Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgical Treatments > General Surgery Treatments > Flashcards

General Surgery Treatments Flashcards

1
Q

Sliding Esophageal Hiatal Hernia

A

Nissen Fundoplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Paraesophageal Hiatal Hernia

A

Surgical, because of frequency and severity of potential complication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Treatment for flail chest

A

Intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cardiac Tamponade

A

Pericardial Window - if blood returns, median sternotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Massive Hemothorax indication for thoracotomy

A

Massive = >1500cc on initial placement of chest tube

Persistent = >200 cc of bleeding via chest tube x 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a positive Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage

A

> 10cc blood aspirated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In a blunt trauma victim, celiotomy would require?

A

Peritoneal signsm free air on CXR/CT scan, unstable patient with positive FAST exam or positive DPL results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Indications for surgical exploration in all penetrating neck wounds.

A 
"Hard signs"
Shock,
exanguinating hemorrage
expanding hematoma
pulsatile hematoma
neurologic injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the 3 for 1 rule

A

3L of crystalloid for every 1L of blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Minimal urine output for an adult trauma patient

A

50ml/ hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How much blood can be lost into the thigh with a closed femur fracture

A

upto 1.5L of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Surgical cricothyroidectomy is contraindicated to what population

A

<12 y.o.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Rectal Penetrating injury tx

A

Diverting proximal colonstomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tx for EXTRAperitoneal minor bladder rupture

A

Bladder catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Extensive irreperable biliary, duodenal and pancreatic head injury

A

Trauma Whipple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment for minor pancreatic injury

A

Drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the lethal triad

A

Acidosis
Coagulopathy
Hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Myoglobinuria Tx

A

“HAM”
Hydration with IV
Alkalization of urine with IV bicarb
Mannitol diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tx for 1st degree burn

A

keep clean, neosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tx for 2nd degree burn

A

Remove blisters, antibiotic tx

Silicone
Silver ion dressings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tx for 3rd degree burn

A

Early excision of exchar(within 1st week post burn) and ST SG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why is glucose-containing IVF contraindicated in burn patients in the first 24 hours

A

Serum glucose will be elevated on its own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why do severely burned patients require nasogastric decompression?

A

20% TBSA develop paralytic ileus–>vomiting–>aspiration–>pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

IV antibiotics contraindicated in fresh burns

A

Eschar is avascular. Topical is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Carbon monoxide inhalation overdose

A

100% O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Central line is changed in burn patients every

A

3-4 days

27
Q

Indications for surgical intervention in UGIB

A

Refractory or recurrent bleeding and site known, >3 u PRBCs or >6 u PRBC overall

28
Q

When is surgery indicated for duodenal ulcers?

A 
"I HOP"
Intractability
Hemorrhage
Obstruction
Perforation
29
Q

Common surgical option for Truncal Vagotomy

A

Pyloroplasty

30
Q

Duodenal Perforation tx

A

Graham patch

Truncal vagotomy

31
Q

Mallory weis syndrome treatment

A

Room temperature water lavage

32
Q

Mallory Weis surgery indication

A

When medical/endoscopic treatment fails (>6PRBC)

33
Q

Esophageal Variceal Bleeding tx

A

Somatostatin and vasopressin

34
Q

What is Sengstaken Blakemore ballon

A

Tamponades with an esophageal balloon and a gastric balloon

35
Q

Treatment for Diverticulits

A

High fiber diet

36
Q

What type of surgery is usually performed for an acute case of diverticulitis with a complication (perforation, obstruction)

A

Hartmann’s procedure

37
Q

Initial treatment for colonic volvulus

A

Non operative

38
Q

Treatment for Cecal Volvulus

A

Emergent surgery, right colectomy

39
Q

What are the major differences in the emergent management of cecal volvulus vs sigmoid

A

Cecal=surgical reduction

Sigmoid=endoscopic reduction of twist

40
Q

What is “closed” vs “open” hemorrhoidectomy

A

Closed (Ferguson_ closes the mucosa with sutures after removal of hemorrhoid tissue

Open (Milligan-Morgan) leaves mucosa open

41
Q

What condition is contraindicated to hemorrhoidectomy?

A

Crohn’s Disease

42
Q

Colonoscopic tx option for bleeding vascular ectasia or polyp

A

Laser, electrocoagulation, local epinephrine injection

43
Q

Medical Tx for IBD

A

Sulfazaline

Steroids

44
Q

Medications for CD but not UC

A

Methotrexate, antibiotics

45
Q

Perianal Crohn’s disease

A

Metro

Cipro

46
Q

MC indication for surgery in CD

A

SBO

47
Q

Tx for Portal Hypertension

A

“TIPS”

Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt

48
Q

What is Kocher’s incision

A

Right subcostal incision for Biliary surgery

49
Q

What is the treatment of major CBD injury after a lap chole

A

Choledochojejunostomy

50
Q

Complications of Lap Chole

A

CBD injury, right hepatic duct/artery injury; cystic duct leak, biloma

51
Q

What is the waiting period before a pseudocyst should be drained?

A

It takes 6 weeks for psudocyst walls to “mature” to hold sutures.

52
Q

What is the treatment for inflammatory CA of the breast?

A

Chemotherapy first! Followed by RT, mastectomy or both.

53
Q

Treatment for DCIS <1cm

A

Remove with 1 cm margin and XRT

54
Q

Treatment for DCIS >1cm

A

Lumpectomy with 1 cm margins and radtiotion or TOTAL mastectomy (no axillary dissection)

55
Q

When must simple mastectomy be perfromed for DCIS

A

Diffuse breast involvment

56
Q

Adjuvant Rx for DCIS

A

Tamoxifen

Postlumpectomy

57
Q

Treatment for LCIS

A

Close follow up

58
Q

Role of chemo in Pyllodes tumor

A

if >5cm and stromal overgrowth

59
Q

Preoperative Medical treatment for Pheochromocytoma

A

Increase IV volume with a-blockade (phenoxybenzamine)

60
Q

Medical treatment for Insulinoma

A

Diazoxide, to supress insulin release

61
Q

Rx for Glucagonoma

A

Somatostatin, IV Amino acids and surgical resection

62
Q

Indication for surgery with multinodular goiiter

A

Cosmetic deformity
compressive symptoms
Cannot rule out cancer

63
Q

If medullary thyroid CA and pheochromocytoma are found, which one si operated first?

A

Pheochromocytoma

Surgical Treatments (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions