General Subjects Flashcards
The NSWPF is committed to ensuring that the collection of information from Human Sources is:
a. purposeful.
b. ethical.
c. tailored to gathering information that is directly relevant to NSWPF lawful functions.
d. All the above.
d. All the above.
The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is supicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘S’ stand for?
secret / suspicious / significant / sensitive
Sensitive.
A 17 year old girl enters your police station and informs you that she fears violence from her former boyfriend. You believe that the matter is one that warrants the issue of an AVO. The application for the order may be made to the court by:
either the girl or a police officer / any person over the age of 18 / the girl only / a police officer only
Either the girl or a police officer.
Deaths arising from critical incidents must be reported to the Coroner. Any media enquiries on the cause of death should be referred to the:
a. Region Commander/specialist Commander equivalent.
b. Police Media Unit.
c. Senior Investigating Officer.
d. Coroner’s Office.
d. Coroner’s Office.
You are called to a disturbance on the footpath outside a place of worship. A person has attached anti-religious placards to the front fence and is using a loudhailer to incite the gathered crowd to assault the worshippers because of their beliefs. The worshippers are too frightened to leave the premises. The person’s actions constitute an offence under section 93Z of the Crimes Act 1900. Prior to commencing proceedings, you must seek approval from:
a. a police officer of the rank of sergeant or above.
b. any commissioned police officer.
c. a police officer of the rank of superintendent or above.
d. the Director of Public Prosecutions.
d. the Director of Public Prosecutions.
Which Act allows for the issue of Court Attendance Notices?
a. Crimes (Administration of Sentences) Act 1999.
b. Local Court Act 2007.
c. Evidence Act 1995.
d. Criminal Procedure Act 1986.
d. Criminal Procedure Act 1986.
Inculpatory evidence tends to prove:
a. relevance.
b. the innocence of the defendant.
c. reliability.
d. the guilt of the defendant.
d. the guilt of the defendant.
You are the most senior officer who first arrives at the scene of a critical incident. You are required to remain at the scene until relieved by:
a. the duty officer.
b. the senior critical incident investigator.
c. either (a), (b) or (d).
d. the local area commander.
c. either (a), (b) or (d).
You arrest a person on an arrest warrant. You must:
a. take the person to the nearest correctional centre as soon as practicable.
b. take the person to the nearest police station for the purpose of a bail determination.
c. bring the person before a Judge, Magistrate or an authorised officer as soon as practicable.
d. charge the person with the warrant and bail the person to appear before the next sitting of the relevant court.
c. bring the person before a Judge, Magistrate or an authorised officer as soon as practicable.
You attend a local supermarket in relation to a male person held for stealing items the value of which is less than $300. You make the necessary enquiries and decide to issue a penalty notice (CIN). The male is 17 years old. You may:
NOT ISSUE A CIN - UNDER 18 YEARS.
NOT ISSUE A CIN - UNDER 18 YEARS.
A brief of evidence for a Coroner’s matter is due:
- within 14 days following death
- by the due date listed in the notice from the coroner
- within 30 days following death
- 14 days after receipt of report by foensic pathologist
By the due date listed in the notice from the Coroner.
The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 requires commands to develop an Aboriginal Action Plan. What is the purpose of the plan?
a. To make Aboriginal people aware of the command’s focus on crime.
b. To provide Aboriginal people a voice in how their community is policed.
c. To address Aboriginal issues at a local, regional and state level.
d. To identify social issues impacting on Aboriginal people.
b. To provide Aboriginal people a voice in how their community is policed.
It is sufficient to include on a statement obtained from a child, or an adult who is apparently of appreciably below average intelligence, an endorsement containing words to the effect:
a. that the statement was made in the presence of a support person.
b. that the statement is true.
c. that the statement contains no lies.
d. either (b) or (c).
d. either (b) or (c).
You are on rest day and receive a phone call that you are being recalled to duty for the purpose of a targeted drug test. Who has authority to recall you to duty for this purpose?
a. An Assistant Commissioner or above.
b. A Superintendent or above.
c. An Inspector or above.
d. You cannot be recalled to duty for targeted drug testing.
a. An Assistant Commissioner or above.
A request for a media ‘blackout’ can only be made in exceptional circumstanes, usually where there is a risk to life. Such requests are generally made at Assistance commissioner level. In the event of a siege, who else may make such a request.
A duty officer / Any officer of the rank of sergeant or above / The most senior police officer at the scene / The operational commander or senior police negotiator
The operational commander or senior police negotiator.
You have witnessed an adult consuming alcohol in a current alcohol free zone. As a police officer you may:
a. Seize any alcohol and dispose of it immediately.
b. Issue a penalty notice.
c. Issue a caution and seize the alcohol.
d. Warn the person that drinking in an alcohol free zone is not an offence.
a. Seize any alcohol and dispose of it immediately.
A car and push bike are involved in a crash on a road. The driver of the car holds a learner licence and was being supervised by a full licence holder. The bicycle rider is a male aged 30. You are able to breath test the driver of the car:
a. but nobody else involved in the crash.
b. and the bicycle rider.
c. and the person supervising the learner driver.
d. , the person supervising the learner driver and also the bicycle rider.
c. and the person supervising the learner driver.
Mobile phpones and portable radios should not be used within how many metres of a suspected explosive or incendiary device?
5 / 10 / 25 / 100
25 metres.
Which of the following persons may take a buccal swab?
a. An appropriately qualified police officer.
b. A dental prosthetist.
c. A medical practitioner.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
Which of the following is a prohibited weapon?
a flick knife / a cross bow / a bowen knife belt / all of the above
All of the above.
Evidence of an admission is inadmissible if influenced by violence, oppressive, inhuman or degrading conduct or a threat of conduct of that kind. These principles are laid down in:
a. Section 84 of the Evidence Act 1995.
b. Section 48 of the Evidence Act 1995.
c. Clause 9 of the Evidence Regulation 2015.
d. Clause 10 of the Evidence Regulation 2015.
a. Section 84 of the Evidence Act 1995.
Under Work Health and Safety legislation, a police officer is at work throughout the time when the officer is on duty or:
a. off duty.
b. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but only when authorised to do so by his/her commander.
c. recalled to duty for a specified purpose.
d. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but not otherwise.
d. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but not otherwise.
