General Subjects Flashcards by David Martin

The NSWPF is committed to ensuring that the collection of information from Human Sources is:

a. purposeful.
b. ethical.
c. tailored to gathering information that is directly relevant to NSWPF lawful functions.
d. All the above.

d. All the above.

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The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is supicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘S’ stand for?

secret / suspicious / significant / sensitive

Sensitive.

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A 17 year old girl enters your police station and informs you that she fears violence from her former boyfriend. You believe that the matter is one that warrants the issue of an AVO. The application for the order may be made to the court by:

either the girl or a police officer / any person over the age of 18 / the girl only / a police officer only

Either the girl or a police officer.

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Deaths arising from critical incidents must be reported to the Coroner. Any media enquiries on the cause of death should be referred to the:

a. Region Commander/specialist Commander equivalent.
b. Police Media Unit.
c. Senior Investigating Officer.
d. Coroner’s Office.

d. Coroner’s Office.

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You are called to a disturbance on the footpath outside a place of worship. A person has attached anti-religious placards to the front fence and is using a loudhailer to incite the gathered crowd to assault the worshippers because of their beliefs. The worshippers are too frightened to leave the premises. The person’s actions constitute an offence under section 93Z of the Crimes Act 1900. Prior to commencing proceedings, you must seek approval from:

a. a police officer of the rank of sergeant or above.
b. any commissioned police officer.
c. a police officer of the rank of superintendent or above.
d. the Director of Public Prosecutions.

d. the Director of Public Prosecutions.

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Which Act allows for the issue of Court Attendance Notices?

a. Crimes (Administration of Sentences) Act 1999.
b. Local Court Act 2007.
c. Evidence Act 1995.
d. Criminal Procedure Act 1986.

d. Criminal Procedure Act 1986.

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Inculpatory evidence tends to prove:

a. relevance.
b. the innocence of the defendant.
c. reliability.
d. the guilt of the defendant.

d. the guilt of the defendant.

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You are the most senior officer who first arrives at the scene of a critical incident. You are required to remain at the scene until relieved by:

a. the duty officer.
b. the senior critical incident investigator.
c. either (a), (b) or (d).
d. the local area commander.

c. either (a), (b) or (d).

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You arrest a person on an arrest warrant. You must:

a. take the person to the nearest correctional centre as soon as practicable.
b. take the person to the nearest police station for the purpose of a bail determination.
c. bring the person before a Judge, Magistrate or an authorised officer as soon as practicable.
d. charge the person with the warrant and bail the person to appear before the next sitting of the relevant court.

c. bring the person before a Judge, Magistrate or an authorised officer as soon as practicable.

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You attend a local supermarket in relation to a male person held for stealing items the value of which is less than $300. You make the necessary enquiries and decide to issue a penalty notice (CIN). The male is 17 years old. You may:

NOT ISSUE A CIN - UNDER 18 YEARS.

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A brief of evidence for a Coroner’s matter is due:

within 14 days following death
by the due date listed in the notice from the coroner
within 30 days following death
14 days after receipt of report by foensic pathologist

By the due date listed in the notice from the Coroner.

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The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 requires commands to develop an Aboriginal Action Plan. What is the purpose of the plan?

a. To make Aboriginal people aware of the command’s focus on crime.
b. To provide Aboriginal people a voice in how their community is policed.
c. To address Aboriginal issues at a local, regional and state level.
d. To identify social issues impacting on Aboriginal people.

b. To provide Aboriginal people a voice in how their community is policed.

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It is sufficient to include on a statement obtained from a child, or an adult who is apparently of appreciably below average intelligence, an endorsement containing words to the effect:

a. that the statement was made in the presence of a support person.
b. that the statement is true.
c. that the statement contains no lies.
d. either (b) or (c).

d. either (b) or (c).

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You are on rest day and receive a phone call that you are being recalled to duty for the purpose of a targeted drug test. Who has authority to recall you to duty for this purpose?

a. An Assistant Commissioner or above.
b. A Superintendent or above.
c. An Inspector or above.
d. You cannot be recalled to duty for targeted drug testing.

a. An Assistant Commissioner or above.

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A request for a media ‘blackout’ can only be made in exceptional circumstanes, usually where there is a risk to life. Such requests are generally made at Assistance commissioner level. In the event of a siege, who else may make such a request.

A duty officer / Any officer of the rank of sergeant or above / The most senior police officer at the scene / The operational commander or senior police negotiator

The operational commander or senior police negotiator.

