extravasion will have what serious effect on tissue?

A

Necrosis

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106
Q

What is the test for Trousseau’s sign? What does this test for?

A

Apply BP cuff, inflate it; lack of blood supply will cause muscles of hand and forearm to contract because of the patient’s hypocalcemia.

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107
Q

Hyperthyroidism can be caused by what immune disorder?

A

Graves’ disease

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108
Q

Diabetes insipidus is characterized by what circulatory issue?

A

Excessive fluid loss

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109
Q

The “eternal tan” hyperpigmentation is a symptom of what hormonal insufficiency?

A

Addison’s (adrenal insufficiency)

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110
Q

At what age range does a child begin to gain control of sphincter muscles? Cu

A

18-24 months

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111
Q

19-35 year olds are considered to be in what psychosocial stage?

A

Intimacy versus isolation

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112
Q

Adolescents are considered to be in what psychosocial stage?

A

Identity versus identity diffusion

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113
Q

Cushing’s syndrome is also known as…?

A

Hypercortisolism

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114
Q

Cortisol is naturally released from the adrenal gland in response to what two factors?

A

Stress, low blood glucose.

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115
Q

What is the primary purpose of CBI?

A

Prevent clots from forming.

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116
Q

Regular insulin is also known as ___1_____-acting, and it’s onset is at _2__ - __3__ minutes. It’s peak is at __4__ - __5__ hours.

A

1) Short- acting
2) 30 minutes
3) 60 minutes
4) 2 hours
5) 4 hours.

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117
Q

Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the __________ ____. It’s primary symptom is ______.

A

Inner ear, vertigo

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118
Q

Why are restraints ordered after a child undergoes cleft lip/cleft palate repair?

A

To prevent child from rubbing/disturbing the suture line.

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119
Q

Normally, cerebrospinal fluid should appear what color?

A

Clear, colorless (NOT cloudy)

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120
Q

Normal hematocrit level?

A

35-52%

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121
Q

What is the purpose of a Miller-Abbot tube?

A

Intestinal decompression; allows fluid and air to escape

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122
Q

Patients taking lithium must be careful to monitor their intake of what electrolyte? Why?

A

Sodium. Sodium depletion will cause lithium retention, leading to toxicity.

123
Q

[HYPERTENSION/HYPOTENSION] is characteristic of autonomic dysreflexia? What are other symptoms seen with autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Hypertension (pulse slows, bp increases, severe headache, diaphoresis, nasal congestion and gooseflesh)

124
Q

What can be a cause of autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Bladder spasm due to overfilling of the bladder

125
Q

What should be done for a vein with phlebitis?

A

Remove IV catheter and apply warm soak.

126
Q

When are antacids most effective?

A

Taken after a meal

127
Q

What type of drug is ethnacryic acid?

A

A loop diuretic

128
Q

Loop diuretics are potassium wasting or potassium sparing?

A

Potassium wasting (client should eat potassium rich food)

129
Q

How soon after poisoning should charcoal be ingested?

A

1 hour or less. (NOT after more than an hour)

130
Q

Cool, clammy skin and tachypnea may be signs of _______?

A

shock

131
Q

A client being treated for VTE should ambulate 1 x per shift. T / F?

A

False - should be on bedrest

132
Q

What is the purpose of the drug pentamidine iesthionate?

A

treat pneumonia (often in AIDS clients)

133
Q

Clients taking MAOIs should not eat what type of delicious tasty food?

A

Cheese - may cause hypertensive crisis

134
Q

What is normal serum lithium level?

A

1.0 - 1.5

135
Q

Nystatin (antifungal) should be swished in the mouth and then spit out, or swallowed?

A

swallowed

136
Q

Side effects of prednisone?

A

Hyperglycemia

Fluid retention

137
Q

Jews don’t mix what two foods?

A

meat and milk (dairy)

138
Q

Salt substitutes contain what element?

A

Potassium

139
Q

People taking ACE inhibitors should avoid what element?

