General surgery Flashcards

1
Q

CEA is a tumour marker associated with which cancer?

A

Colorectal

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2
Q

CA125 is associated with…

A

Ovarian cancer

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3
Q

CA19-9 is associated with…

A

Pancreatic cancer

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4
Q

CA15-3 is associated with…

A

Breast cancer

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5
Q

Alpha-feto protein (AFP) is associated with…

A

Hepatocellular cancer

Teratoma

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6
Q

Gallstones are generally composed of…

A

Phospholipids
Cholesterol
Bile pigments

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7
Q

Risk factors for gallstones

A
Female 
OCP, pregnancy 
increased age
High fat diet and obesity 
Racial e.g. American Indian tribes 
Loss of terminal ileum (due to reduced bile salts)
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8
Q

Complications of gallstones

A
In the gallbladder: 
Cholecystitis 
Chronic cholecystitus 
Biliary colic 
Mucocele 
Carcinoma 

In the CBD:
Cholangitis
Pancreatitis
Obstructive jaundice

In the gut: gallstone ileus

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9
Q

Presentation of biliary colic

A
RUQ pain radiating to back
N/V
Sweating 
Pallor
Precipitated by fatty food and last less than 6 hours 
Possible jaundice is stone is in the CBD
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10
Q

Presentation of cholecystitis

A
Severe RUQ. Continuous and radiating to the right scapular and epigastrium
Fever
Vomiting 
Possible jaundice 
Murphy's sign
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11
Q

Presentation of cholecystitis

A
Severe RUQ. Continuous and radiating to the right scapular and epigastrium
Fever
Vomiting 
Possible jaundice 
Murphy's sign
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12
Q

Thumb printing of the small bowel is seen in

A
Crohn disease
Ulcerative colitis
Infection (i.e. pseudomembranous colitis)
Ischaemic bowel
Diverticulitis
Mucosal/submucosal haemorrhage 2
Lymphoma
Amyloid
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13
Q

TNM staging of oesophageal tumours

A

Tumour
T1- the tumour is confined to the submucosa
T2- the tumour has grown into (but not through) the muscularis propria
T3- the tumour has grown into (but not through) the serosa
T4- the tumour has penetrated through the serosa and the peritoneal surface. If extending directly into other nearby structures (such as other parts of the bowel or other organs/body structures) it is classified as T4a. If there is perforation of the bowel, it is classified as T4b.

Nodes
N0- no lymph nodes contain tumour cells
N1- there are tumour cells in up to 3 regional lymph nodes
N2- there are tumour cells in 4 or more regional lymph nodes

Metastases
M0- no metastasis to distant organs
M1- metastasis to distant organs

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14
Q

Management of anal fissure

A

Management of an acute anal fissure (< 6 weeks)
dietary advice: high-fibre diet with high fluid intake
bulk-forming laxatives are first line - if not tolerated then lactulose should be tried
lubricants such as petroleum jelly may be tried before defecation
topical anaesthetics
-analgesia
topical steroids do not provide significant relief

Management of a chronic anal fissure (> 6 weeks)
the above techniques should be continued
topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is first line treatment for a chronic anal fissure
if topical GTN is not effective after 8 weeks then secondary referral should be considered for surgery or botulinum toxin

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15
Q

Risk factors for pancreatitis

A

SINED

Smoking
Inflammation (e.g. chronic pancreatitis)
Nutrition: high fat diet
Ethanol
Diabetes Mellitus
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16
Q

Causes of acute pancreatitis

A

I GET SMASHED

Idiopathic
Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps and other infections (e.g. Coxsackie virus)
Autoimmune: e.g. PAN
Scorpion bite
Hyperlipidaemia/hypercalciaemia
ERCP
Drugs: thiazides, azathioprine
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17
Q

Causes of chronic pancreatitis

A

AGITS
Alcohol (70%)
Genetic: CF, HH
Immune: lymphoplasmacytic sclerosing pancreatitis
Triglycerides: high levels
Structural: Obstruction by tumour, pancreas divisum

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18
Q

Presentation of chronic cholecystitis

A
Flatulant dyspepsia. So you get: 
Bloating and distension 
Vague upper abdominal discomfort 
Nausea
Flatulence and burping
Symptoms exacerbated by fatty foods
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19
Q

Causes of obstructive jaundice

A

Stones
Cancer of head of the pancreas

Other:
LNs at porta hepatis: TB, Ca
Inflammatory: PBC, PSC
Drugs: OCP, sulfonylureas, flucloxacillin
Neoplastic: Cholangiocarcinoma
Mirizzi’s syndrome: gallstone becomes impacted in the cystic duct or neck of the gallbladder causing compression of the common bile duct (CBD) or common hepatic duct.

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20
Q

Courvoiser’s law

A

In the presence of a painless obstructive jaundice, a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to stones

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21
Q

Presentation of pancreatic Ca

A

Male of 60
Painless obstructive jaundice
Epigastric pain radiating to back relieved by sitting forward
Weight loss, reduced appetite, malabsoprtion
Acute pancreatitis
Sudden onset DM in the elderly

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22
Q

Usual pathology of pancreatic cancers

A

Ductal adenocarcinomas (in head of the pancreas)

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23
Q

Definition of a hernia

A

Protrusion of a viscus or part of a viscus through the walls of its containing cavity into an abnormal position

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24
Q

Cause of bowel obstruction

A
Non-mechanical (paralytic ileus)
Post op 
Inflammation e.g. peritonitis, pancratitis
Drugs: Anti-MAch
Mesenteric ischaemia 
Metabolic: low K, Na, Mg or uraemia 

