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Question 1

Failure to sign return – IRC § 6695(b):
Penalty is $50 for each failure of a tax preparer to sign a tax return or refund claim (maximum penalty 27,000 in calendar year 2022).

For returns filed in calendar year 2023, the penalty is $55 // $28,000.
For returns filed in calendar year 2024, the penalty is $60 // $30,000.
For returns filed in calendar year 2025, the penalty is $60 // $31,500.

Question 2

A non-enrolled tax preparer
(those who are not an EA, CPA, or attorney), may only represent a taxpayer in front of the IRS
for a tax return
you have completed and signed.

As an enrolled agent, you can absolutely represent a client before the IRS,
regardless of who prepared their return(s).

Question 3

20. Which of the following statements is true regarding rejected electronic filed returns?
    A. The ERO must notify the taxpayer within 48 hours if they can’t fix the reason for the rejection
    B. The ERO only needs to provide the taxpayer an explanation of the rejection
    C. To timely file the return, the taxpayer must file the paper return by the later of the due date of the
    return or ten calendar days after the notification of rejection
    D. Taxpayers do not need to include any explanation with the paper return, as to why it is being filed
    after the due date

Answer 3

C. To timely file the return, the taxpayer must file the paper return by the later of the due date of the
return or ten calendar days after the notification of rejection

Question 4

Claims for Refund
19. To avoid the accuracy-related penalty for substantial understatement,
which of the following is a type of authority that may be relied upon by the taxpayer to show substantial authority?

A. www.irs.gov
B. Treasury regulations
C. IRS Forms
D. IRS Publications

Answer 4

B. Treasury regulations

Question 5

18. If a taxpayer + IRS fail to settle a
    non-docketed examination controversy
    in the IRS Independent Office of Appeals,
    the next event to occur is:

A. Issuance of a notice of deficiency
B. Issuance of notice and demand for payment
C. Referral of the case to the Taxpayer Advocate Service
D. Return of the case to the assigned Revenue Agent for further review

Answer 5

A. Issuance of a notice of deficiency

Question 6

Which of the below statements is correct regarding complaints for the sanctioning of a practitioner, employer, firm, appraiser, or other entity
for violations of the
regulations governing practice
before the Internal Revenue Service?

A. A United States Tax Court judge oversees proceedings regarding the complaint
B. In general, discovery may be permitted at the discretion of an Administrative Law Judge
C. Within 30 days of receipt of the answer, the presiding judge will notify the parties of the right to
request discovery and the timeframe for filing a request
D. The complaint can only be served on the respondent in person by a designated employee of the
Internal Revenue Service

Answer 6

B. In general, discovery may be permitted at the discretion of an Administrative Law Judge

Question 7

16. When advertising their services, an enrolled agent may use which one of the following phrases to describe their professional designation?
    A. Certified to practice before the Internal Revenue Service
    B. Admitted to practice before the Internal Revenue Service
    C. Enrolled as a representative of the Internal Revenue Service
    D. Licensed to practice before the Internal Revenue Service

Answer 7

B. Admitted to practice before the Internal Revenue Service

Question 8

15. An enrolled agent’s written communications with a client may be privileged
    if they concern:

A. A criminal tax investigation
B. Preparing the client’s tax return
C. Representing the client in an IRS examination
D. Encouraging the client to participate in a tax shelter

Answer 8

C. Representing the client in an IRS examination

Question 9

An EA’s client is an individual who is requesting assistance with a proposed penalty.

Which of the following is a method of contesting the penalty?

A. Prior to a penalty’s assessment and before any request for relief has been denied, or a 30-day letter has been issued, the EA can request a conference with the IRS Independent Office of Appeals
B. Prior to a penalty’s assessment, the EA can request binding arbitration to reconsider the penalty
C. Before the penalty has been assessed, the EA can submit a written request for penalty abatement
D. After the penalty has been assessed and paid, the EA can file a claim for refund with the IRS

Answer 9

D. After the penalty has been assessed and paid, the EA can file a claim for refund with the IRS

Question 10

A taxpayer received a notice from the IRS stating a prior year’s tax return had been examined and that an adjustment was made increasing the amount of tax by $2,560.

The taxpayer disagrees with the adjustment.

Under which situation could the taxpayer request an audit reconsideration?

