General Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Side effects of corticosteroids:

A

Corticosteroids (think CORTICOSTEROIDS):Cushing’s syndromeOsteoporosisRetardation of growthThin skin, easy bruisingImmunosuppressionCataracts and glaucomaOedemaSuppression of HPA axisTeratogenicEmotional disturbance (including psychosis)Rise in BPObesity (truncal)Increased hair growth (hirsutism)Diabetes mellitusStriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the “3 I’s” of “Thumbprinting” ?

A

Infection (C.diff or salmonella colitis) / Inflammation (UC or Crohn’s) / Ischaemia (Ischaemic colitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Surgical Sieve “TIN CAN BEDs”

A
TraumaInfectionNeoplasm Congenital AcquiredNeuroBloodEndocrineDrugsSyphilis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) differentials

A

Oesophageal carcinoma (Squamous/ adenocarcinoma)Achalasia (LES dysfunction)Oesophageal / peptic strictureHyperthyroidismOesophageal candidiasis (immunosuppressed patients)Bulbar Palsy (CN IX - XII) Trypanosomiasis (Chagas’ disease) tropical diseaseGORDExtrinsic Malignancies (lung/lymph node) can externally compress oesophagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the 3 Bacteria that can cause life threatening infections in patients with splenectomy.

A
Neisseria Meningitidis (aka Menigococcus)Streptococcus Pneumonia (aka Streptococcus)Haemophilus Influenza
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common places for oesophageal metastases

A

The 2 L’s - Liver and Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List differentials for a RIF mass

A

Appendix abscess / Mass (omentum envelopes inflammed appendix giving a mass like feeling on palpation)Hepatomegaly Crohn’sCaecal carcinoma Meckels diverticulum (paeds)Ileo-ceacal stricture (Yersinia and TB - 2 rare but important differentials to be excluded with CXR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List the causes of Pancreatitis

A

I GET SMASHED

IatrogenicGall stonesEthanol (alcohol)Trauma SteroidsMumpsAutoimmune Scorpion biteHyperlipidaemia ERCPDrugs (Azothioprine/ Anticonvulsants (ex. sodium valproate) / Antimicrobials (metronidazole) / Diuretics (ex. Thiazides and Furosemide)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List post surgical complications of GI surgery

A
Infection (Suture site/from laporotomy/UTI/ Hospital acquired pneumonia) DVT/PEHaemorrhage ObstructionParalytic ileus (bowel goes to sleep)Anastomotic leak
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name the 3 Features of Charcot’s Triad and which condition this indicates.

A

Fever (usually with rigors)Jaundice RUQ pain Ascending Cholangitis (infection of the biliary tree)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

5 risk factors for acute cholecystitis

A
5F'sFemale Forty FatFertile Family History
Pregnancy / oral contraceptives (oestrogen causes more bile to be secreted into bile duct) / any condition that causes haemolysis (sickle cell disease etc) / Malabsorption (ileal resection / crohns)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the normal diameters of the Small bowel / Large bowel / Appendix / Caecum ?

A

3-6-9 rule Small bowel <3cmLarge bowel <6cmAppendix <6mmCaecum <9cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Murphy’s sign?

A

Apply pressure to RUQ and ask patient to inhale. Cessation of inspiratory effort due to pain in RUQ is indicative of Gall bladder Inflammation (i.e cholecystitis and not biliary colic).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name 6 complications of gall stones

A

Acute Pancreatitis Gall bladder mucocoele (mucous filled overdistended gall bladder - can become infected and lead to empyema)Porcelain gall bladder (calcified gall bladder wall)Small bowel obstruction (lodge at ileo-coecal valve)Ascending cholangitis (infection of biliary tree)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List the Glasgow-Imrie score criteria that determines the severity of Pancreatitis?

A

Remember Mnemonic PANCREAS (1 point for each)

PaO2 (<60 mmHg / < 8kPa )Age (> **55** y/o)Neutrophilia (>15)Calcium (<2)uRea (>16)Enzymes (LDH > 600 AST/ALT > 200)Albumin (<32)Sugar (glucose >10)
If 3 or greater - Severe pancreatitis is likely## Footnotehttps://www.mdcalc.com/calc/3287/glasgow-imrie-criteria-severity-acute-pancreatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

State Courvoisier’s Law:

A

Painless jaundice and palpable RUQ mass is indicative that pathology is not caused by gall stones and thus an obstructing pancreatic or biliary neoplasm until proven other wise. Could also be a gall bladder stricture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a Krukenberg Tumour?