A

potassium

140
Q 
Streptococcal pharyngitis
Mumps
Pneumonia
meningitis caused by influence type B
Respiratory viruses
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Influenza & Parainfluenza
Bordatella/Pertussis 1st 24 hours

All require what type of precautions?

A

DROPLET

141
Q

Measles
TB
Chicken pox (until lesions are crusted over)
Herpes zoster (in AIDS pt)

All require what type of precautions?

A

AIRBORNE

142
Q

How often trach care?

A

q8 or as needed

143
Q

Indicators for need for trach care? (3)

A

Secretions on the dressing
Loose/soiled ties that secure the dressing
Dry/Excessive secretions at the site

144
Q

Deflate or Inflate a tracheostomy cuff before eating? Why?

A

Deflate the cuff before eating - make it easier to swallow

145
Q

What is an important point to consider when eating with a tracheostomy tube?

A

Deflate the cuff to facilitate swallowing - but also might cause aspiration.

146
Q

What is the use of dopamine for blood pressure?

A

Increases Cardiac output by causing more intense contractions. Indirectly increases BP

147
Q 
Legumes
Whole grains 
Oranges, bananas
Green leafy vegetables
Broccoli
Potatoes
Meat

These foods are high in ____________.

A 
Potassium:
Legumes
Whole grains 
Oranges, bananas
Green leafy vegetables
Broccoli
Potatoes
Meat
148
Q

Risk factors for prostate cancer include (3)?

A

Age – 50+
Race – African american
Employment – exposure to carcinogens

149
Q

A catatonic patient whose limbs remain in a position in which they are placed is experiencing ____ _________.

A

Waxy flexibility

150
Q

What type of skin condition may respond to UV therapy?

A

Psoriasis

151
Q

What is plasmapheresis? What is it used for? What should be present at the bedside?

A

Seperation of plasma from the cells of blood. The plasma can contain antibodies that are attacking the immune system. Purpose is to remove that infected plasma and replace it with a plasma substitute. Used for Guillan Barre. Have warm blankets available for hypothermia.

152
Q

Which inhaler should be used first? Albuterol or Beclomethasone? Why?

A

1) Albuterol = bronchodilator
2) Beclomethasone = steroid
Use albuterol first so it can open up the airways, allowing in the steroid medication

153
Q

What class of drug is cimetidine?
What is it’s MOA?
What is it used for?

A

Histamine (H2) Blocker
Inhibits stomach acid production
for GERD

154
Q

Disulfiram can cause a reaction to alcohol even if the alcohol is not consumed. T/F?

A

True - avoid contact with alcohol in all forms, even inhalation or skin contact with alcohol containing products (Paint)

155
Q

Chadwick’s sign indicates what condition?

A

Pregnancy (bluish color to vagina, cervix, and labia resulting from increased blood flow)

156
Q

What is the formula of the Naegele rule for calculating EDC?

A

Add 7 days to first day of last menstrual period. Then subtract 3 months.

157
Q

A client’s last menstrual period was May 8 to May 12. When is her estimated date of confinement?

A

Feb 15.

158
Q

Normal Urine specific gravity

A

1.010 - 1.030

159
Q

Beta blockers are MORE or LESS effective in African-Americans?

A

Less effective

160
Q

Diuretics are MORE or LESS effective in African-Americans?

A

More effectie

161
Q

Lactated ringer’s is ISOTONIC, HYPOTONIC, or HYPERTONIC?

A

Isotonic (used as volume expander)

162
Q

10% dextrose in water is ISOTONIC, HYPOTONIC, or HYPERTONIC?

A

hypertonic solution, used to wean clients of PN

163
Q

How to calculate BPM from an EKG strip?

A

1,500/# of boxes between R-R wave

164
Q

On an EKG strip, how many small boxes equals 1 minute?

A

1,500 small boxes

165
Q

What effect can garlic have on blood sugar?

A

Can act to cause Hypoglycemic episode

166
Q

When is the best time to take an antacid?