The identity of children connected with criminal proceedings as defendants, witnesses or otherwise:
a. may be published only with the consent of the presiding magistrate or judge.
b. may be published with the consent of the registrar of the Children’s Court.
c. must never be published.
d. may be published only with the approval of the Director - NSW Police Media Unit.
c. must never be published.
The Criminal Infringement Notice Scheme sets out the circumstances when a CIN MUST be withdrawn. Of the following, which is NOT one of those circumstances?
a. It was inadvertently issued to a serving police officer (not in compliance with policy).
b. It was inadvertently issued to a person under 18 years of age.
c. The identity of the suspect cannot be confirmed.
d. When three CINs were issued to the same suspect at the same time for three prescribed offences.
d. When three CINs were issued to the same suspect at the same time for three prescribed offences.
Which of the following decisions are the ONLY bail decisions that can be made for an offence for which there is a right to release?
a. A decision to release the person without bail.
b. A decision to grant bail to the person (with or without the imposition of bail conditions).
c. A decision to refuse bail.
d. Both A & B.
d. Both A & B.
You are working an operation in relation to drug activity at your local railway station, which is on a prescribed route. Are you able to utilise a drug detection dog without a warrant?
a. No, railway stations are not authorised under s148 of LEPRA.
b. Yes, by virtue of s148 of LEPRA.
c. No, as the enabling legislation has been repealed.
d. Yes, but only with written authority from Transport for NSW.
b. Yes, by virtue of s148 of LEPRA.
A man comes to the enquiry counter at the police station and hands you a wallet containing personal papers and $250 cash. He tells you he found the property on his front lawn this morning. You would:
a. create an entry in your official notebook.
b. create a miscellaneous property record in EFIMS.
c. create an entry on the General Station Pad.
d. only be required to create a record if the wallet’s owner could not be identified/located by the end of your shift.
b. create a miscellaneous property record in EFIMS.
Section 116 of LEPRA involves determining reasonable time in an investigation period when a person is arrested. What circumstance below would be recognised as a reasonable time?
a. Any time that is reasonably required to carry out charging procedures in respect of the person.
b. Whether a police officer reasonably requires time to prepare for any questioning of the person.
c. Whether the person requires refreshments or not.
d. Any time that is required to allow the person to consult at the place where the person is being detained.
b. Whether a police officer reasonably requires time to prepare for any questioning of the person.
Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, which of the following is an authorised applicant for a court order when an intimate forensic procedure is required and the suspect refuses?
a. Any police officer of or above the rank of sergeant.
b. Any commissioned police officer.
c. Any police officer.
d. A custody manager within the meaning of LEPRA.
d. A custody manager within the meaning of LEPRA.
At all times when interacting with a Human Source, NSWPF officers will conduct themselves in a professional and ethical manner. In deciding if your behaviour is professional and ethical, you should be firstly guided by:
a. the Police Act 1990 and regulations.
b. NSWPF Handbook.
c. the NSWPF Code of Conduct and Ethics.
d. your own moral compass.
c. the NSWPF Code of Conduct and Ethics.
As a police officer, you have the functions of an inspector appointed under the Smoke-free Environment Act 2000 in relation to smoke-free areas in:
a. enclosed public places only.
b. outdoor public places only.
c. transport-related outdoor public places only.
d. any designated smoke-free public place.
c. transport-related outdoor public places only.
A police officer is not required to return keys confiscated from an intoxicated driver pursuant to section 148E or 148G of the Road Transport Act 2013 unless he or she is satisfied that the person making the request is capable of exercising proper control of the motor vehicle and is also:
a. the holder of a valid driver licence for the class of motor vehicle concerned.
b. the registered owner of the motor vehicle.
c. in possession of a court order pursuant to section 148I(3).
d. entitled to lawful possession of the motor vehicle.
d. entitled to lawful possession of the motor vehicle.
A police officer may seize liquor in the possession of a person in a public place if the officer suspects on reasonable grounds that:
a. the person is over the age of 18 years.
b. the person is under the age of 18 years and is under the supervision of a responsible adult.
c. the person is under the age of 18 years and not under the supervision of a responsible adult.
d. the person is under the age of 18 years and has a reasonable excuse for its possession.
c. the person is under the age of 18 years and not under the supervision of a responsible adult.
A mobile phone is seized as an exhibit at the scene of an arrest. Until it is entered in EFIMS, the exhibit is to remain in the custody of the:
a. senior arresting officer.
b. any police officer present during the arrest.
c. duty officer.
d. local area commander.
a. senior arresting officer.
Within how many days after the seizure of a dangerous article does the person from whom it was seized or its owner have to apply for its return?
7 days / 14 days / 28 days / 60 days
28 days.
You are NOT to open sealed plastic drug security bags prior to analysis unless exceptional circumstances exist and ONLY with the written approval of the:
a. Exhibits Officer.
b. Police Commander (or delegate).
c. Officer-in-Charge of the matter under investigation.
d. Exhibits Reception Officer - FASS.
b. Police Commander (or delegate).
In relation to locating information about dementia sufferers, the Safely Home database can be found:
a. in WebCOPS.
b. on the NSW Government website.
c. on the NSWPF Intranet.
d. on the SAP system.
c. on the NSWPF Intranet.
You detect a young person committing an act of graffiti. He later makes full admissions in the presence of his parents and is genuinely remorseful for his actions. The young person has no prior criminal history. In these circumstances you would:
a. give a warning for the offence.
b. refer the matter to a Specialist Youth Officer recommending it be dealt with by caution.
c. refer the matter to a Specialist Youth Officer recommending it be dealt with by conference.
d. commence proceedings for the matter to be dealt with by a court.
d. commence proceedings for the matter to be dealt with by a court.
Graffiti matters cannot be deatl with under young offenders act.
A police officer may establish a crime scene on premises providing the offence under investigation falls within the criteria set out in s 90 of LEPRA. Of the following, which is NOT one of the criteria?
a. An offence committed in connection with a traffic accident resulting in the death of a person.
b. A serious indictable offence committed on the premises.
c. A prescribed offence committed on the premises.
d. Evidence of the commission of a serious indictable offence committed elsewhere.
c. A prescribed offence committed on the premises.