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You have witnessed an adult consuming alcohol in a current alcohol free zone. As a police officer you may:

a. Seize any alcohol and dispose of it immediately.
b. Issue a penalty notice.
c. Issue a caution and seize the alcohol.
d. Warn the person that drinking in an alcohol free zone is not an offence.

a. Seize any alcohol and dispose of it immediately.

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A car and push bike are involved in a crash on a road. The driver of the car holds a learner licence and was being supervised by a full licence holder. The bicycle rider is a male aged 30. You are able to breath test the driver of the car:

a. but nobody else involved in the crash.
b. and the bicycle rider.
c. and the person supervising the learner driver.
d. , the person supervising the learner driver and also the bicycle rider.

c. and the person supervising the learner driver.

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Mobile phpones and portable radios should not be used within how many metres of a suspected explosive or incendiary device?

5 / 10 / 25 / 100

25 metres.

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Which of the following persons may take a buccal swab?

a. An appropriately qualified police officer.
b. A dental prosthetist.
c. A medical practitioner.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

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Which of the following is a prohibited weapon?

a flick knife / a cross bow / a bowen knife belt / all of the above

All of the above.

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Evidence of an admission is inadmissible if influenced by violence, oppressive, inhuman or degrading conduct or a threat of conduct of that kind. These principles are laid down in:

a. Section 84 of the Evidence Act 1995.
b. Section 48 of the Evidence Act 1995.
c. Clause 9 of the Evidence Regulation 2015.
d. Clause 10 of the Evidence Regulation 2015.

a. Section 84 of the Evidence Act 1995.

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Under Work Health and Safety legislation, a police officer is at work throughout the time when the officer is on duty or:

a. off duty.
b. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but only when authorised to do so by his/her commander.
c. recalled to duty for a specified purpose.
d. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but not otherwise.

d. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but not otherwise.

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The identity of children connected with criminal proceedings as defendants, witnesses or otherwise:

a. may be published only with the consent of the presiding magistrate or judge.
b. may be published with the consent of the registrar of the Children’s Court.
c. must never be published.
d. may be published only with the approval of the Director - NSW Police Media Unit.

c. must never be published.

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The Criminal Infringement Notice Scheme sets out the circumstances when a CIN MUST be withdrawn. Of the following, which is NOT one of those circumstances?

a. It was inadvertently issued to a serving police officer (not in compliance with policy).
b. It was inadvertently issued to a person under 18 years of age.
c. The identity of the suspect cannot be confirmed.
d. When three CINs were issued to the same suspect at the same time for three prescribed offences.

d. When three CINs were issued to the same suspect at the same time for three prescribed offences.

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Which of the following decisions are the ONLY bail decisions that can be made for an offence for which there is a right to release? a. A decision to release the person without bail. b. A decision to grant bail to the person (with or without the imposition of bail conditions). c. A decision to refuse bail. d. Both A & B.

d. Both A & B.

You are working an operation in relation to drug activity at your local railway station, which is on a prescribed route. Are you able to utilise a drug detection dog without a warrant? a. No, railway stations are not authorised under s148 of LEPRA. b. Yes, by virtue of s148 of LEPRA. c. No, as the enabling legislation has been repealed. d. Yes, but only with written authority from Transport for NSW.

b. Yes, by virtue of s148 of LEPRA.

A man comes to the enquiry counter at the police station and hands you a wallet containing personal papers and $250 cash. He tells you he found the property on his front lawn this morning. You would: a. create an entry in your official notebook. b. create a miscellaneous property record in EFIMS. c. create an entry on the General Station Pad. d. only be required to create a record if the wallet's owner could not be identified/located by the end of your shift.

b. create a miscellaneous property record in EFIMS.

Section 116 of LEPRA involves determining reasonable time in an investigation period when a person is arrested. What circumstance below would be recognised as a reasonable time? a. Any time that is reasonably required to carry out charging procedures in respect of the person. b. Whether a police officer reasonably requires time to prepare for any questioning of the person. c. Whether the person requires refreshments or not. d. Any time that is required to allow the person to consult at the place where the person is being detained.

b. Whether a police officer reasonably requires time to prepare for any questioning of the person.

Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, which of the following is an authorised applicant for a court order when an intimate forensic procedure is required and the suspect refuses? a. Any police officer of or above the rank of sergeant. b. Any commissioned police officer. c. Any police officer. d. A custody manager within the meaning of LEPRA.

d. A custody manager within the meaning of LEPRA.