A

1 hour after meals to prevent epigastric pain

167
Q

Caffeine, alcohol, and spicy foods will have what effect on gastric secretions?

A

Increase gastric secretions

168
Q

What is the hallmark of aseptic technique?

A

Handwashing

169
Q

A patient in a cast who complains of pain unrelieved by medication may be experiencing ______ _______

A

compartment syndrome

170
Q

Compartment syndrome involves?

A

Lack of blood flow to extremities d/t increased pressure

171
Q

What is the effect of atypical antipsychotics on WBC count?

A

May cause leukopenia

172
Q

A 3 day old infant should have a bilirubin level of what?

A

15 mg/dL or less

173
Q 
Green Leafy Vegetables
Coffee, Tea
Fish
Liver
These foods are high in what vitamin?
A

Vitamin K

174
Q

Anticoagulant medications act by antagonizing the effects of what Vitamin?

A

K (needed for clotting)

175
Q

First recognition of fetal movements occurs at how many weeks of gestation? (range)

A

14-18 weeks

176
Q

Foods high in potassium

A

Oranges
Kiwi
Banana
Cantaloupe

177
Q

Normal newborn head circumference

A

33-35 cm

178
Q

Normal newborn chest circumference

A

30.5 - 33 cm

179
Q

Newborn heart rate

A

120-180 bmp

180
Q

Newborn resp rate

A

30-60 breaths per minute

181
Q

Should the anterior fontanelle of a newborn bulge at rest?

A

No - may indicate increased ICP. May bulge when newborn is crying

182
Q

What 2 minerals are regulated by the parathyroid gland?

A

Calcium and phosphorus

183
Q

The _______ gland secretes PTH, which causes calcium to be released from bones.

A

parathyroid gland

184
Q

Aldosterone, cortisol, and sex hormones are all secreted by what gland?

A

Adrenal gland (adrenal cortex)

185
Q

Aldosterone causes BP to ________.

A

Aldosterone causes BP to INCREASE.

186
Q

Aldosterone causes resorption of ______ and _____; and loss of _______.

A

Aldosterone causes resorption of WATER and SALT; and loss of POTASSIUM.

187
Q

Cortisol will have what effect on blood sugar?

A

Increase blood sugar

188
Q

Cortisol will have what effect on proteins?

A

Protein breakdown

189
Q

Graves’ is associated with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism?

A

Hyperthyroidism (bulgy eyes)

190
Q

Myxedema is associated with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism?

A

Hypothyroid (hard, nonpitting edema)

191
Q

Cushing’s disease is caused by adrenal [HYPERFUNCTION/HYPOFUNCTION].

A

HYPERfunction

192
Q

Addison’s disease is caused by adrenal [HYPERFUNCTION/HYPOFUNCTION].

A

HYPOfunction.

193
Q

amytriptyline

A

MAOI

194
Q

The onset of rapid acting insulin is ___ to ___ min.

A

5-15

195
Q

The peak of short acting insulin is ___ to ___ min.

A

30-60

196
Q

The peak of intermediate acting insulin is ____ to ____ hours.

A

6-12 hours.

197
Q

The peak of long acting insulin is ___ to ____ hours.

A

3-14

198
Q

Precautions for disseminated herpes zoster

A

airborne until lesions have crusted over

199
Q

Precautions for TB

A

airborne

200
Q

Precautions for chickenpox

A

airborne until lesions have crusted over

201
Q

Precautions for measles (rubeola)

A

airborne

202
Q

Precautions for Respiratory viruses

A

droplet

203
Q

Precautions for influenza

A

droplet

204
Q

Precautions for bordetella pertussa

A

droplet

205
Q

Precautions for group A strep

A

droplet for first 24 hours

206
Q

Precautions for acute bacterial meningitis

A

droplet

207
Q

Precautions for Legionaire’s

A

standard

208
Q

Precautions for pneumococcal meningitis

A

standard

209
Q

Precautions for infections mononucleosis

A

standard

210
Q

The placenta partially or totally covers the opening in the mother’s cervix. S/s include painless vaginal bleeding and a soft, nontender uterus.