Mechanical Intra luminal:
Impacted matter e.g. faeces, worms
Intussusception
Gallstones

Mechanical intramural:
Benign stricture e.g. due to IBD, surgery, ischaemic colitis, diverticulitis, radiotherapy
Neoplasia
Congenital atresia

Mechanical extramural :
Hernia 
Adhesions 
Volvulus (usually sigmoid) 
Extrinsic compression e.g. tumour, pseudocyst, abscess, haematoma
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25
Q

Definition of a diverticulum

A

Outpouching of tubular structure

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26
Q

Dukes staging of colorectal cancer

A

A: Confined to the bowel wall
B: Through the bowel wall but no LNs
C: Regional LNs
D: Distant lymph nodes

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27
Q

TNM staging of colorectal cancer

A

Tis: carcinoma in situ
T1: Tumour has invaded the submucosa
T2: tumour has invaded the muscularis propria
T3: Tumour has invaded the subserosa
T4: Tumour has invaded through the serosa to the adjacent organs

N1: 1-3 nodes
N2: 4 or more nodes

M0
M1

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28
Q

What is a Hartman’s procedure

A

A proctosigmoidectomy or Hartmann’s procedure is the surgical resection of the rectosigmoid colon with closure of the anorectal stump and formation of an end colostomy.

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29
Q

Features of familial adenomatous polyposis

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance
APC gene on 5q21
Affected individuals have 100-1000s of adenomas by age 16
100% develop CRC by age 40
May also have hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium

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30
Q

Features of Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance
STK11 mutation
Present at 10-15 years
Mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation appearing as macules on palms and buccal mucosa
Multiple GI harmartomatous polyps. Can cause intussusception and haemorrhage
Increased cancer risk: CRC, pancreas, breast, lung, ovarian, uterus

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31
Q

Management of familial adenomatous polyposis

A

Prophylactic colectomy by age 20:
Colectomy with ileorectal anastamosis: requires life long stump surveillance.
Proctocolectomy plus ileal pouch anal anastamosis: still requires surveillance for gastric and duodenal Ca (endoscopy)

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32
Q

Features of hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer

A

Autosomal dominant
Most common inherited CRC
Mutation of mismatch repair gene

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33
Q

Presentation of mesenteric ischaemia

A
Nearly always small bowel 
Triad of: 
Acute severe abdominal pain with/wo PR bleed 
Rapid hypovolaemia leading to shock 
No abdominal signs 

Possible AF
Degree of illness is greater than the clinical signs

Gasless abdomen on AXR
Thumprinting on AXR
Raised Hb, amylase, WCC and lactate

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34
Q

Management of mesenteric ischaemia

A
Fluids 
Abx: Cef and met 
NBM 
LMWH 
Laparotomy to resect necrotic bowel
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35
Q

Boundaries of the inguinal ligament

A

The anterior wall is formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique, and reinforced by the internal oblique muscle laterally.

The posterior wall is formed by the transversalis fascia.

The roof is formed by the transversalis fascia, internal oblique and transversus abdominis.

The floor is formed by the inguinal ligament (a ‘rolled up’ portion of the external oblique aponeurosis) and thickened medially by the lacunar ligament.

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36
Q

Difference between indirect and direct inguinal hernia

A

Indirect: The peritoneal sac enters the inguinal canal via the deep inguinal ring. Degree to which it herniates depends on the amount of processus vaginalis still present. Sac will have the same 3 coverings as the canal. It enters the canal lateral to the epigastric vessels. Patients usually younger.

Direct: Due to weakening of the abdominal muscles. The periotoneal sac bulges into the canal via the posterior wall (formed by the transversalis fascia) through Hesselbach’s triangle. The sac enters the inguinal canal medial to epigastric vessels.

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37
Q

Boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle

A

Medial border: Lateral margin of the rectus sheath, also called linea semilunaris
Superolateral border: Inferior epigastric vessels
Inferior border: Inguinal ligament, sometimes referred to as Poupart’s ligament

Mnemonic RIP (Rectus sheath (lateral border), Inferior epigastric artery, Poupart’s ligament (inguinal ligament)).

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38
Q

Complications of inguinal hernias

A
Early: 
Haematoma formation 
Intraabdominal injury 
Infection 
Urinary retention

Late
Recurrence
Ischaemic orchitis
Chronic groin pain

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39
Q

Presentation of femoral hernia

A

Painless groin lump inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle
Cough impulse
Often irreducible due to tight borders

Commonly present with obstruction/strangulation:
Tender, red, hot
Abdo pain, distension, vomiting, constipation
50% strangulate within 1 month (urgent surgery)

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40
Q

Diverticulae are most commonly found in which part of the bowel

A

Sigmoid colon

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41
Q

Important complications following thyroid surgery

A

Anatomical such as recurrent laryngeal nerve damage.

Bleeding. Owing to the confined space haematoma’s may rapidly lead to respiratory compromise owing to laryngeal oedema.

Damage to the parathyroid glands resulting in hypocalcaemia.

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42
Q

Signs of a basal skull fracture

A

Battle’s sign – bruising of the mastoid process of the temporal bone.
Raccoon eyes – bruising around the eyes, i.e. “black eyes”
Cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea.
Cranial nerve palsy.
Bleeding (sometimes profuse) from the nose and ears.
Hemotympanum.
Conductive or perceptive deafness, nystagmus, vomitus.

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43
Q

Describe the modified Glasgow score (pancreatitis severity)

A

The Modified Glasgow Score is calculated to predict the severity of pancreatitis. Three or more of the following factors identified within 48 hours of onset indicates severe pancreatitis.