At all times when interacting with a Human Source, NSWPF officers will conduct themselves in a professional and ethical manner. In deciding if your behaviour is professional and ethical, you should be firstly guided by: a. the Police Act 1990 and regulations. b. NSWPF Handbook. c. the NSWPF Code of Conduct and Ethics. d. your own moral compass.

c. the NSWPF Code of Conduct and Ethics.

As a police officer, you have the functions of an inspector appointed under the Smoke-free Environment Act 2000 in relation to smoke-free areas in: a. enclosed public places only. b. outdoor public places only. c. transport-related outdoor public places only. d. any designated smoke-free public place.

c. transport-related outdoor public places only.

A police officer is not required to return keys confiscated from an intoxicated driver pursuant to section 148E or 148G of the Road Transport Act 2013 unless he or she is satisfied that the person making the request is capable of exercising proper control of the motor vehicle and is also: a. the holder of a valid driver licence for the class of motor vehicle concerned. b. the registered owner of the motor vehicle. c. in possession of a court order pursuant to section 148I(3). d. entitled to lawful possession of the motor vehicle.

d. entitled to lawful possession of the motor vehicle.

A police officer may seize liquor in the possession of a person in a public place if the officer suspects on reasonable grounds that: a. the person is over the age of 18 years. b. the person is under the age of 18 years and is under the supervision of a responsible adult. c. the person is under the age of 18 years and not under the supervision of a responsible adult. d. the person is under the age of 18 years and has a reasonable excuse for its possession.

c. the person is under the age of 18 years and not under the supervision of a responsible adult.

A mobile phone is seized as an exhibit at the scene of an arrest. Until it is entered in EFIMS, the exhibit is to remain in the custody of the: a. senior arresting officer. b. any police officer present during the arrest. c. duty officer. d. local area commander.

a. senior arresting officer.

Within how many days after the seizure of a dangerous article does the person from whom it was seized or its owner have to apply for its return? 7 days / 14 days / 28 days / 60 days

28 days.

You are NOT to open sealed plastic drug security bags prior to analysis unless exceptional circumstances exist and ONLY with the written approval of the: a. Exhibits Officer. b. Police Commander (or delegate). c. Officer-in-Charge of the matter under investigation. d. Exhibits Reception Officer - FASS.

b. Police Commander (or delegate).

In relation to locating information about dementia sufferers, the Safely Home database can be found: a. in WebCOPS. b. on the NSW Government website. c. on the NSWPF Intranet. d. on the SAP system.

c. on the NSWPF Intranet.

You detect a young person committing an act of graffiti. He later makes full admissions in the presence of his parents and is genuinely remorseful for his actions. The young person has no prior criminal history. In these circumstances you would: ## Footnote a. give a warning for the offence. b. refer the matter to a Specialist Youth Officer recommending it be dealt with by caution. c. refer the matter to a Specialist Youth Officer recommending it be dealt with by conference. d. commence proceedings for the matter to be dealt with by a court.

d. commence proceedings for the matter to be dealt with by a court. Graffiti matters cannot be deatl with under young offenders act.

A police officer may establish a crime scene on premises providing the offence under investigation falls within the criteria set out in s 90 of LEPRA. Of the following, which is NOT one of the criteria? a. An offence committed in connection with a traffic accident resulting in the death of a person. b. A serious indictable offence committed on the premises. c. A prescribed offence committed on the premises. d. Evidence of the commission of a serious indictable offence committed elsewhere.

c. A prescribed offence committed on the premises.

Criminal proceedings for summary matters before the Local Court are commenced by: a. issuing and filing an application notice. b. issuing and filing a court attendance notice. c. creation of the charge in COPS. d. acceptance of the charge in COPS.

b. issuing and filing a court attendance notice.

You attend a residence in relation to a domestic violence incident where a 14-year-old boy assaulted his mother by slapping her face. He admits the offence and has no prior history of violence. You would: a. issue a CAN as the offence is not covered by the Young Offenders Act 1997. b. issue a warning for the offence in accordance with Part 3 of the Young Offenders Act 1997. c. recommend the matter be dealt with by way of a caution/conference under the Young Offenders Act 1997. d. record the incident such that the Young Offenders Act 1997 applies.

c. recommend the matter be dealt with by way of a caution/conference under the Young Offenders Act 1997.

You are tasked to assist ambulance officers transport a person to a mental health facility for assessment pursuant to s 19(3) of the Mental Health Act 2007. The ambulance officers direct you to remove your firearm. You should: a. keep your firearm holstered unless you believe it is safer to secure it as per the NSWPF Handbook. b. always keep your firearm holstered. c. remove your firearm and secure it in your police vehicle. d. remove your firearm and secure it in the ambulance.

a. keep your firearm holstered unless you believe it is safer to secure it as per the NSWPF Handbook.