Criminal proceedings for summary matters before the Local Court are commenced by:
a. issuing and filing an application notice.
b. issuing and filing a court attendance notice.
c. creation of the charge in COPS.
d. acceptance of the charge in COPS.
b. issuing and filing a court attendance notice.
You attend a residence in relation to a domestic violence incident where a 14-year-old boy assaulted his mother by slapping her face. He admits the offence and has no prior history of violence. You would:
a. issue a CAN as the offence is not covered by the Young Offenders Act 1997.
b. issue a warning for the offence in accordance with Part 3 of the Young Offenders Act 1997.
c. recommend the matter be dealt with by way of a caution/conference under the Young Offenders Act 1997.
d. record the incident such that the Young Offenders Act 1997 applies.
c. recommend the matter be dealt with by way of a caution/conference under the Young Offenders Act 1997.
You are tasked to assist ambulance officers transport a person to a mental health facility for assessment pursuant to s 19(3) of the Mental Health Act 2007. The ambulance officers direct you to remove your firearm. You should:
a. keep your firearm holstered unless you believe it is safer to secure it as per the NSWPF Handbook.
b. always keep your firearm holstered.
c. remove your firearm and secure it in your police vehicle.
d. remove your firearm and secure it in the ambulance.
a. keep your firearm holstered unless you believe it is safer to secure it as per the NSWPF Handbook.
You detain a registrable person for the purpose of serving the required notices. You MUST inform the person of the reason for their detention; that the person will be released immediately after the notices have been served; and what else?
a. Their refusal to sign the acknowledgement of having been served with the required notices is an offence.
b. Their rights as a person in custody pursuant to Part 9 of LEPRA.
c. That their detention is authorised under the Act.
d. The official caution.
c. That their detention is authorised under the Act.
A security guard who has his security licence suspended or revoked must surrender the licence to a police officer or other approved person:
Immediately.
You apprehend a person in possession of a crossbow. This person would be proceeded against under the provisions of the:
a. Law Enforcement (Powers and Responsibilities) Act 2002.
b. Weapons Prohibition Act 1998.
c. Crimes Act 1900.
d. Firearms Act 1996.
b. Weapons Prohibition Act 1998.
s 16 of the Bail Act 2013 contains two flow charts illustrating the key features of bail decisions. Flow Chart 1 illustrates the ‘Show cause requirement’. Flow Chart 2 illustrates the:
Unacceptable risk test as it applies to all offences, other than offences for which there is a right to release.
You collect a drug exhibit from the station officer and notice that the seal on the auditable drug exhibit bag has been broken. In this case you should:
a. immediately notify the officer in charge of the case.
b. immediately notify the Region Commander or specialist equivalent.
c. immediately notify the Police Integrity Commission.
d. immediately notify your Local Area Commander.
d. immediately notify your Local Area Commander.
While conducting a foot patrol of the local area you stop to speak to a group of young people. At this time you observe one of the young persons with a packet of cigarettes. You may seize the cigarettes if the young person is under what age?
a. 18 years.
b. 16 years.
c. 14 years.
d. 10 years.
a. 18 years.
You investigate a motor vehicle crash in which a person has been injured. The matter is one that can be dealt with by the issue of a penalty notice. Your enquiries should be completed and the penalty notice posted within:
a. 24 hours of the offence.
b. 48 hours of the offence.
c. 28 days of the offence.
d. 3 calendar months of the offence.
d. 3 calendar months of the offence.
You are the investigating officer in relation to a major traffic crash involving injury to a person who was taken by ambulance to hospital for treatment. You are later asked to provide information about that person. You may supply certain information about the person to:
a. the loss assessor estimating the damage to the vehicles.
b. a representative of the driver’s insurance company.
c. a relevant employee of the hospital/s concerned or the ambulance service.
d. a concerned witness to the crash.
c. a relevant employee of the hospital/s concerned or the ambulance service.
A man and woman are seen breaking into the local golf club and are detained inside the premises by the manager. Police are called and, when spoken to, the offenders admit they were going to steal alcohol and cigarettes from the premises but were caught before they could do so. The offence is:
a. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900.
b. Break and enter with intent to steal - s 113 Crimes Act 1900.
c. Attempt Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900.
d. Enter dwelling house with intent to commit serious indictable offence - s 111 Crimes Act 1900.
b. Break and enter with intent to steal - s 113 Crimes Act 1900.
Proceedings for offences under the Graffiti Control Act 2008 must be commenced not later than:
6 monnths / 12 months / 2 years / 5 years
2 years from when the offence is allegedto have been committed.
The power given to police to stop and search a person upon reasonable suspicion that there is in that person’s possession any prohibited plant or prohibited drug is found in:
Crimes Act / Drug misuse and trafficking act / LEPRA / Common Law
s 21 of LEPRA.
You attend your local Woolworths store and speak with the store manager. She tells you she saw an employee remove $100 from a cash register and place it in their pocket. The offence committed is:
a. Embezzlement - s 157 Crimes Act 1900.
b. Stealing - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
c. Larceny as a Clerk or Servant - s 156 Crimes Act 1900.
d. Fraudulent appropriation - s 124 Crimes Act 1900.
c. Larceny as a Clerk or Servant - s 156 Crimes Act 1900.
All interactions betwen the NSWPF and an ongoing Human Source must be recorded in:
Human Source Reports / Secure corporate emails / SITREP’s / Contact Advice Reports
Contact Advice Reports
When a person is charged with a serious offence that requires the mandatory completion of a Suspect Financial Profile Questionnaire (SFPQ), the SFPQ must be completed within:
a. 24 hours of charging.
b. 48 hours of charging.
c. 7 days of charging.
d. 14 days of charging.
a. 24 hours of charging.
The power for a police officer to turn out, or assist in turning out, a person who is intoxicated, violent or disorderly from the premises of a registered club, upon the request of the secretary of the club, comes from the:
a. Summary Offences Act 1988.
b. LEPRA.
c. Liquor Act 2007.
d. Inclosed Lands Protection Act 1901.
c. Liquor Act 2007.
Cash and small valuables seized as exhibits must be sealed in:
a. paper evidence bags with evidence tape.
b. plastic drug security bags.
c. paper drug security bags (PAB24) with evidence tape.
d. reuseable secure money satchels.
b. plastic drug security bags.