Pa02	<8kPa
Age	>55 years
Neutrophilia	WBC >15x10^9
Calcium	<2mmol/L
Renal function	Urea >16mmol/L
Enzymes	LDH >600 ; AST >200
Albumin	<32g/L
Sugar	Blood glucose >10mmol/L
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44
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

Rovsing’s sign is positive if palpation of the left lower quadrant of the abdomen increases the pain felt in the right lower quadrant.

This may be an indicator of appendicitis, although it is not positive in all cases.

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45
Q

Colorectal cancer:

Who should undergo foecal occult blood testing

A

NHS now has a national screening programme offering screening every 2 years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening.

In addition FOBT should be offered to:
patients >= 50 years with unexplained abdominal pain OR weight loss
patients < 60 years with changes in their bowel habit OR iron deficiency anaemia
patients >= 60 years who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency

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46
Q

Grading system for internal haemorrhoids

A

Grade I Do not prolapse out of the anal canal
Grade II Prolapse on defecation but reduce spontaneously
Grade III Can be manually reduced
Grade IV Cannot be reduced

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47
Q

What is the pectinate line

A

The pectinate line (dentate line) is a line which divides the upper two thirds and lower third of the anal canal. Developmentally, this line represents the hindgut-proctodeum junction.

Haemorrhoids above are internal, below are external.
Lymph drainage: above is internal iliac lymph nodes, below is superficial inguinal lymph nodes.
Arteries: above is superior rectal artery, below is middle and inferior rectal arteries

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48
Q

Borders of the anterior triangle of the neck

A

Superior: inferior border of the mandible
Lateral: Sternocleidomastoid
Medial: Imaginary sagittal line down midline of the body

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49
Q

Causes of lumps in the anterior triangle of the neck

A

Pulsatile
Carotid artery aneurism
Tortuous carotid artery
Carotid body tumour

Non-pulsatile
Goitre 
Branchial cysts 
Laryngocele 
Parotid tumour (lump in postero-superior area)
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50
Q

Borders of the carotid triangle of the neck

A

Superior: posterior belly of the digastric muscle
Lateral: Medial border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
Inferior: Superior belly of the omohyoid muscle

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51
Q

Main contents of the carotid triangle of the neck

A

Common carotid artery (and its bifurcation)
Internal jugular vein
Hypoglossal nerve
Vagus nerve

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52
Q

Borders of the submandibular triangle

A

Superiorly: Body of the mandible.
Anteriorly: Anterior belly of the digastric muscle.
Posteriorly: Posterior belly of the digastric muscle.

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53
Q

Contents of the submandibular triangle

A

Salivary gland
Lymph nodes
Facial artery
Facial vein

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54
Q

Causes of lumps in the submandibular triangle

A

Salivary stone
Sialadenitis
Salivary tumour

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55
Q

Borders of the posterior triangle of the neck

A

Anterior: Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid
Posterior: Anterior border of the trapezius muscle.
Inferior: Middle 1/3 of the clavicle.

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56
Q

Contents of the posterior triangle of the neck

A

External jugular vein (within the posterior triangle it empties into the subclavian vein.
The distal part of the subclavian artery
Accessory nerve
The cervical plexus forms within the muscles of the floor of the posterior triangle (it forms the phrenic nerve)
The trunks of the brachial plexus cross the floor of the posterior triangle

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57
Q

Causes of lumps in the posterior triangle

A
Cervical ribs 
LNs
Pharyngeal pouch 
Cystic hygromas 
Pancoast's tumour
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58
Q

Causes of midline lumps

A

<20yrs
Thyroglossal cyst
Dermoid cyst

> 20yrs
Thyroid isthmus mass
Ectopic thyroid tissue

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59
Q

A cystic hygroma is…

A
Usually congenital 
Multiloculated lesion 
Contains lymph 
Benign but disfiguring 
Usually occurs in left posterior triangle of neck and armpits
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60
Q

Presentation of branchial cysts

A

Usually present before 20yrs
Lump along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid (junction of middle and upper third)
Can become infected and form an abscess
May be associated with a branchial fistula (may discharge mucus)

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61
Q

Lining and content of a branchial cyst

A

Squamous epithelium
Granular and keratinaceous cellular debris. Cholesterol crystals may be found in the fluid extracted from a branchial cyst.

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62
Q

Presentation of carotid body tumour

A

Located at carotid body bifurcation
Just anterior to upper 3rd if sternocleidomastoid
Pulsatile
Moves laterally but not vetically
Pressure may cause dizziness and syncope
Most are benign

Doppler or angiogram will show splaying of the carotid artery bifurcation

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63
Q

Treatment of carotid body tumour

A

Complete surgical removal

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64
Q

What is a laryngocele

A

Lump in the anterior triangle of the neck
Cystic dilation of the laryngeal saccule
Cogenital usually but can be acquired e.g. glassblowers
Exacerbated by blowing

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65
Q

Presentation of a laryngocele

A

Lump in the anterior triangle of the neck
Symptoms vary accordingly to the size and extension of the lesion, and may include: sore throat, dysphagia, stridor, neck lump, and/or airway obstruction.