You detain a registrable person for the purpose of serving the required notices. You MUST inform the person of the reason for their detention; that the person will be released immediately after the notices have been served; and what else? a. Their refusal to sign the acknowledgement of having been served with the required notices is an offence. b. Their rights as a person in custody pursuant to Part 9 of LEPRA. c. That their detention is authorised under the Act. d. The official caution.

c. That their detention is authorised under the Act.

A security guard who has his security licence suspended or revoked must surrender the licence to a police officer or other approved person:

Immediately.

You apprehend a person in possession of a crossbow. This person would be proceeded against under the provisions of the: a. Law Enforcement (Powers and Responsibilities) Act 2002. b. Weapons Prohibition Act 1998. c. Crimes Act 1900. d. Firearms Act 1996.

b. Weapons Prohibition Act 1998.

s 16 of the Bail Act 2013 contains two flow charts illustrating the key features of bail decisions. Flow Chart 1 illustrates the 'Show cause requirement'. Flow Chart 2 illustrates the:

Unacceptable risk test as it applies to all offences, other than offences for which there is a right to release.

You collect a drug exhibit from the station officer and notice that the seal on the auditable drug exhibit bag has been broken. In this case you should: a. immediately notify the officer in charge of the case. b. immediately notify the Region Commander or specialist equivalent. c. immediately notify the Police Integrity Commission. d. immediately notify your Local Area Commander.

d. immediately notify your Local Area Commander.

While conducting a foot patrol of the local area you stop to speak to a group of young people. At this time you observe one of the young persons with a packet of cigarettes. You may seize the cigarettes if the young person is under what age? a. 18 years. b. 16 years. c. 14 years. d. 10 years.

a. 18 years.

You investigate a motor vehicle crash in which a person has been injured. The matter is one that can be dealt with by the issue of a penalty notice. Your enquiries should be completed and the penalty notice posted within: a. 24 hours of the offence. b. 48 hours of the offence. c. 28 days of the offence. d. 3 calendar months of the offence.

d. 3 calendar months of the offence.

You are the investigating officer in relation to a major traffic crash involving injury to a person who was taken by ambulance to hospital for treatment. You are later asked to provide information about that person. You may supply certain information about the person to: a. the loss assessor estimating the damage to the vehicles. b. a representative of the driver's insurance company. c. a relevant employee of the hospital/s concerned or the ambulance service. d. a concerned witness to the crash.

c. a relevant employee of the hospital/s concerned or the ambulance service.

A man and woman are seen breaking into the local golf club and are detained inside the premises by the manager. Police are called and, when spoken to, the offenders admit they were going to steal alcohol and cigarettes from the premises but were caught before they could do so. The offence is: a. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900. b. Break and enter with intent to steal - s 113 Crimes Act 1900. c. Attempt Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900. d. Enter dwelling house with intent to commit serious indictable offence - s 111 Crimes Act 1900.

b. Break and enter with intent to steal - s 113 Crimes Act 1900.

Proceedings for offences under the Graffiti Control Act 2008 must be commenced not later than: 6 monnths / 12 months / 2 years / 5 years

2 years from when the offence is allegedto have been committed.

The power given to police to stop and search a person upon reasonable suspicion that there is in that person's possession any prohibited plant or prohibited drug is found in: Crimes Act / Drug misuse and trafficking act / LEPRA / Common Law

s 21 of LEPRA.

You attend your local Woolworths store and speak with the store manager. She tells you she saw an employee remove $100 from a cash register and place it in their pocket. The offence committed is: a. Embezzlement - s 157 Crimes Act 1900. b. Stealing - s 117 Crimes Act 1900. c. Larceny as a Clerk or Servant - s 156 Crimes Act 1900. d. Fraudulent appropriation - s 124 Crimes Act 1900.

c. Larceny as a Clerk or Servant - s 156 Crimes Act 1900.

All interactions betwen the NSWPF and an ongoing Human Source must be recorded in: Human Source Reports / Secure corporate emails / SITREP's / Contact Advice Reports

Contact Advice Reports

When a person is charged with a serious offence that requires the mandatory completion of a Suspect Financial Profile Questionnaire (SFPQ), the SFPQ must be completed within: a. 24 hours of charging. b. 48 hours of charging. c. 7 days of charging. d. 14 days of charging.

a. 24 hours of charging.