A 13-year-old boy is detained for stealing a bicycle from the front lawn of a house. Which of the following would prevent a caution being administered under the Young Offenders Act 1997?
Been to court recently / been to a Youth Justice Conference / Had 3 previous warnings / Had 3 previous cautions
The boy has had three previous Cautions.
The Cannabis Cautioning Scheme covers offences involving:
a. all forms of cannabis and it’s derivatives.
b. all synthetic forms of cannabis only.
c. equipment for administering cannabis only.
d. dried cannabis leaf, stalks, heads, and equipment for administration.
d. dried cannabis leaf, stalks, heads, and equipment for administration.
The Safely Home Program is a joint venture between:
a. the NSW Police Force and the Alzheimer’s Association.
b. the NSW Police Force and NSW Health.
c. the Attorney General’s Department and NSW Health.
d. the NSW Police Force and the Office of the Public Guardian.
a. the NSW Police Force and the Alzheimer’s Association.
A person commits an offence if they cause or permit a motor vehicle intruder alarm to sound, whether continuously or intermittently, for more than:
a. 45 seconds after the alarm first sounds for vehicles manufactured on or after 1 September 1997.
b. 90 seconds after the alarm first sounds for a vehicle manufactured before 1 September 1997.
c. 60 seconds after the alarm first sounds irrespective of when the vehicle was manufactured.
d. A and B are both correct.
d. A and B are both correct.
When an appropriately qualifed person is taking a hair sample, they should:
cut 15 to 20 hairs / cut 150 to 200 hairs / pluck 15 to 20 hairs with roots attached / pluck 150 to 200 hairs with roots attached.
pluck 15 to 20 hairs with roots attached.
The obligation for ensuring that drug exhibits are destroyed as soon as possible after being seized rests with:
a. the commander.
b. the duty officer.
c. the shift supervisor.
d. all police officers.
d. all police officers.
Tow truck drivers, when working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, must hold a current Tow Truck Driver’s Certificate. This driver’s certificate must be:
a. worn at the crash scene so that the face is clearly visible.
b. carried and produced on demand to a police officer.
c. need not be produced to police.
d. produced to any person involved in the crash.
a. worn at the crash scene so that the face is clearly visible.
When a drug, which is not less than the traffickable quantity, is in police possession it is to be taken to an analyst for analysis as soon as practicable after coming into police possession no later than:
a. 7 days.
b. 14 days.
c. 21 days.
d. 28 days.
b. 14 days.
A provisional order granted and served on a person under Part 7 of the Crimes (Domestic and Personal Violence) Act 2007, unless sooner revoked or the application for a final AVO is withdrawn or dismissed, remains in force until:
a. midnight on the 7th day after the order is made or the provisions of s 32(2) of the Act apply.
b. 24 hours has elapsed from the date/time the order is made or the provisions of s 32(2) of the Act apply.
c. 72 hours has elapsed from the date/time the order is made or the provisions of s 32(2) of the Act apply.
d. the provisions of s 32(2) of the Act apply.
d. the provisions of s 32(2) of the Act apply.
Under Part 4 of the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989, a directing officer may invoke additional powers for the protection of life and property. A directing officer includes a police officer of or above the rank of:
a. the most senior police officer at the scene (not being a probationary constable).
b. sergeant.
c. inspector.
d. superintendent.
b. sergeant.
A hotel licence applies to licenced premises where liquor is sold and supplied for consumption:
off the premises only / on the premises only / on or away from the premises / on the premises of a registered club
On or away from the premises.
S 78 of the Coroners Act 2009 gives the coroner the power to suspend an inquest or inquiry. Under what circumstances woulda coroner use this power?
a. When a person suspected of causing a death, fire or explosion is charged with a relevant indictable offence.
b. The evidence relied upon is inadmissible.
c. The witnesses are not credible.
d. When the inquest or inquiry attracts unwanted media attention.
a. When a person suspected of causing a death, fire or explosion is charged with a relevant indictable offence.
Police attend an elderly couple’s home to investigate a DV matter between their son and daughter-in-law who were visiting for dinner. The elderly couple were not involved in the matter but are both licensed and have two registered firearms in their possession. You would:
a. take no action concerning the firearms as the couple were not involved in the matter.
b. enquire as to the presence of the firearms, then search for and seize them with consent (or warrant if required).
c. request the son and daughter-in-law to leave the premises to eliminate the issue of the firearms.
d. have the elderly couple take the firearms to another person who is licensed for safekeeping.
b. enquire as to the presence of the firearms, then search for and seize them with consent (or warrant if required).
A Field C.A.N. is a non-custodial alternative to arrest. However, you can issue a Field C.A.N. to a person who has been arrested and conveyed to a police station when:
a. there are already too many people in custody.
b. time constraints do not permit formal charging.
c. identification, investigation and bail are no longer an issue and the offence does not preclude it being issued.
d. there is a computer outage that precludes the use of formal charging procedures.
c. identification, investigation and bail are no longer an issue and the offence does not preclude it being issued.
The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 is the document that guides the NSWPF:
a. when dealing with Aboriginal offenders.
b. in its management of Aboriginal issues.
c. when creating policy documents impacting on Aboriginal issues.
d. in its recruitment and retention of Aboriginal employees.
b. in its management of Aboriginal issues.
A person reports a crash at your police station. Particulars have been exchanged, nobody was injured and no serious offence was committed. There was no damage to property other than the vehicles involved. One vehicle was towed from the scene. You would:
Complete minor crash event or PAL / P5 self report form / General station message pad / Advise we no longer take reports
Complete a ‘Minor Traffic Crash - Tow Away Only’ entry in WebCOPS (or refer the person to PAL if appropriate.
You are tasked to assist ambulance officers transport a person to a mental health facility for assessment pursuant to s 19(3) of the Mental Health Act 2007. The ambulance officers direct you to remove your firearm. You should:
a. keep your firearm holstered unless you believe it is safer to secure it as per the NSWPF Handbook.
b. always keep your firearm holstered.
c. remove your firearm and secure it in your police vehicle.
d. remove your firearm and secure it in the ambulance.
a. keep your firearm holstered unless you believe it is safer to secure it as per the NSWPF Handbook.