A. The full amount owed has already been paid
B. The taxpayer has not discovered any new documentation for IRS Exam to consider
C. The taxpayer did not appear for the examination or did not send information to the IRS
D. The taxpayer moved but received the examination notice

Answer 10

C. The taxpayer did not appear for the examination or did not send information to the IRS

Question 11

A new client visits an EA.
The taxpayer believes that the U.S. tax system is purely voluntary + filed a return showing 0 income tax, requesting all withholding be refunded.
The IRS assessed a $5,000 frivolous return penalty.
The taxpayer received a
Notice of Intent to Levy and Right to Collection Due Process (CDP) hearing
concerning the $5,000 penalty.
The taxpayer wants the EA to present the previous arguments about the
tax system in the CDP hearing request.
Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the CDP hearing request raising arguments
previously deemed frivolous?

A. Filing the CDP request will suspend any levies while the IRS Independent Office of Appeals considers the request
B. The EA would not be subject to a frivolous submission penalty by submitting the CDP hearing request
C. Since a $5,000 frivolous return penalty has been assessed, a second penalty cannot be assessed for the same tax period
D. If the IRS provides the taxpayer with notice that the CDP request is frivolous, the taxpayer will be
given 30 days to withdraw or amend the CDP request to avoid a frivolous submission penalty

Answer 11

D. If the IRS provides the taxpayer with notice that the CDP request is frivolous, the taxpayer will be
given 30 days to withdraw or amend the CDP request to avoid a frivolous submission penalty

Question 12

11. An enrolled agent (EA) may represent a taxpayer:

A. At conferences or meetings with the IRS Examination Division
B. Only if the EA prepared the return under examination
C. At all tax-related federal court proceedings
D. Before the Taxpayer Advocate Service and the Tax Court

Answer 12

A. At conferences or meetings with the IRS Examination Division

Question 13

10. Which of the following tasks may be performed by an enrolled agent on behalf of his or her client?

A. Prepare and file a suit for refund in United States District Court
B. Prepare and sign a United States Tax Court petition to contest a notice of deficiency
C. Prepare and sign a protest to challenge examination results in the IRS Independent Office of Appeals
D. Prepare and file a bankruptcy petition in United States Bankruptcy Court due to unpaid tax balances

Answer 13

C. Prepare and sign a protest to challenge examination results in the IRS Independent Office of Appeals

Question 14

9. The IRS may accept an Offer in Compromise filed by the taxpayer or their representative under which of the conditions below?

A. The taxpayer’s tax debt might not be accurate
B. All the taxpayer’s liabilities have been referred to the Department of Justice for prosecution or
defense
C. The taxpayer has filed Chapter 13 bankruptcy
D. The taxpayer failed to file all legally required tax returns before the offer is submitted

Answer 14

A. The taxpayer’s tax debt might not be accurate

Question 15

. For the IRS to grant a guaranteed installment agreement, a taxpayer must have not failed to file any income tax returns or pay any tax shown on such returns during any of the preceding:

A. 3 taxable years
B. 5 taxable years
C. 6 taxable years
D. 10 taxable years

Answer 15

B. 5 taxable years

Question 16

7. An enrolled agent prepared an individual income tax return for a taxpayer with a balance due of
   $25,597. The taxpayer is not able to pay the entire amount upon filing and would like to set up an
   installment agreement. Which of the following statements are correct about this agreement?

A. Since the taxpayer owed more than $25,000 the taxpayer may not apply online
B. The taxpayer will not be charged a user fee to set up this installment agreement
C. The taxpayer must be in filing compliance
D. The taxpayer will not be charged interest and penalties while making installment payments

Answer 16

C. The taxpayer must be in filing compliance

Question 17

6. An enrolled agent (EA) is in the process of representing a taxpayer before the Internal Revenue
   Service for a tax matter involving a tax return the taxpayer filed claiming married filing jointly with her
   former husband. The taxpayer’s former husband also asked the EA to represent him for the same
   matter. Which of the following is true regarding the EA representing them both?