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66
Q

Presentation of dermoid cyst

A

Common <20yrs
Found at junctions of embryological fusion e.g. neck midline and under tongue
Contains ectodermal elements e.g. hair follicles and sebaceous glands

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67
Q

Contents of dermoid cyst

A

Contains ectodermal elements e.g. hair follicles and sebaceous glands

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68
Q

What is a dermoid cyst

A

A developmental inclusion of epidermis along lines of skin fusion

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69
Q

What is a thyroglossal cyst

A

Cyst formed from persistant thyroglossal duct

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70
Q

Presentation of thyroglossal cyst

A

Located anywhere from foramen caecum and the thyroid.
Usually found just inferior to the hyoid or just above the hyoid
Fluctuant lump (sign it contains fluid)
Moves up and down with tongue protrusion
Usually asymptomatic but can cause dysphagia or pain.
Can become infected and form a fistula

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71
Q

Treatment of thyroglossal cyst

A

Surgical excision of the cyst and the thyroglossal duct.,

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72
Q

Presentation of cervical ribs

A

Mostly asymptomatic
Hard swelling
Reduced radial pulse on abduction and external rotation of arm

Vascular symptoms: Compress subclavian artery causing:
Raynaud’s
Venous outflow obstruction leading to oedema

Neuro symptoms: compress lower trunk of brachial plexus, or T1 nerve root causing:
Wasting of intrinsic hand muscles
Parasthesia along medial border of the arm

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73
Q

Presentation of pharygeal pouch

A
Swelling of left side of the neck 
Regurgitation and aspiration 
Halitosis 
Gargling sounds
Food debris causes pouch expansion which causes oesophageal compression which in turn causes dysphagia 

Birds beak appearance on barium swallow

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74
Q

Treatment of pharyngeal pouch

A

Excision and cricopharyngeal myotomy

Endoscopic stapling

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75
Q

Presentation of cystic hygroma

A

Infants
Lower part of posterior triangle but may extend to axilla
Increases in size when the child coughs or cries
Transilluminates brilliantly

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76
Q

Key features to mention when describing cervical lymphadenopathy

A
Consistency 
Number 
Fixation
Symmetry 
Tenderness
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77
Q

Features to assess in a neck lumo

A

Size – width / height / depth

Location – can help narrow the differential – anterior triangle / posterior triangle / mid-line

Shape – well defined?

Consistency – smooth / rubbery / hard / nodular / irregular

Fluctuance – if fluctuant, this suggests it is a fluid filled lesion – cyst

Trans-illumination – suggests mass is fluid filled – e.g. cystic hygroma

Pulsatility – suggests vascular origin – e.g. carotid body tumour / aneurysm

Temperature – increased warmth may suggest inflammatory / infective cause

Overlying skin changes – erythema / ulceration / punctum

Relation to underlying / overlying tissue – tethering / mobility (ask to turn head)

Auscultation – to assess for bruits – e.g. carotid aneurysm

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78
Q

Causes of cervical lymphadenopathy

A

LIST

Lymphoma and leukaemia
Infection
Sarcoidosis
Tumours

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79
Q

Infective causes of cervical lymphadenopathy

A

Bacterial:
TB
Tonsillitis, dental abscess
Bartonella henselae (cat scratch disease)

Viral:
EBV
HIV

Protazoal:
Toxoplasmosis (HIV related)

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80
Q

Causes of thyroid goitre (separate diffuse, multinodular and solitary nodule)

A

Diffuse:
Simple colloid goitre: endemic (iodine deficiency)
Simple colloid goitre: Sporadic: autoimmune, hereditary, goitrogens (e.g. sulphonylureas, lithium)
Graves
Thyroiditis: Hashimoto’s, De Quervain’s Subacute lymphocytic (e.g. post-partum)
Multinodular with nodules too small to feel

Multinodular
Multinodular colloid goitre (commonest)
Multiple cysts
Multiple adenomas

Solitary Nodule: 
Dominant nodule in multinodular goitre
Adenoma (hot or cold) 
Cyst
Malignancy
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81
Q

Common cause of De Quervain’s thyroiditis

A

Coxsackie virus

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82
Q

Most common thyroid malignancy type

A

Papillary

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83
Q

Thyroid malignancy associated with MEN2

A

Medullary

84
Q

Tumour cell origin in medullary thyroid cancer

A

Parafollicular C cells

85
Q

Role of parafollicular C cells

A

Secrete calcitonin

86
Q

Risk factors for malignancy in thyroid nodules

A
Solitary
Solid
Young 
Male
Cold 
Radiation exposure
87
Q

Complications of thyroid surgery

A

Early:
Reactionary haemorrhage causing haematoma (can cause airway obstruction)
Laryngeal oedema: due to damage during intubation or surgical manipulation. Can also cause airway obstruction
Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
Hypocalcaemia
Thyroid storm

Late:
Hypothyroidism
Recurrent hyperthyroidism
Keloid scar

88
Q

Causes of salivary gland enlargement (whole and localised)

A
Whole gland: 
Parotitis 
Sjogren's 
Sarcoid 
Amyloid 
ALL
Chronic liver disease 
Anorexia or bulimia 

Localised:
Tumours
Stones

89
Q

Causes of acute parotitis

A

Viral: mumps, coxsackie A, HIV
Bacterial: S. Aureus (associated with calculi and poor oral hygeine)

90
Q

Complications of mumps

A

Inflammation of the testicles (orchitis) in males who have reached puberty; rarely does this lead to fertility problems

Encephalitis

Meningitis

Oophoritis, mastitis

Deafness

91
Q

Presentation of salivary gland calculi

A

Recurrent unilateral swelling and pain
Worse on eating
Red, tender swollen gland
80% are submandibular

92
Q

Treatment of salivary gland calculus

A

Gland exision

93
Q

Investigations in suspected salivary gland calculus

A

Plain X-ray

Saliography (contrast injected into salivary gland)

94
Q

Components of Reynolds pentad

A
Fever
RUQ pain
Jaundice
Shock
Altered mental status
95
Q

Lead pipe colon on abdo X ray is caused by…

A

Ulcerative colitis

96
Q

Phyllodes tumour

A

Stromal tumour
Breast
Large non-tender mobile lump

97
Q

50% of breast cancers are in which quadrant?