You have been required to open a plastic drug exhibit bag at court during a hearing. After examination, the exhibit and opened bag must be resealed in a new plastic drug exhibit bag. In addition to recording your name and signature on the new seal, who else must also record their name and signature?
a. The police prosecutor or ODPP instructing solicitor.
b. The court officer.
c. The magistrate or judge.
d. The defendant or his legal representative.
b. The court officer.
Unless a crime scene warrant is obtained, a police officer may exercise the crime scene powers conferred under s 92 of LEPRA at a location that is NOT a prescribed rural area for a period of not more than:
a. 2 hours.
b. 3 hours.
c. 4 hours.
d. 6 hours.
c. 4 hours.
An intoxicated and argumentative person is turned out of a local hotel by the licensee. A few minutes later the same person repeatedly attempts to re-enter the premises. The appropriate offence is:
a. Excluded Person re-enter/attempt to re-enter premise - s 77(6) Liquor Act 2007.
b. Offensive conduct - s 4 Summary Offences Act 1988.
c. Failure to comply with direction - s 199 LEPRA.
d. Unlawful re-entry on inclosed lands - s 4AA Inclosed Lands Protection Act 1901.
a. Excluded Person re-enter/attempt to re-enter premise - s 77(6) Liquor Act 2007.
Which of the following offences would quality under confiscation of Proceeds of Crime Act 1989?
BES / Deemd Supply Prohibited Drug / High Range PCA / Stealing
Deemed Supply Prohibited Drug
If you are required to open a multi-ply paper drug bag (PAB24) at court, there are a number of steps you need to take before doing so. Of the following, which is NOT one of those steps?
a. Warn all present of the likelihood of compositional changes to the substance which may affect their health and safety.
b. Assess the need to use personal protective equipment.
c. Make a record in your police notebook and have the police prosecutor (or ODPP solicitor) endorse the entry.
d. Cut the evidence seal in front of the Court Officer.
c. Make a record in your police notebook and have the police prosecutor (or ODPP solicitor) endorse the entry.
When faced with making ethical decisions, of the following which would NOT be a consideration?
a. Is the decision or conduct lawful?
b. Is the decision or conduct consistent with NSWPF and Government policy and the NSWPF Code of Conduct and Ethics?
c. Can the decision or conduct be justified in terms of the public interest and would it withstand public scrutiny?
d. Is the decision likely to be popular with the public?
d. Is the decision likely to be popular with the public?
Two offenders break into a house by forcing open a side window and climbing through. They search a number of rooms and move several electrical appliances to the front door, however, police arrive and the offenders are arrested while still in the house. The appropriate offence is:
a. Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
b. Break and enter with intent to steal - s 113 Crimes Act 1900.
c. Steal from dwelling - s 148 Crimes Act 1900.
d. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900.
d. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900.
They moved the items therefor it goes past intent.
Who coordinates the reponse of Negotiator teams?
First officer on scene / Primary Negotiator / Commander (or Coordinator) of the Negotiation Unit / Duty officer or above
Commander (or Coordinator) if the Negotiation Unit.
Under the Common law there is a rebuttable presumption that children aged 10 to 14 years cannot possess the necessary intent to commit a criminal offence. The presumption is known as:
a. Mens Rea.
b. Doli Incapax.
c. Actus Reus.
d. Ex Officio.
b. Doli Incapax.
The questions in the Suspect Financial Profile Questionaire (SFPQ) have been structured to capture information and/or details on persons of interest under four main categories. Which is NOT one of those categories?
Personal / Assosciates / Occupation / Resources
Resources
Section 5 of the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989 lists the four stages of an emergency as:
a. prevention, preparation, response and relief.
b. prevention, preparation, response and recovery.
c. prevention, preparation, response and retreat.
d. prevention, preparation, response and reclamation.
b. prevention, preparation, response and recovery.
A person (NOT a high office holder) discovers a package at their front door. A note attached to it contains a credible threat. Nothing can be seen coming from the package and the person suffers no obvious health effects. The response to such a suspicious substance incident would be classified as:
a. Red (High Risk Incident).
b. Blue (Medium Risk Incident).
c. Green (Low Risk Incident).
d. Orange (Potential Risk Incident).
b. Blue (Medium Risk Incident).
no credible threat = green
A woman complains to you that, while she was in a local nightclub, a man approched her from behind, grabbed her breats with both hands and began to fondle them for five seconds while rubbing his body against hers. The offence committed is:
common assault / sexual touching / sexual act / aggravated sexual assault
Sexual touching.
There are certain courses of action police can take following their investigation of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following courses of action are police NOT permitted to take?
a. Arrest and charge the offending driver (subject to s 99 LEPRA considerations).
b. Issue a caution to the offending driver.
c. Issue a penalty notice to the offending driver.
d. Issue a Field CAN or Future Service CAN to the offending driver.
b. Issue a caution to the offending driver.
You are called to an incident where a person has been fatally wounded. The crime scene is located in the front yard of a residential premise. You inform the owner and begin establishing the crime scene. The owner has now asked you to leave. Are you required to leave or can you stay?
a. You would exercise your powers pursuant to s88 of LEPRA and remain.
b. You would exercise your powers pursuant to s41 of the Coroners Act 2009 and remain.
c. You have a Common law right to remain.
d. You must leave the premises immediately and apply for a crime scene warrant.
a. You would exercise your powers pursuant to s88 of LEPRA and remain.
A number of juveniles found consuming liquor in a public park are spoken to by police. Several unopened cans of beer are confiscated. The person from whom the liquor is confiscated is to be told the name of the police station where the liquor will be taken, and that the liquor will be kept there for:
a. a maximum of 6 hours.
b. at least 24 hours.
c. at least 48 hours.
d. a maximum of 28 days.
b. at least 24 hours.
If you serve a brief of evidence via post, service is deemed to be effected within Australia or an external Territory on the:
a. day after it was posted.
b. next working day after it was posted.
c. fifth working day after it was posted.
d. seventh working day after it was posted.
d. seventh working day after it was posted.
A probationary pistol licence is issued to a person who has:
never held a category H licence (sport/target shooting) / never held a cat A or B firearms licence / held a category H licence which expired / held a category A or B licence which expired
Never held a category H licence (sport/target shooting)
To be eligible for a caution under the Cannabis Cautioning Scheme, a person must not have any prior conviction for:
a. drug offences, sexual offences, or offences involving violence unless the conviction is spent.
b. drug offences, sexual offences, or stealing offences unless the conviction is spent.
c. drug offences, sexual offences, or explosives/firearms offences unless the conviction is spent.
d. drug offences, sexual offences, or fraud offences unless the conviction is spent.
a. drug offences, sexual offences, or offences involving violence unless the conviction is spent.