The power for a police officer to turn out, or assist in turning out, a person who is intoxicated, violent or disorderly from the premises of a registered club, upon the request of the secretary of the club, comes from the: a. Summary Offences Act 1988. b. LEPRA. c. Liquor Act 2007. d. Inclosed Lands Protection Act 1901.

c. Liquor Act 2007.

Cash and small valuables seized as exhibits must be sealed in: a. paper evidence bags with evidence tape. b. plastic drug security bags. c. paper drug security bags (PAB24) with evidence tape. d. reuseable secure money satchels.

b. plastic drug security bags.

A 13-year-old boy is detained for stealing a bicycle from the front lawn of a house. Which of the following would prevent a caution being administered under the Young Offenders Act 1997? Been to court recently / been to a Youth Justice Conference / Had 3 previous warnings / Had 3 previous cautions

The boy has had three previous Cautions.

The Cannabis Cautioning Scheme covers offences involving: a. all forms of cannabis and it's derivatives. b. all synthetic forms of cannabis only. c. equipment for administering cannabis only. d. dried cannabis leaf, stalks, heads, and equipment for administration.

d. dried cannabis leaf, stalks, heads, and equipment for administration.

The Safely Home Program is a joint venture between: a. the NSW Police Force and the Alzheimer's Association. b. the NSW Police Force and NSW Health. c. the Attorney General's Department and NSW Health. d. the NSW Police Force and the Office of the Public Guardian.

a. the NSW Police Force and the Alzheimer's Association.

A person commits an offence if they cause or permit a motor vehicle intruder alarm to sound, whether continuously or intermittently, for more than: a. 45 seconds after the alarm first sounds for vehicles manufactured on or after 1 September 1997. b. 90 seconds after the alarm first sounds for a vehicle manufactured before 1 September 1997. c. 60 seconds after the alarm first sounds irrespective of when the vehicle was manufactured. d. A and B are both correct.

d. A and B are both correct.

When an appropriately qualifed person is taking a hair sample, they should: cut 15 to 20 hairs / cut 150 to 200 hairs / pluck 15 to 20 hairs with roots attached / pluck 150 to 200 hairs with roots attached.

pluck 15 to 20 hairs with roots attached.

The obligation for ensuring that drug exhibits are destroyed as soon as possible after being seized rests with: a. the commander. b. the duty officer. c. the shift supervisor. d. all police officers.

d. all police officers.

Tow truck drivers, when working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, must hold a current Tow Truck Driver's Certificate. This driver's certificate must be: a. worn at the crash scene so that the face is clearly visible. b. carried and produced on demand to a police officer. c. need not be produced to police. d. produced to any person involved in the crash.

a. worn at the crash scene so that the face is clearly visible.

When a drug, which is not less than the traffickable quantity, is in police possession it is to be taken to an analyst for analysis as soon as practicable after coming into police possession no later than: a. 7 days. b. 14 days. c. 21 days. d. 28 days.

b. 14 days.

A provisional order granted and served on a person under Part 7 of the Crimes (Domestic and Personal Violence) Act 2007, unless sooner revoked or the application for a final AVO is withdrawn or dismissed, remains in force until: a. midnight on the 7th day after the order is made or the provisions of s 32(2) of the Act apply. b. 24 hours has elapsed from the date/time the order is made or the provisions of s 32(2) of the Act apply. c. 72 hours has elapsed from the date/time the order is made or the provisions of s 32(2) of the Act apply. d. the provisions of s 32(2) of the Act apply.

d. the provisions of s 32(2) of the Act apply.

Under Part 4 of the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989, a directing officer may invoke additional powers for the protection of life and property. A directing officer includes a police officer of or above the rank of: a. the most senior police officer at the scene (not being a probationary constable). b. sergeant. c. inspector. d. superintendent.

b. sergeant.

A hotel licence applies to licenced premises where liquor is sold and supplied for consumption: off the premises only / on the premises only / on or away from the premises / on the premises of a registered club

On or away from the premises.

S 78 of the Coroners Act 2009 gives the coroner the power to suspend an inquest or inquiry. Under what circumstances woulda coroner use this power? a. When a person suspected of causing a death, fire or explosion is charged with a relevant indictable offence. b. The evidence relied upon is inadmissible. c. The witnesses are not credible. d. When the inquest or inquiry attracts unwanted media attention.

a. When a person suspected of causing a death, fire or explosion is charged with a relevant indictable offence.