A

Upper outer

98
Q

TNM classification of breast cancer

A

Tis means ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
T1 means that the tumour is 2 centimetres (cm) across or less.
T2: 2-5cm with skin fixation
T3: 5-10cm with ulceration and pectoral fixation
T4: >10cm chest wall extension, skin involved

N1 mobile nodes
N2 Fixed nodes

99
Q

Clinical staging of breast cancer

A

1: Confined to breast, mobile, no LNs
2: Stage 1 plus nodes in ipsilateral axilla
3: Stage 2 plus fixation to muscle (not chest wall). LNs matted and fixed, large skin involvement
4: Complete fixation to chest wall

100
Q

Management of stage 2 breast cancer

A

WLE and radiotherapy

101
Q

1st line treatment of mastalgia

A

Evening primrose oil

102
Q

Side effects of tamoxifen

A

Menopausal symptoms
Endometrial Ca (as it is a SERM that acts as an agonist in the uterus)
Venous thromboembolism

103
Q

Side effects of anastrazole

A

Menopausal symptoms

104
Q

Key features of acute mastitis

A

Usually lactating woman
Painful red breast
May lead to abscess (lump near nipple)

105
Q

Treatment of acute mastitis

A

Flucloxacillin

Add incision and drainage if fluctuant abscess present

106
Q

Key features of fat necrosis breast lump

A
Associated with previous trauma 
Painless 
Palpable 
Non-mobile 
May calcify simulating Ca
107
Q

Treatment of fat necrosis breast lump

A

Analgesia

108
Q

Features of duct ectasia

A
Age 50-60 (post menopausal) 
Slit like nipple 
Often bilateral 
Peri-areolar mass MAY be present 
Thick white/green discharge 
May be calcified on mammography
Usually painless

Ducts shorten and widen with age. Discharge produced which can get trapped and irritate the ducts.

109
Q

Minimum age for mammography

A

35 years

110
Q

Treatment of duct ectasia

A

Distinguish from Ca

Surgical excision of the duct if mass is present or discharge is troublesome

111
Q

Features of periductal mastitis

A

Painful erythematous sub-areaolar mass
Associated with purulent discharge and inverted nipple
May lead to abscess or discharging fistula

112
Q

Features of fibroadenosis

A

Pre-menstrual breast nodularity and pain
Often in upper outer quadrant
Tender “lumpy bumpy” breasts

113
Q

Treatment of fibroadenosis

A

Triple assessment
Reassurance
Good bra
Can also recommend evening primrose oil

114
Q

Features of cyclical mastalgia

A

Under 35 years
Premenstrual pain
Relieved by menstruation
Commonly in upper outer quadrants bilaterally

115
Q

Features of non-cyclical mastalgia

A

Over 45 years
Severe lancing breast pain (often left)
May be associated with back pain

116
Q

Management of mastalgia

A

Reassurance and good bra (works for most)
1st line medication is evening primrose oil
OCP
Topical NSAIDs
Bromocriptine
Danazol
Tamoxifen

117
Q

Treatment of stage 3-4 breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen if ER positive
Chemo for relapse
Her2+ve may respond to trastuzumab

Supportive:
Bone pain: dexamethasone , bisphosphonates, analgesia
Brain: occasional surgery, dexamethasone, steroids, antiepileptic drugs.
Lymphoedema: decongestion, compression

118
Q

Breast surgery: muscles used for flaps in reconstruction

A

Latissimus dorsi

Tranverse rectus abdominus muscle (gold standard). No implant necessary and combined tummy tuck.

119
Q

Types of breast cancer

A

DCIS/LCIS
Invasive ductal carcinoma: commonest (feels hard)
Medullary: younger pts, feels soft
Colloid/mucinous: occur in elderly
Inflammatory: pain, erythema, swelling, peau d’orange
Papillary

120
Q

Features of fibroadenoma

A
Commonest benign tumour 
Under 35 years 
Rare post menopause 
Increased rate in blacks 
PAINLESS rubbery mobile mass 
Often multiple and bilateral 
Popcorn calcification
121
Q

Features of DCIS of the breast

A

Microcalcifications on mammogram
Rarely associated with symptoms
Increased cancer risk in ipsilateral breast
Ca rate 1%/year

122
Q

Features of Paget’s disease of the breast

A
Unilateral
Scaly
Erythematous 
Itchy 
Possible palpable mass
Usually caused by underlying invasive or DCIS breast cancer
123
Q

Features of LCIS

A

Incidental biopsy finding (no calcifations)
Often bilateral (20-40%)
Young women
Increased cancer risk in both breasts

124
Q

Signs/symptoms of critical limb ischaemia

A

Rest pain:
Especially at night
Usually felt in the foot
Pt hangs foot out of bed: due to reduced cardiac output and loss of gravity help

Ulceration

Gangrene

125
Q

Features of Leriche’s syndrome

A

Caused by atherosclerotic occlusion of abdominal aorta and iliacs

Triad of:
Buttock claudication and wasting
Erectile dysfunction
Absent femoral pulses

126
Q

Signs of chronic limb ischaemia

A
Pulses: reduced pulses and increased cap refill time
Ulcers: painful, punched out, on pressure points 
Nail dystrophy/ oncholysis 
Skin: pale, cold, absent hair, atrophy
Venous guttering 
Muscle atrophy 
Buerger's angle 
\+ve Buerger's sign
127
Q

Normal Buerger’s angle

A

Greater than or equal to 90 degrees

Note: <20 indicates severe ischaemia

128
Q

What is venous guttering?