A woman tells you that her former boyfriend has been continually telephoning her at work. He says that he has been watching her all the time with her new boyfriend. The phone calls have become more frequent and abusive. The former boyfriend’s actions may constitute:
a. no offence.
b. the offence of offensive conduct.
c. the offence of intimidation.
d. an assault.
c. the offence of intimidation.
You arrest a person for possessing a prohibited drug. Upon arrival at the police station, where possible, the drug should be weighed in the presence of:
a. the commander.
b. the offender.
c. the most senior police officer on duty at the time.
d. an officer not involved in the investigation.
b. the offender.
A driver involved in a crash must give the driver’s required particulars to certain other parties involved in the crash/or a police officer within the required time. The ‘required time’ means as soon as possible but, except in exceptional circumstances, within:
a. 24 hours of the crash.
b. 48 hours of the crash.
c. 72 hours of the crash.
d. 7 days of the crash.
a. 24 hours of the crash.
There are certain courses of action police can take following their investigation of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following courses of action are police NOT permitted to take?
a. Arrest and charge the offending driver (subject to s 99 LEPRA considerations).
b. Issue a caution to the offending driver.
c. Issue a penalty notice to the offending driver.
d. Issue a Field CAN or Future Service CAN to the offending driver.
b. Issue a caution to the offending driver.
A man approaches the enquiry counter at a police station and hands over a pushbike which he claims to have found dumped in a creek yesterday. Police should enter detail of the property and its finding:
official notebook / webcops / efims / both b and c
Both B and C - WebCOPS and EFIMS.
An offender is arrested in possession of 350 grams of cannabis leaf, which is in excess of the Traffickable Quantity for that drug. The most appropriate offence in this situation is:
a. Possess Prohibited Plant.
b. Possess Prohibited Drug.
c. Deemed Supply Prohibited Plant.
d. Deemed Supply Prohibited Drug.
d. Deemed Supply Prohibited Drug.
A person notices a utility parked in the street. Later that night the person returns to the utility, breaks the driver’s side window and removes a toolbox which was sitting on the front seat. The appropriate offence is:
a. Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
b. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900.
c. Destroying/damaging property - s 195 Crimes Act 1900.
d. both answer (a) and answer (c).
d. both answer (a) and answer (c).
Consuming alcohol whilst driving a vehicle on a road is:
a. an offence under Rule 298-1 of the Road Rules 2014.
b. not an offence.
c. an offence ONLY if the driver returns a positive breath analysis following a positive breath test.
d. an offence ONLY if the driver is in control of a motor vehicle with a GVM exceeding 4.5 tonnes.
a. an offence under Rule 298-1 of the Road Rules 2014.
Police must take care when describing persons to the media. Ethnicity based descriptors can be valid and useful if used as part of the overall description of a poi. Which of the follow is NOT an appropriate ethnicity based descriptor?
Indian / Pacific Islander / Asian / European
European
As a duty holder under Work Health and Safety legislation, the NSWPF must identify reasonably foreseeable:
a. hazards that could give rise to risks to health and safety.
b. dangers that could give rise to risks to health and safety.
c. problems that could give rise to risks to health and safety.
d. threats that could give rise to risks to health and safety.
a. hazards that could give rise to risks to health and safety.
A police officer who enters premises pursuant to a warrant issued under s 280 of the Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997 in order to give a noise abatement direction or investigate whether a noise abatement direction has been contravened, may:
a. detain any person present on the premises for the purpose of issuing the direction or investigating a contravention.
b. direct any person present to leave the premises.
c. require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to furnish their name and address.
d. require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to apologise to the complainant/s.
c. require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to furnish their name and address.
As set out in the Human Source Management SOPs 2013, ‘contact’ between a Handler and a Human Source means:
any communication by a communication device / any physical contact / any communication by mobile or landline / meeting and telephone contact
Meeting and telephone contact.
When considering if an offender should be referred to the Magistrates Early Referral Into Treatment (MERIT) program, certain criteria must be met. Of the following, which is one of the criteria?
a. The offender must be on another court ordered treatment.
b. The offender must be charged with a sexual offence.
c. The offender must be charged with a strictly indictable offence.
d. The offender must voluntarily agree to participate.
d. The offender must voluntarily agree to participate.
When a person appears before a court for the offence of ‘Goods in custody’ (personal custody), the prosecution must prove that the property:
a. may reasonably be suspected of being stolen or otherwise unlawfully obtained.
b. is stolen.
c. is believed to be stolen.
d. was in the possession of a known thief.
a. may reasonably be suspected of being stolen or otherwise unlawfully obtained.
Section 93X(2) of the Crimes Act 1900 states that a person does not habitually consort with convicted offenders unless:
a. the person consorts with at least 1 convicted offender on at least 2 occasions.
b. the person consorts with at least 1 convicted offender on at least 3 occasions.
c. the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 2 occasions with each convicted offender.
d. the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 3 occasions with each convicted offender.
c. the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 2 occasions with each convicted offender.
2 AND 2
A 25 year old woman attends the police station and says that she was sexually assaulted 12 hours ago. After taking her personal details and some details in relation to the sexual assault you must:
a. immediately notify the on call detectives.
b. immediately arrange for her to be taken to the closest Sexual Assault Service for a forensic medical examination.
c. immediately notify the duty officer.
d. immediately arrange for a female officer to speak with her.
c. immediately notify the duty officer.
A small quantity of heroin contained in foil is weighed at a police station. The person responsible for estimating the net weight of the drug is the:
a. station/exhibits officer.
b. officer in charge of the case.
c. independent observer.
d. duty officer.
a. station/exhibits officer.
When commencing a search of a room in response to a bomb threat, you should search first:
from floor level to waist height / from floor level to head height / from floor to ceiling / from ceiling to floor
From floor level to waist height
What prioirty level would you classify a suspicious substance incident where there is an obvious reason for the presence of the substance, no credible threat or risk has been identified and there are no health effects for persons at the incident site?
red / blue / green / white
Green.