A

Placenta previa

211
Q

The placenta separates from its attachment to the uterine wall. S/s include vaginal bleeding, uterine hypertonicity, contractions, and abdominal pain.

A

Placenta abruptio

212
Q

Airborne precautions should be used for what infections?

A

Measles (rubeola)
TB
Chicken pox (until lesions are crusted over)
Herpes zoster (in AIDS pt)

213
Q

Put the steps of trach care in order.

  • Suction inner cannula
  • reassess the respiratory status
  • Explain the procedure.
  • clean around the stoma, and under trach faceplate.
  • Elevate HOB
  • Remove soiled dressing
  • Observe stoma for signs of inflammation/infection
  • Apply new dressing
  • Document (COCA)
  • Oral care
  • Prepare trach care kit
  • remove inner cannula, clean it if non-disposable
  • APPly the new holder, THEN REMOVE THE OLD ONE
  • Dry the inner cannula, reinsert it
  • replace ties or tube holder
  • place 2 fingers underneath the strap for sizing, secure
A

1) Explain the procedure
2) Elevate HOB
3) Suction inner cannula
4) Remove soiled dressing
5) Prepare trach care kit
6) remove inner cannula, clean it if non-disposable
7) Dry the inner cannula, reinsert it
8) clean around the stoma, and under trach faceplate
9) Observe stoma for signs of inflammation/infection
10) replace ties or tube holder
11) place 2 fingers underneath the strap for sizing, secure
12) APPly the new holder, THEN REMOVE THE OLD ONE
13) Apply new dressing
14) reassess the respiratory status
15) Oral care
16) Document (COCA)

214
Q

What are normal values for neutrophils?

A

1,800-7,800 cells/mm3

215
Q

During the transition phase of labor, the cervix should be dilated by how many cm?

A

8-10 cm

216
Q

During the transition phase of labor, contractions should last ___ to ____ seconds. They should occur _____ to ____ minutes apart.

A

During the transition phase of labor, contractions should last 45 to 90 seconds. They should occur 1.5 to 2 minutes apart.

217
Q

Stage 2 of labor begins when….?

A

The cervix is fully dilated (10cm).

218
Q

Stage 3 of labor begins when ….?

A

Birth occurs

219
Q

The placenta is delivered during what stage of labor?

A

3

220
Q

During the active phase of labor, the cervix is dilated how many cm?

A

4-7cm

221
Q

Late decelerations indicate what for the baby?

A

uteroplacental deficiency

222
Q

Variable decelerations indicate what for the baby?

A

cord compression

223
Q

What is a typical cause of acute glomerulonephritis?

A

Group A Strep

224
Q

A client with acute glomerulonephritis requires what type of diet?

A

High calorie, low protein

225
Q

By looking at a patient’s EKG, how would you know they have 1st degree heart block?

A

Ekg will show a PR interval > than 0.2 seconds (slow conductivity.)

226
Q

During 3rd degree heart block, what percent of atrial impulses are prevented from reaching the ventricles?

A

100% (all atrial impulses do not reach the ventricles)

227
Q

What is the cause of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

increased ammonia in the blood

228
Q

What medication is given in the case of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Antibiotics to decrease serum ammonia levels

229
Q

A client who has returned from a liver biopsy should be on bedrest for how long? And how should they be positioned?

A

24 hours bedrest

Position R lateral

230
Q 
Nausea/vomiting
Slurred speech
Muscle weakness
Diarrhea
Thirst
EARLY/LATE signs of lithium toxicity?
A

early signs

231
Q 
Coarse hand tremors
Persistent GI upset
Mental confusion
Incoordination/ataxia
EARLY/LATE signs of lithium toxicity?
A

Late signs

232
Q

Mild thirst
Find hand tremor
Polyuria
EARLY/LATE signs of lithium toxicity

A

trick question these are expected side effects of lithium

233
Q

Cardiac patients prescribed digoxin should not have what type of horrible candy

A

licorice

234
Q

Stridor breath sounds indicate…

A

obstruction of upper airway (Loud, harsh high pitched crowing sound)

235
Q

Stridor breath sounds can be heard without a stethoscope true or false?

A

true

236
Q

Crackles upon auscultation indicate…?

A

fluid in small airways, atelectasis

237
Q

Wheezes upon auscultation indicate…?

A

Partial airway obstruction, constriction, swelling of airway

238
Q

What is the cure for eclampsia?

A

delivery of the fetus

239
Q

A distended bladder puts a postpartum woman at risk for what?

A

Hemmhorage

240
Q

T/F an episiotomy is a risk factor for postpartum hemmorhage.

A

False

241
Q

Name the cranial nerves.

A 
I. Olfactory
II. Optic
III. Oculomotor
IV. Trochlear
V. Trigeminal
VI. Abducens
VII. Facial
VIII. Auditory (Vestibulocochlear)
IX. Glossopharyngeal
X. Vagus
XI. Accessory (Spinal accessory)
XII. Hypoglossal
242
Q

Math, speech skills, and analytical thinking are controlled by the right or the left side of the brain?

A

Left

243
Q

Control of impulsive behavior is a function of the right or the left side of the brain?

A

Right

244
Q

Orientation to person, place and time is a function of the right or the left side of the brain?

A

Right

245
Q

A postpartum client must receive WHAT before an epidural to counteract the effects of vasodilation?

A

Fluid bolus (Then the epidural should be given within one hour).

246
Q

Turning a pregnant woman to the RIGHT or LEFT increases placental perfusion?

A

Left

247
Q

What is the best way for infants with congenital heart deformities to receive nutrition? Why?

A

With least amount of effort (so Bottle > Breast) because they are weak and fatigue easily

248
Q

Metoclopramide Hcl has what action on the stomach?

A

Causes increased gastric motility and faster emptying; can treat heartburn

249
Q

Bladder infections typically caused by what type of bacteria?

A

E. coli

250
Q

Bell’s Palsy is caused by damage to which cranial nerve?

A

VII. Facial

251
Q

Treatment for Bell’s Palsy includes application of heat to the affected side. T/F?

A

True

252
Q

Activated charcoal is given with diet soda and not milk or ice cream; why is this?

A

Dairy binds to the activated charcoal.

253
Q

Small pits in the fingernail plate is a sign of what skin issue?

A

Psoriasis

254
Q

Horizontal depressions in the nail plate of about 1 mm width indicate….?

A

Temporary illness, injury, or isolated periods of severe malnutrition

255
Q

Spoon shaped nails signify what type of nutritional deficiency?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

256
Q

The angle of the nail plate and nail fold that has straightened beyond 160 degrees indicates what issue?

A

Clubbing - a sign of hypoxia

257
Q

Cheyne-Stokes breathing can be described how?

A

Periods of apnea alternated with periods of hyperpnea (Caused by damage to respiratory control center)

258
Q

Hyperpnea can be described how? In what 2 situations may hyperpnea be seen?

A

Rapid, deep respirations. Diabetic ketoacidosis, metabolic acidosis

259
Q

Multiple myeloma is caused by the excess production of what type of cell? What damage does this cause?

A

Too much plasma cells

Causes destruction to Bone and bone marrow products

260
Q

Patients with multiple myeloma should not receive what type of imaging study?

A

Nuclear scan (Causes false-negative results)

261
Q

Dyspnea, S3, and dry, nonproductive cough indicate R or L sided heart failure?

A

Left (pulmonary congestion)

262
Q

Dependant edema, distended jugular veins, and weight gain indicate R or L sided heart failure?

A

Right (backup of circulation)

263
Q

What type of injury causes flail chest? What does it indicate.

A

Section of the rib cage broken off from chest wall (2 or more fractures). Indicates underlying pulmonary contusion.

264
Q

What is the definition of a pneumothorax?