A

Elevating the legs empties the foot veins which later re-fill when the legs are dependent. In an ischaemic limb, the response to the postural change is delayed, and for a time, the veins remain collapsed. The time necessary for the “gutter” to fill up is an indication of the severity of the arterial insufficiency.

129
Q

Fontaine classification of chronic limb ischaemia

A

1: asymptomatic (subclinical)
2a: Intermittent claudication >200m
2b: Intermittent claudication <200m
3: Ischaemic rest pain
4: Ulceration/gangrene

130
Q

Rutherford classification of chronic limb ischaemia

A

Stage 0 - Asymptomatic
Stage 1 - Mild intermittent claudication
Stage 2 - Moderate intermittent claudication
Stage 3 - Severe intermittent claudication
Stage 4 - Ischaemic rest pain
Stage 5 - Ischemic ulceration not exceeding ulcer of the digits of the foot
Stage 6 - Severe ulceration or frank gangrene

131
Q

Doppler wave forms in chronic limb ischaemia

A

Normal: Triphasic
Mild stenosis: Biphasic
Severe stenosis: Monophasic

132
Q

Interpretation of ankle brachial pressure index

A

> 1.2 Abnormally hard vessel (e.g. calcified) – this can often be a false negative as there is likely significant peripheral vascular disease but the hardened vessels give a higher ABPI reading, so correlation with clinical findings is advised.
1.0-1.2 Normal
0.8-0.9 Mild arterial disease: mild claudication
0.5-0.79 Moderate arterial disease: severe claudication
<0.5 Severe arterial disease: rest pain, ulceration and gangrene (critical ischaemia)

133
Q

Cause of falsely high ABPI measurement

A

Vessel calcification due to DM or CRF

134
Q

Management of chronic limb ischaemia

A
Conservative: 
Stop smoking 
Exercise and exercise programs 
Weight loss
Foot care
Medical: 
Manage risk factors e.g. BP, lipids, DM 
Antiplatelets: aspirin/clopidogrel 
Analgesia: opitates may be needed 
Parenteral prostanoids if unfit for surgery 

Surgical:
Percutaneous transluminal angio and stent
Bypass: fem-pop, fem-distal, aortobifemoral
Endarterectomy
Amputation

135
Q

Presentation of acute limb ischaemia

A

6Ps

Pallor
Pain
Perishingly cold 
Pulseless 
Parasthaesia 
Paralysis
136
Q

Most cases of acute limb ischaemia are caused by…

A

Thrombosis in situ. Previously stenosed vessel with olaque rupture

137
Q

If acute limb ischaemia is caused by an embolus the clot most likely originated in…

A

The LA due to AF
Typically lodge at femoral bifurcation.
Note: Often complete ischaemia

138
Q

Acute limb ischaemia: differences between thrombus and embolus

A

Onset: Thrombus is days/hours. Embolus is sudden
Severity: Embolus is more severe, often complete ischaemia. Thrombus will have collaterals to reduce severity.
Claudication history present in thrombosis. Absent if embolus.
Diagnosis of embolus will be clinic, thrombus will be angio
Treatment: Embolus requires embolectomy and warfarin. Thrombus requires thrombolysis and bypass surgery.

139
Q

Management of acute limb ischaemia

A

Contact senior
NBM
Rehydrate: IV fluids
Analgesia: morphine and metoclopramide
Antibiotics: if signs of infection.(co-amoxiclav is an option)
Unfractionated heparin IV infusion: to prevent extension
If complete occlusion: urgent surgery
If incomplete: angiogram and observe for deterioration

140
Q

Complications post embolectomy

A

Reperfusion injury:
Local swelling causing compartment syndrome
Acidosis and arrhythmia secondary to high K
ARDS
GI oedema causign endotoxic shock

Chronic pain

141
Q

Management of carotid artery disease

A

Conservative
Aspirin or clopidogrel
Control risk factors

Surgical: Carotid endarterectomy if
Symptomatic and stenosis>70%
Symptomatic and stenosis>50% and low risk (typically <75yrs)
Asymptomatic and stenosis >60% and low risk (benefit if low risk)

Stenting: biggest benefit over CEA is in younger pts
shorter IP stay, reduced infection risk, reduced CN injury risk. No sig diff in mortality. Increased stroke risk especially in older patients.

142
Q

Complications of carotid endarterectomy

A
Stroke
Death 
HTN
Haematoma 
MI
Nerve injury: hypoglossal, great auricular (numb ear lobe), recurrent laryngeal
143
Q

Definition of an aneurysm

A

Abnormal dilatation of a blood vessel >50% of its diameter.

True= all layers. Saccular (Berry aneurism) and fusiform (AAA),

False= Collection of blood around a vessel wall that communicates with the vessel lumen

144
Q

False aneurisms are usually caused by

A

Iatrogenic. e.g. puncture, cannulation

145
Q

Presentation of popliteal aneurism

A

Easily palpable popliteal pulse
50% bilateral
Rupture is rare
Main complications are thrombosis and distal ischaemia causing acute limb ischaemia

146
Q

Management of stable popliteal aneurism

A

Elective grafting or tie off vessel

147
Q

Management of acute (unstable) popliteal aneurism

A

Embolectomy or fem-distal bypass

148
Q

Definition of a AAA

A

Dilation of the aorta of at least 3cm

90% infrarenal
30% involve iliacs

149
Q

Presentation of AAA

A
Incidental finding 
Rupture 
Back pain or umbilical pain radiating to groin 
Acute limb ischaemia 
Blue toe: due to distal embolisation 