A child or the parent of a child cannot consent to body piercing on any part of a child’s:
a. nipples or genitalia.
b. ear lobes.
c. eyebrows.
d. navel.
a. nipples or genitalia.
When police are required to tranpsort a person with a mental illness to a mental health service or an approved hospital, the type of vehicle used should be:
caged truck / the least restrictive under the circumstances / owned by NSW health / unmarked
The least restrictive under the circumstances.
Briefs of Evidence containing sensitive evidence must NOT be served on the accused person. Instead, police must:
a. supply the material to the court registry.
b. ensure any sensitive evidence is censored before the brief is served.
c. serve the brief ONLY on a legal practitioner acting on behalf of the accused person.
d. serve on the accused person a sensitive evidence notice.
d. serve on the accused person a sensitive evidence notice.
A registrable person must report their relevant personal information to police:
monthly / quarterly / biannually / annually
Annually.
Under the Firearms Act 1996, a category H licence authorises the holder it posses:
rimfire rifles / pistols (including blank fire pistols and air pistols) / single-barrel shotguns / bolt-action rifles
Pistols (including blank fire pistols and air pistols).
s 11A of the Summary Offences Act 1988 sets out that a certain number of people who are together and who use or threaten unlawful violence commit an offence of violent disorder. The number of people who must be present is:
a. 2 or more.
b. 3 or more.
c. 5 or more.
d. 12 or more.
b. 3 or more.
Illegally receiving stolen goods, knowing them to have been stolen, is the offence of ‘Receiving’. Of the following, which is not one of the proofs for that offence?
a. The property was stolen.
b. The property was received from a person known for property theft.
c. The accused person actually received the property.
d. The accused person knew at the time he received the property it was stolen.
b. The property was received from a person known for property theft.
You see a man standing amongst a group of people at a taxi rank smoking a cigarette. As a police officer, you may require the man to:
a. state his name, address and telephone number.
b. state his name, age and telephone number.
c. state his name, age and address.
d. state his name and address.
d. state his name and address.
You stop a car which was reported stolen two hours previously. You speak with the driver who tells you that she took the vehicle as she had no other way to get home from a nightclub and she was going to leave it intact in the street after she had driven home. The appropriate offence is:
a. Steal motor vehicle - s 154F Crimes Act 1900.
b. Stealing - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
c. Use motor vehicle without consent of owner - s 147 Road Transport Act 2013.
d. Taking a conveyance without consent of owner - s 154A CrimesAct 1900.
d. Taking a conveyance without consent of owner - s 154A CrimesAct 1900.
Who may report the homelessness of a child to the Director-General of the Department of FAmily and Community Serivces?
A police officer only / An officer of the Department of Family and Community Serivces only / Any person authorised in writing by the Director-General / Any person
Any person.
The investigation period begins when a person is arrested and ends at a time that is reasonable having regard to all the circumstances (not exceeding the maximum investigation period). Of the following, which circumstance would NOT be taken into account when determining a reasonable time?
a. The number, seriousness and complexity of the offences under investigation.
b. The time taken for police involved in the investigation to partake in a meal break as per the Award.
c. Whether the person has indicated a willingness to make a statement or to answer any questions.
d. The number and availability of other persons who need to be questioned or from whom statements need to be obtained.
b. The time taken for police involved in the investigation to partake in a meal break as per the Award.
Under the Liquor Act, the hotel licence allows that the licensed premises to trade from Monday to Saturday inclusive, without applying for an extention or being permitted under the Act to have extended trading hours are:
5am to midnight / 10am to 10pm / 10am to 12 midnight / 5am to 10pm
5am to midnight.
A firearm seized during a murder investigation is entered in EFIMS as an exhibit. Criminal proceedings in relation to the matter have been finalised. Who authorises disposal of the firearm?
a. The presiding judge.
b. The magistrate who presided at the committal.
c. The Local Area Commander (or specialist equivalent). Incorrect
d. The coroner.
d. The coroner.
An offence NOT covered under the Young Offenders Act 1997 is:
supply prohib drug / traffic offence under 17yrs / domestic / fruad
Supply prohibited drug
For all reportable deaths, before a body can be admitted to a morgue, police must obtain a:
a. Coronial Order (Authority to Remove, Transport and Hold Deceased Person/Human Remains).
b. Coronial Order (Investigation).
c. Verification of Death Certificate.
d. Medical Certificate of Cause of Death.
c. Verification of Death Certificate.
Where you have a declarable association you must report it promptly and in writing to:
a. Professional Standards Command.
b. your commander/manager or supervisor.
c. a senior police officer.
d. a police officer of or above the rank of Superintendent (or non-sworn equivalent
b. your commander/manager or supervisor.
An offender enters a house through the open front door and grabs some loose change which is found on top of a sideboard. The offender then leaves through the open front door. The appropriate offence is:
a. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900.
b. Stealing - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
c. Steal from dwelling - s 148 Crimes Act 1900.
d. Goods in custody - s 527C Crimes Act 1900.
c. Steal from dwelling - s 148 Crimes Act 1900.
In accordance with the NSW Police Media Policy, police are generally permitted to:
a. issue a media release about day to day operational matters for which they have direct responsibility and/or expertise.
b. criticise a court decision.
c. comment on police policy and procedure.
d. grant interviews with the media on any police operation.
a. issue a media release about day to day operational matters for which they have direct responsibility and/or expertise.
A person attends the station to collect an item of miscellaneous property that they found two months ago. You find that the property has gone missing from the property room. You should immediately notify your:
a. Crime Manager of the circumstances and confirm the details in writing.
b. Shift Supervisor of the circumstances and confirm the details in writing.
c. Region Commander of the circumstances and confirm the details in writing.
d. Commander of the circumstances and confirm the details in writing.
d. Commander of the circumstances and confirm the details in writing.
For evidence to be admissible in a court of law it must be:
a. relevant, reliable and credible.
b. relevant, reliable and fair.
c. relevant, reliable and probative.
d. relevant, reliable and factual.
b. relevant, reliable and fair.