A

Rare tumours that arise in the ovaries of women as a result of metastases of a gastric malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

At what level of serum bilirubin does jaundice become clinically evident?

A

2-3 mg/dL or 34-51 µMNormal Bilirubin: 0-21 µM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the most common infective organisms in ascending cholangitis

A

E.Coli (27%) / Klebsiella (16%) / Enterococcus (15%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the Features of Reynad’s Pentad and the pathology this pentad is associated with.

A
RUQ pain FeverJaundice Hypotension Confusion
Cholangitis (patients may also present with tachycardia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List the causes of cholangitis.

A

Usually due to obstruction of the biliary treeGall stones ERCPCholangiocarcinoma More rarely Primary sclerosing cholangitisIschaemic cholangiopathy (damage/stricturing of biliary tree due to lack of blood flow). Parasitic infection

22
Q

What is the mortality rate of Cholangitis?

A

5-10% when treated with antibiotics

23
Q

What is the initial steps of management in cholangitis

A

IV Fluids Broad spec Antibiotics (do not delay and wait for culture results as these patients can become septic very quickly) Analgesia Other investigaitonsLFTs Bloods (FBC)CultureImaging:Ultrasound for stones and duct dilatation MRCP if dilatation but no stone identified on ultrasoundERCP for biliary decompression sphincterotomy/stenting if stone identified. Patient may need laparoscopic cholecystectomy in the long term. If patient too unwell for ERCP then a percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC) can be performed.

24
Q

List the common sites of metastases for Colon Cancer.

A

Remember 3L’s : (oesophageal cancer is 2 L’s)Liver Lung Lymph nodes

Also more rarely:BonePeritoneumBrain Skin
25
Q

Colon carcinomas are most likely to be what kind of tumour?

A

Adenocarcinomas

26
Q

Which kind of polyps are most likely to become malignant?

A

Sessile (adhered tightly to mucosal wall) and Villous (histological subdivision of polyps with large surface area)

27
Q

What is the screening process for colorectal cancer in the UK?

A

Men and Women aged 60-75 are tested every 2 years using a FIT (Faecal Immunochemistry Test) whereby antibodies bind to haemoglobin to detect blood. If blood detected - specialist nurse carries out colonoscopy.

28
Q

Give the ages and associated symptoms that need urgent investigation for bowel cancer.

A

<40 - Unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain<50 - Unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia)<60 - Iron deficient anaemia or change in bowel habit

29
Q

Pseudo-Obstruction increases the risk of which three pathologies?

A

Toxic Megacolon Ischaemic Colitis Perforation

30
Q

Causes of Pseudo-Obstruction

A

Surgery (orthopaedic)Severe illness (cardiac ischaemia)Trauma Electrolyte imbalance (Hypercalcaemia/Hypomagnesaemia/Hypothyroidism/Hypokalaemia)Neurological (Parkinsons/MS/Hirschsprung’s disease)Medications (Opiates/Calcium channel blockers/Anti-depressants)

31
Q

Identify the management steps of pseudo-obstruction.

A

Conservative (i.e Nil by mouth/ IV fluids/ NG tube if vomiting)If this fails to resolve within 48hrs Endoscopic decompression with flatus tubeFailing thisIV Neostigmine (anticholinesterase) - should be avoided if possible due to complications.Surgery required if all this fails or evidence of perforation

32
Q

Which organs are retroperitoneal?

A

Remember mnemonic SAD PUCKER

Suprarenals (adrenal glands)Aorta/IVCDuodenum (except proximal cap 2cm)PancreasUretersColon (Ascending and Descending)KidneysEsophagusRectum
33
Q

List the main layers of the GI tract

A

Remember “Marks + Spencers X2” i.e MSMSMucosa (3 layers - Epithelium / Lamina propria/ Muscularis interna)SubmucosaMuscularis propria/externa (circular and longitudinal)Serosa or adventia (when it is fibrous connective tisseu)Remember muscularis propria is divided into 2 layers (circularis and longitudinal) by the myenteric/ auerbach plexus. Submucosal / Meissners plexus (Secretions and dilation of blood vessels)Myenteric / Auerbach’s plexus (muscle relaxation)

34
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease is associated with an increased risk of developing which infection?