Expansile mass just above umbilicus
Bruits
Tenderness and shock if rupture

150
Q

Gold standard investigation for AAA

A

CT/MRI

151
Q

Indications for surgery in AAA

A

Symptoms e.g. back pain
Diameter above 5.5cm
Rapidly expanding: >1cm/yr
Complications e.g. emboli

152
Q

How often to image (CT/US) a AAA

A

Yearly if <4cm

6-monthly if 4-5.5cm

153
Q

Advantage of EVAR over open AAA repair

A

Reduced perioperative mortality

154
Q

AAA screening in UK

A

One off US at age 65yrs. MEN ONLY

155
Q

Risk factors for AAA rupture

A
Size. >6cm=25% mortality/yr
High BP
Smoker
Female 
Strong family history
156
Q

Management of ruptured AAA

A

High flow O2
2 large bore canulae in each ACF: give fluid but keep SBP under 100mmHg
O neg blood if desperate
Bloods: FBC. U+E, Clotting, amylase, Xmatch 10 units
Major haemorrhage protocol
Call vascular surgeon, anaesthetist and warn theatre
Analgesia
Abx prophylaxis; cef and met
Urinary catheter
CVP line
US or CT if stable and diagnosis uncertain
Take to theatre: clamp neck and insert dacron graft

157
Q

What is a Type A aortic dissection

A

Involves ascending and descending aorta

Note: higher mortality likely due to cardiac involvement.
Usually require surgery
Makes up 70% of thoracic aorta dissection

158
Q

What is a type B aortic disection

A

Involves only descending aorta distal to left subclavian artery (so below the aortic arch).

159
Q

Management of gas gangrene

A

Hyperbaric O2
Debridement
Ben Pen and metronidazole

160
Q

Presentation of gas gangrene

A
Toxaemia 
Haemolytic jaundice
Oedema
Crepitus from surgical emphysema 
Bubbly brown pus
161
Q

Causes of varicose veins

A
Primary: 
Prolonged standing
OCP
Pregnancy 
Obesity 
FH
Secondary:
Valve destruction causing reflux e.g. DVT 
Obstruction: DVT, foetus, pelvic mass 
Constipation 
AVM
Overactive pumps e.g. cyclists
162
Q

3 mains sites of varicose veins

A

SPJ: popliteal fossa
SFJ: 3cms below and 3cm lateral to pubic tubercle
Perforators draining the GSV: 3 medial calf and 1 medial thigh

163
Q

Presentation of varicose veins

A
Signs: 
Bleeding 
Cosmetic defect 
Ulcers (medial malleolus/gaiter area) 
Oedema 
Thrombophlebitis 
Swelling
Skin changes 

Symptoms:
Pain, cramping, heaviness
Tingling
Swelling

164
Q

Skin changes caused by varicose veins

A
Venous stars 
Haemosiderin deposition 
Venous eczema 
Lipodermatosclerosis 
Atrophie blanche
165
Q

Investigations in varicose veins

A

Duplex ultrasound to see:
Anatomy
Presence of incompetence
Caused by obstruction or reflux

166
Q

Indications for varicose vein surgery

A

SFJ incompetence
Major perforator incompetence
Symptoms e.g. ulcers, skin changes, pain

167
Q

Complications post varicose vein surgery

A
Haematoma (esp groin) 
Wound sepsis 
Damage to cutaneous nerve (esp long saphenous which passes down gaiter region) 
Superficial thrombophlebitis 
DVT 
Recurrence
168
Q

Varicose vein surgery post op management

A

Bandage tightly
Elevate for 24h
Discharge with compression stockings
Encourage daily walks

169
Q

Features of venous leg ulcers

A

Painless, sloping shallow ulcers
Ragged edges
Gaiter region/ medial malleolus
Surrounding skin changes: haemosiderin deposition and lipodermatosclerosis.

170
Q

Risk factors for venous leg ulcers

A

Venous insufficiency
Varicosities
DVT
Obesity

171
Q

Features of arterial leg ulcers

A

Painful
Deep
Punched out lesions
Reduced pulses and other signs of chronic leg ischaemia
Occur at pressure points e.g. heel, tips of and between toes, metatarsal heads

172
Q

Features of neuropathic ulcers

A

Painless
Insensate surroundign skin
Warm foot with good pulses

173
Q

Most common type of leg ulcer

A

Venous

174
Q

Marjolin’s ulcer is a form of which cancer type?

A

Squamous cell

175
Q

Complications of leg ulcers

A

Osteomyelitis

Development of squamous cell carcinoma in the ulcer (Marjolin’s ulcer)

176
Q

Management of venous leg ulcer

A

Refer to community leg ulcer clinic
Analgesia
Bed rest and elevate leg
Graduated compression bandage
Venous surgery
Optimise risk factors e.g. smoking, nutrition, weight
Oral pentoxyfylline (unlicensed indication)

Other:
Desloughing e.g. larval therapy
Topical antiseptics

177
Q

Features of duct papilloma (breast)

A

Usually present with nipple discharge
Large papillomas may present with a mass
The discharge usually originates from a single duct
No increase risk of malignancy

178
Q

Causes of urethral stricture

A

Trauma e.g. instrumentation/pelvic fracture
Infection: e.g. gonorrhoea
Chemotherapy
Balanitis xerotica obliterans

179
Q

Presentation of urethral stricture

A

Hesitancy
Terminal dribbling
Poor stream
Strangury: frequent, small, urgent, incomplete (perception) urination
Pis en duex: urge to urinate soon after voiding