You stop a motor vehicle fitted with diplomatic plates that is being driven erratically. You speak to the driver and suspect he is intoxicated. The driver produces a RED ID card confirming he is a diplomatic agent. He claims immunity and refuses to submit to a breath test. You would:
a. inform the driver it is an offence to refuse the test and repeat your request until he complies.
b. make whatever arrangements are necessary and appropriate in the interest of road safety.
c. inform the driver he will be arrested for refusing the breath test if he does not comply.
d. arrest the driver and take him to the police station for the purpose of a breath analysis.
b. make whatever arrangements are necessary and appropriate in the interest of road safety.
Red = immune.
Lime = not immune.
The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘HOT’ stand for?
a. Hidden, Obvious, Tampered.
b. Hidden, Obvious, Typical.
c. Hidden, Obvious, Ticking.
d. Hidden, Obvious, Threat.
b. Hidden, Obvious, Typical.
Under the Securities Industries Act 1997, a Class 1C licence holder authorised the licensee to do what?
Act as a master licensee / act as a security consultant / Act as a crowd controller / Install and repair security equipment
Act as a crowd controller.
The Family Court of Australia may issue a warrant for the arrest of a person who has contravened a parenting order. Such a warrant ceases to be in force:
3 months / 6 months / 9 months / 12 months
6 months after the issue of the warrant unless an earlier date is specified in the warrant.
A can of spray paint seized from a minor under the Graffiti Control Act 2008 may be disposed of immediately if part of the contents of the can have been used, or:
It is otherwise of negligible value.
Criminal proceedings are taken to have commenced on the date:
a CAN is filed in the registry of a relevant court / a CAN is served on the accused person / a CAN is created / an accused person first appears at the court listed in the CAN.
A Court Attendance Notice is filed in the registry of the relevant court.
A driver involved in a crash must give the drivers requuired particulars to certain other parties involved in the crash. Which is NOT one of the required particulars?
The driver’s driver licence number.
The driver of a car involved in a crash is treated at hospital and a compulsory blood sample taken. The result of the sample is negative and you decide to post a penalty notice to the driver. The penalty notice can be posted within:
a. 24 hours of the offence.
b. 48 hours of the offence.
c. 14 calendar days of the offence.
d. 3 calendar months of the offence.
d. 3 calendar months of the offence.
Police officers may be required to submit to a mandatory drug and alcohol test. What type of incident would require the officer to submit to such a test?
a. A person has been seriously injured in a motor cycle collision.
b. A person has been seriously injured in a motor vehicle collision.
c. A person has been killed in a motor vehicle collision.
d. A person has been killed or seriously injured as result of amotor vehicle pursuit.
d. A person has been killed or seriously injured as result of amotor vehicle pursuit.
The responsibility for removing debris, which is likely to endanger any person, from the roadway at the scene of a motor vehicle crash where drivers are not injured is initially given to the:
police / drivers involved / tow truck driver / council workers
Drivers involved in the crash.
A 17-year-old young person attempts to use a forged birth certificate to enter a registered club. The most appropriate offence is found in the:
a. Registered Clubs Act
b. Summary Offences Act
c. Liquor Act
d. Young Offenders Act
c. Liquor Act
The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘ALE’ stand for?
a. Alert Level Eradicated.
b. Alert Level Escalated.
c. Alert Level Eliminated.
d. Alert Level Elevated.
d. Alert Level Elevated.
A person is arrested for possessing a small quantity of cannabis leaf wrapped in foil. The exhibit should be secured in a:
a. plastic drug security bag.
b. paper drug security bag (PAB24).
c. fabric (breathable) drug security bag.
d. paper evidence bag sealed with evidence tape.
a. plastic drug security bag.
Large amounts = PAB24.
Small amounts = plastic drug security bag.
Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, the time limit for carrying out a forensic procedure on a suspect not under arrest is?
4 hours including time out / 4 hours excluding time out / 2 hours including time out / 2 hours excluding time out
Within 2 hours and excluding any time out.
With regard to media access to any person in custody, police should ensure that:
a. persons in custody are provided with the means to cover their face if they wish.
b. media organisations are given equal access to the person in custody.
c. filming of the person in custody by the media only takes place after written consent is obtained.
d. a media area is established to allow police greater control of the media.
a. persons in custody are provided with the means to cover their face if they wish.
In a prosecution for the offence of ‘Offensive conduct’ pursuant to s 4 of the Summary Offences Act 1988, it is a sufficient defence if the accused satisfies the court that:
a. he or she had a reasonable excuse for the conduct alleged.
b. the offence was not witnessed directly by police.
c. he or she was seriously impaired by intoxicating liquor or a drug or combinations of drugs.
d. the conduct was not carried out in the immediate presence of another person or persons.
a. he or she had a reasonable excuse for the conduct alleged.
An ambulance will remove a deceased when:
a. sudden death has occurred and the body is in public view.
b. death occurred more than 24 hours previously.
c. it is obvious resuscitation will not be successful.
d. the deceased is personally known to any person present at the scene.
a. sudden death has occurred and the body is in public view.
Under the Registered Clubs Act 1976 (NSW), a police officer may demand from any person who is on the premises of any registered club, and whom that police officer suspects, on reasonable grounds, is not a member of the registered club or a guest of a member of the registered club:
a. particulars of the correct name and address of that person.
b. particulars of the correct name and age only of that person.
c. particulars of the correct name only of that person.
d. particulars of the correct age only of that person.
a. particulars of the correct name and address of that person.
With regard to the release of information during an investigation or prior to an arrest, the following information may be released:
a. the psychological state of an alleged offender.
b. descriptions of remarks made by offenders, but not a direct quote.
c. the identity of a victim of a sexual crime.
d. methodology used by an offender.
b. descriptions of remarks made by offenders, but not a direct quote.
A registrable person must report any changes to their relevant personal information to police:
a. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 7 days.
b. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 14 days.
c. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 21 days.
d. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 28 days.
a. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 7 days.
A coroner does not have jurisdiction to hold an inquest concerning a death or suspected death unless it appears to the coroner that the circumstances meet one or more of the criteria set out in s 18 of the Coroners Act 2009. Of the following, which is NOT one of that criteria?
a. The remains of the person are in NSW.
b. The death or suspected death or the cause of the death or suspected death occurred in NSW.
c. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW and, although the person did not reside in NSW, was born in NSW.
d. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW but the person had sufficient connection with NSW.
c. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW and, although the person did not reside in NSW, was born in NSW.