A. The EA must notify the Office of Professional Responsibility that the EA will be representing both
taxpayers
B. Each taxpayer only needs to provide consent verbally, if the EA documents the day consent was given
C. The EA must reasonably believe that the EA will be able to provide competent and diligent
representation to both taxpayers
D. Confirmation of a conflict of interest must be made within 60 days from the time of consent by both
Taxpayers

Answer 17

C. The EA must reasonably believe that the EA will be able to provide competent and diligent
representation to both taxpayers

Question 18

5. To meet due diligence requirements, which of the following is true regarding the Earned Income
   Credit Worksheet and Form 8867?

A. A record must be kept of how, when, and from whom the information used to prepare the Form
8867 and the Worksheets was obtained
B. Form 8867 does not need to be filed with the return if all information used to complete the form was
provided by the taxpayer in writing
C. A record of any questions the taxpayer may have asked the tax preparer about their eligibility for the credits should be retained
D. Copies of documents provided by the taxpayer that the return preparer relied on to determine the
eligibility for the credits do not need to be retained by the preparer

Answer 18

A. A record must be kept of how, when, and from whom the information used to prepare the Form
8867 and the Worksheets was obtained

Question 19

4. A taxpayer filed an appeal of an IRS examination and then signed Form 8821, Tax Information
   Authorization, authorizing an enrolled agent (EA) to receive the taxpayer’s confidential tax information related to the matter before the Independent Office of Appeals. Which of the following is correct regarding the EA’s ability to represent the taxpayer regarding the appeal?

A. The EA may represent the client based on the Form 8821
B. The EA may represent the client with the oral consent of the client
C. The EA may represent the client with a note attached to Form 8821
D. The EA may not represent the client based on the Form 8821

Answer 19

D. The EA may not represent the client based on the Form 8821

Question 20

3. How many future years will the IRS record to the Centralized Authentication File (CAF) at the
   taxpayer’s request based on receipt of a valid Form 2848 authorizing representation for tax years or
   periods?

A. December 31 of year of receipt + 1 year
B. December 31 of year of receipt + 2 years
C. December 31 of year of receipt + 3 years
D. December 31 of year of receipt + 4 years

Answer 20

C. December 31 of year of receipt + 3 years

Question 21

2. Which of the following from Circular 230 is correct regarding sanctions against an enrolled agent (EA)?

A. There cannot be both monetary and nonmonetary sanctions imposed
B. An EA can face Imprisonment up to 3 years
C. An EA can be censured
D. A monetary penalty can exceed the gross income derived from the conduct giving rise to the penalty

Answer 21

C. An EA can be censured

Question 22

1. Under Treasury Department Circular No. 230, which of the following is incompetence or disreputable conduct?

A. Conviction of any misdemeanor offense under Federal, State, or local law
B. Conviction of any criminal offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust
C. Willfully disclosing a taxpayer’s tax return information with the consent of the taxpayer
D. Due to reasonable cause, forgetting to sign a tax return prepared by the practitioner when the
practitioner’s signature is required by Federal tax laws

Answer 22

B. Conviction of any criminal offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust

Question 23

(Section 7525 “does not protect communications between a tax practitioner and a client simply for the preparation of a tax return”);

Question 24

An individual who is not an enrolled agent, a CPA, or an attorney, who is a regular full-time employee of a corporation, may represent that corporation before the IRS.

Question 25

Any person may appear as a witness for the taxpayer before the IRS or furnish information at the request of the IRS or any of its officers or employees.

Question 26

Trusts, receiverships, guardianships, or estates may be represented before the IRS by their trustees, receivers, guardians, administrators, or executors even if they are not enrolled agents, CPAs, or attorneys.

Question 27

A practitioner who is not an enrolled agent, a CPA, or an attorney, who signs a return as having prepared it for the taxpayer, may, with proper authorization from the taxpayer, appear as the taxpayer’s representative before any office of the IRS with respect to the taxpayer’s tax liability for the period covered by that return.

Answer 27

NOT TRUE

Question 28

D. Larry must file a written appeal no later than the 19th of February with the Secretary of the Treasury or his designee.

Question 29

Failure to file an answer to a complaint instituting a proceeding for disbarment by the original or extended deadline constitutes

Answer 29

A. An admission of the allegations in the complaint and a waiver of a hearing.

Question 30

A notice of disbarment or suspension of a certified public accountant from practice before the Internal Revenue Service is issued to which of the following?

A. Interested departments and agencies of the federal government.

B. State authorities.

C. All of the answers are correct.

D. IRS employees.

Answer 30

C. All of the answers are correct.