180
Q

Management of urethral stricture

A

Dilatation
Stent
Internal urethroplasty

181
Q

Causes of urinary retention

A
Obstrutive mechanical:
BPH
Stricture
Clots
Stone 
Constipation 

Obstructive dynamic: Increased smooth muscle tone (a-adrenergic)
Post operative pain
Drugs: Phenylephrine, midodrine, metaraminol (short half life)

Neurological: Interruption of sensory or motor innervation
Pelvic surgery 
MS
Diabetes mellitus 
Spinal injury/compression

Myogenic: Over-distension of the bladder
Post anaesthesia
High alcohol intake

182
Q

Presentation of acute urinary retention

A

Suprapubic tenderness
Palpable bladder: dull to percussion, can’t get beneath it
Large prostate on PR (need to check anal tone and sacral sensation)
Less than 1L drained on catheterisation

183
Q

Management of acute urine retention

A
Conservative: 
Analgesia 
Privacy 
Running water or hot bath 
Walking

Catheterisation:
Cover with STAT gent
Tamsulosin reduces risk of recatheterisation after retention
TWOC after 24-72hrs

Surgical: TURP if BPH is the cause
If failed TWOC, low RF
Elective procedure

184
Q

Classification of chronic urinary retention

A

High pressure: High detrusor pressure at end of micturition
Low pressure: Low detrusor pressure at end of micturition

185
Q

Causes of high pressure chronic urinary retention

A

Usually a bladder outflow obstruction

186
Q

Presentation of chronic urinary retention

A
Painless
Insidious as bladder capacity grows to above 1.5L 
Overflow incontinence 
Nocturnal enureses 
Hydrnephrosis/RF if high pressure 
Lower abdominal mass 
UTI
187
Q

Management of high pressure chronic urinary retention

A

Catheterise if renal impairment, pain or infection
Hourly urine output and replace: risk of post obstruction diuresis (lose Na and HCO3)
Consider TURP before TWOC

188
Q

Management of low pressure chronic urinary retention

A

Avoid catheterisation if possible as risk of introducing infection

Early TURP:
Often do poorly because of poor detrusor function
May need permanent catheter or self-catheterisation

189
Q

Causes of false haematuria

A

Rifampicin
Beetroot
PV bleed
Porphyria

190
Q

Gold standard test for kidney stone

A

Spiral non-contrast CT-KUB

191
Q

Kidney stones usually made of…

A

Calcium oxalate

192
Q

Imaging used in suspected kidney stone

A

Spiral CT-KUB without contrast (gold standard, 99% of stones visible)
IVU: dense nephrogram, clubbing of calyces, Failure of flow to the bladder, Standing column of contrast
USS: hydronephrosis
KUB XR

193
Q

Foods that increase kidney stone risk

A

High oxalate foods:
Chocolate
Tea
Strawberries

194
Q

Indications for active kidney stone removal

A

Low likelihood of spontaneous passage e.g. stone over 10mm
Persistent obstruction
Renal insufficiency
Infection

195
Q

Initial management of kidney stone

A

Analgesia: diclofenac 75mg PO/IM or 100mg PR
Opioids if NSAIDS CI

Fluids: IV if unable to tolerate PO
Abx if infection e.g. cefuroxime

196
Q

Conservative management of kidney stones likely to be successful if…

A

Stone is <5mm and in lower 1/3 of ureter (or lower)

197
Q

Presentation of kidney stones

A

Ureteric colic:
Severe loin pain radiating to the groin
Associated with N&V
Pt cannot lie still

Bladder or urethral obstruction:
Bladder irritability: freq, dysuria, haematuria
Strangury
Suprapubic pain radiating to tip of penis or in labia
Pain and haematuria worse at end of micturition

O/e: haematuria, usually no loin tenderness

198
Q

Presentation of renal cell carcinoma

A

50% are incidental
Tirad of: Haematuria, loin pain, loin mass
Systemic: anorexia, malaise, fatigue, weight loss, PUO
Clot retention
Invasion of L renal vein causes varicocele
Cannonball mets causing SOB
Paraneoplastic features

199
Q

Hormones produced by renal cell cancers

A

EPO
PTHrP
Renin
ACTH

Also can cause Amyloidosis

200
Q

Presentation of transitional cell carcinoma (renal)

A

Painless haematuria
Frequency, urgency dysuria
Urinary tract obstruction

201
Q

Risk factors for renal cell cancer

A
Obesity 
Smoking
HTN
Dialysis 
Genetics
202
Q

Risk factors for renal transitional cell cancer

A

Smoking
Amine exposure (rubber industry)
Cyclophosphamide

203
Q

Presentation of bladder cancer

A

Painless haematuria
Voiding irritability, frequency, urgency
Recurrent UTIs
Retention and obstructive renal failure

Palpable bladder mass, palpable liver and anaemia on examination

204
Q

All mouth ulcers persisting for greater than….should be sent to oral surgery as a 2 week wait referral.

A

3 weeks

205
Q

A cholesteatoma is…

A

A cholesteatoma consists of squamous epithelium that is ‘trapped’ within the skull base causing local destruction. It is most common in patients aged 10-20 years.

Main features
foul smelling discharge
hearing loss

Other features are determined by local invasion:
vertigo
facial nerve palsy
cerebellopontine angle syndrome

Otoscopy
‘attic crust’ - seen in the uppermost part of the ear drum

Management
patients are referred to ENT for consideration of surgical removal

206
Q

Features of otosclerosis

A

Otosclerosis describes the replacement of normal bone by vascular spongy bone. It causes a progressive conductive deafness due to fixation of the stapes at the oval window. Otosclerosis is autosomal dominant and typically affects young adults

Onset is usually at 20-40 years - features include:
conductive deafness
tinnitus
normal tympanic membrane*
positive family history