A

Clostridium difficile

35
Q

List the complications of C.difficile Infection

A
Toxic Megacolon Perforation Peritonitis Sepsis Acute Renal Failure Hypokalaemia Hypoalbuminaemia
36
Q

List two inflammatory areas associated with C.difficile infection

A

Iritis (inflammation of the Iris)| Arthritis

37
Q

Name two classical features of a hernia on examination? And a situation where they cannot be exhibited.

A
Cough reflex (owing to an increase in intra-abdominal pressure)Can be reduced (i.e pushed back)
If bowel or mesentery gets caught in the hernial orifice (where they have herniated through the abdominal wall for example) then neither the cough reflex or reducibility are elicitable. This is called an incarcerated/obstructed hernia
38
Q

Name the contents of the spermatic cord that pass through the processus vaginalis and inguinal canal?

A

Remember rule of 3’s:3 Arteries - Testicular / Cremasteric / Vas deferens 3 Nerves - Genitofemoral / Sympathetics / Ilioinguinal (not actually part of the cord but pass through the canal)3 Other structures - Vas deferens / Veins (pampniform plexus) / Lymphatics

39
Q

What are the components of Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

Medial – lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle.Lateral – inferior epigastric vessels.Inferior – inguinal ligament.

40
Q

Features of Crohn’s Disease

A

Remember Crow’s Nests (dont set on fire - no smoking)

41
Q

Pre-op assessment Includes _______

A

**PMH **(including anesthesia history - previus rxns or FH/ Sickle Cell disease)ASA gradeConsent **Fasting **Bloods (FBC/U+Es/LFTs/HbA1C/ABG/Clotting/Group + save/Crossmatch)Investigations (ECG/Echo/Lung function tests (if resp disease)MRSA ScreeningMedication changes - ** Stop:Anticoagulants** - Bleeding * COCP or HRT - VTE risk** Corticosteroids** - adrenal suppression Diabetes* **- Sulfonylureas (gliclazide - hypoglycaemia)/ Metformin (metabolic acidosis) /SGLT2 (DKA) ** VTE prophylaxis **

42
Q

Post-operative anti-emetics and contra-indications

A

Prophylactic:Ondansetron (5HT3 antagonist) - avoid if prolonged QT risk **Dexamethasone **- avoid if diabetic or immunosuppressed Cyclizine (H1 receptor antagonist) - avoid in heart failure and elderly patients. Rescue:Ondansetron Prochlorperazine (dopamine antagonist) - avoid in parkinsons Cyclizine

43
Q

Risk factors for Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia and Diagnositic Imaging of choice

A

FemaleOlder AgeAtrial Fibrillation High cholesterolHigh BPContrast CT

44
Q

Medications that need to be stopped prior to surgery

A

AnticoagulantsCOCP/HRT (4 weeks beforehand)Steroids (adrenal suppression)Diabetes (sulfonylureas/SGLT2 inhibitors/Metformin)

45
Q

Which antiemetics should be avoided in a bowel obstruction secondary to a mechanical obstruction, as they stimulate peristalsis?What would the most appropriate choice of antiemetic be?

A

Prokinetic antiemetics such as metoclopramide should be avoided in a bowel obstruction secondary to a mechanical obstruction, as they stimulate peristalsis. **Cyclizine **would be an appropriate choice of antiemetic.

46
Q

What bloods need to be monitored following prescribing of a LMWH post-operatively for VTE prophylaxis?

A

Potassium (hyperkalaemia risk)Platelets (LMWH induced thrombocytopenia)Renal function (U+E’s - LMWH excreted renally)

47
Q

Side effect to be aware of in bisphosphonates?

A

Ex. Alendronic acidOsteonecrosis of the JawDysphagia/Oesophagitis/GORD

48
Q

Risk factors for post-operative nausea and vomiting are:

A

FemaleHistory of motion sickness or previous PONVNon-smokerUse of postoperative opiatesYounger ageUse of volatile anaesthetics

49
Q

RememberAdhesional obstruction tends to be managed _____ (drip and suck) for a period of time (up to ____ hours).Obstruction **without ** previous surgery usually requires operative intervention.A _____ study can be an aid to decision making after 48 hours of conservative management.Contrast reaching the colon predicts resolution without surgery. The hypertonic contrast medium itself can be therapeutic.

A

Conservatively 72 hrsgastrografin contrast## Footnotefile:///Users/cianohalloran/Downloads/Emergency%20General%20Surgery%20%20Commissioning%20Guide.pdf

50
Q

What are the diameters of bowel obstruction?

A

3-6-6-9 rule !