A

collapsed lung caused by air in the pleural cavity

265
Q

The diet of atherosclerosis patients

A

low fat, low cholesterol

266
Q

The diet of burns patients

A

high protein diet

267
Q

The diet of cirrhosis patients

A

sodium-restricted

268
Q

The diet of chronic renal failure patients

A

Renal diet

269
Q

The diet of constipated patients

A

high fiber; high roughage

270
Q

The diet of GI distress patients

A

low residue; full liquid; or clear liquid

271
Q

The diet of hyperthyroid patients

A

high protein

272
Q

the diet of heart failure patients

A

sodium restricted

273
Q

The diet of hypertensive patients

A

sodium restricted

274
Q

The diet of infection patients

A

high protein

275
Q

Identify the diet

Unsalted vegetables, white rice, canned fruit, sweets

A

Renal diet (excludes beans, cereal, or citrus fruit)

276
Q

Identify the diet

Egg, roast beef, milk

A

High protein (no soda and junk food)

277
Q

Identify the diet

Baked chicken, lettuce with tomatoes, applesauce

A

Sodium restricted (excludes preserved meat, cheese, canned food, added salt)

278
Q

Identify the diet

Fruit, vegetables, cereals, and lean meat

A

Low fat, cholesterol restricted (excludes marbled meats, avocado, milk, bacon, egg yolk, butter)

279
Q

Normal daily water intake should be how many mL?

A

1800-2500

280
Q

Green leafy vegetables are sources of what? (6)

A 
Vitamin A
E
K
Calcium
Potassium
Iron
281
Q

Consumption of raw shellfish is a risk factor for what type of hepatitis?

A

A

282
Q

Normal T cell count?

A

500-1000

283
Q

What is the purpose of nebulizer treatments?

A

Nebulizers improve oxygenation status for COPD patients.

284
Q

COPD patients should have an apnea alarm True or False.

A

False - apnea is not a problem for COPD patients.

285
Q

What type of drug is MANNITOL?

A

Osmotic diuretic

286
Q

What type of drug is digitalis?

A

Cardiac glycoside (like digoxin)

287
Q

When performing postural drainage on a patient, their head should be placed how?

A

In a dependant position.

288
Q

Blood products should be given through what gauge needle?

A

20 gauge

289
Q

What items are needed to initiate blood administration?

A

20 gauge needle
BP cuff
thermometer
Filtered piggyback tubing

290
Q

Bismuth salicylate has what effect on other PO medications?

A

absorbs them

291
Q

Butorphanol is what type of drug?

A

opioid agonist- antagonist

292
Q

The bulge test assesses for presence of fluid in the….?

A

knee. Client should lay down and extend legs

293
Q

A myelogram is a procedure where dye is injected into the ? to assess for ?

A

Spinal cord/vertebral column

Spinal lesions

294
Q

A cheif complaint should be recorded in the clients own words. T/F?

A

true (use quotes) “My stomach hurts after dinner.”

295
Q

Is milk allowed on a salt restricted diet?

A

Yes

296
Q

Prenatal vitamins should be taken with what drink? Why?

A

Orange juice, because the acidity increases the absorbtion of iron.

297
Q

phenelzine sulfate

A

MAOI

298
Q

tranylcipromine sulfate

A

MAOI

299
Q

what does calcium gluconate treat?

A

calcium defiency, magnesium overdose, rickets, lead colic, black widow bites

300
Q

What is a concern when administering calcium gluconate?

A

Extravasion - severe chemical burn

301
Q

Oxytocin should alsways be a primary or secondary infusion?

A

secondry controlled by pump

302
Q

Precautions for RSV

A

Contact

303
Q

Droplet precautions should be used for what infections?

A 
Streptococcal pharyngitis
Mumps
Pneumonia
meningitis caused by influence type B
Respiratory viruses
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Influenza & Parainfluenza
Bordatella/Pertussis 1st 24 hours
304
Q

The diet of cystic fibrosis patients

A

low fat, low cholesterol

NCLEX (5 decks)

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