Police attend an elderly couple's home to investigate a DV matter between their son and daughter-in-law who were visiting for dinner. The elderly couple were not involved in the matter but are both licensed and have two registered firearms in their possession. You would: a. take no action concerning the firearms as the couple were not involved in the matter. b. enquire as to the presence of the firearms, then search for and seize them with consent (or warrant if required). c. request the son and daughter-in-law to leave the premises to eliminate the issue of the firearms. d. have the elderly couple take the firearms to another person who is licensed for safekeeping.

b. enquire as to the presence of the firearms, then search for and seize them with consent (or warrant if required).

A Field C.A.N. is a non-custodial alternative to arrest. However, you can issue a Field C.A.N. to a person who has been arrested and conveyed to a police station when: a. there are already too many people in custody. b. time constraints do not permit formal charging. c. identification, investigation and bail are no longer an issue and the offence does not preclude it being issued. d. there is a computer outage that precludes the use of formal charging procedures.

c. identification, investigation and bail are no longer an issue and the offence does not preclude it being issued.

The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 is the document that guides the NSWPF: a. when dealing with Aboriginal offenders. b. in its management of Aboriginal issues. c. when creating policy documents impacting on Aboriginal issues. d. in its recruitment and retention of Aboriginal employees.

b. in its management of Aboriginal issues.

A person reports a crash at your police station. Particulars have been exchanged, nobody was injured and no serious offence was committed. There was no damage to property other than the vehicles involved. One vehicle was towed from the scene. You would: ## Footnote Complete minor crash event or PAL / P5 self report form / General station message pad / Advise we no longer take reports

Complete a 'Minor Traffic Crash - Tow Away Only' entry in WebCOPS (or refer the person to PAL if appropriate.

a. keep your firearm holstered unless you believe it is safer to secure it as per the NSWPF Handbook.

You have been required to open a plastic drug exhibit bag at court during a hearing. After examination, the exhibit and opened bag must be resealed in a new plastic drug exhibit bag. In addition to recording your name and signature on the new seal, who else must also record their name and signature? a. The police prosecutor or ODPP instructing solicitor. b. The court officer. c. The magistrate or judge. d. The defendant or his legal representative.

b. The court officer.

Unless a crime scene warrant is obtained, a police officer may exercise the crime scene powers conferred under s 92 of LEPRA at a location that is NOT a prescribed rural area for a period of not more than: a. 2 hours. b. 3 hours. c. 4 hours. d. 6 hours.

c. 4 hours.

An intoxicated and argumentative person is turned out of a local hotel by the licensee. A few minutes later the same person repeatedly attempts to re-enter the premises. The appropriate offence is: a. Excluded Person re-enter/attempt to re-enter premise - s 77(6) Liquor Act 2007. b. Offensive conduct - s 4 Summary Offences Act 1988. c. Failure to comply with direction - s 199 LEPRA. d. Unlawful re-entry on inclosed lands - s 4AA Inclosed Lands Protection Act 1901.

a. Excluded Person re-enter/attempt to re-enter premise - s 77(6) Liquor Act 2007.

Which of the following offences would quality under confiscation of Proceeds of Crime Act 1989? BES / Deemd Supply Prohibited Drug / High Range PCA / Stealing

Deemed Supply Prohibited Drug

If you are required to open a multi-ply paper drug bag (PAB24) at court, there are a number of steps you need to take before doing so. Of the following, which is NOT one of those steps? a. Warn all present of the likelihood of compositional changes to the substance which may affect their health and safety. b. Assess the need to use personal protective equipment. c. Make a record in your police notebook and have the police prosecutor (or ODPP solicitor) endorse the entry. d. Cut the evidence seal in front of the Court Officer.

c. Make a record in your police notebook and have the police prosecutor (or ODPP solicitor) endorse the entry.

When faced with making ethical decisions, of the following which would NOT be a consideration? a. Is the decision or conduct lawful? b. Is the decision or conduct consistent with NSWPF and Government policy and the NSWPF Code of Conduct and Ethics? c. Can the decision or conduct be justified in terms of the public interest and would it withstand public scrutiny? d. Is the decision likely to be popular with the public?

d. Is the decision likely to be popular with the public?

Two offenders break into a house by forcing open a side window and climbing through. They search a number of rooms and move several electrical appliances to the front door, however, police arrive and the offenders are arrested while still in the house. The appropriate offence is: a. Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900. b. Break and enter with intent to steal - s 113 Crimes Act 1900. c. Steal from dwelling - s 148 Crimes Act 1900. d. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900.

d. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900. They moved the items therefor it goes past intent.

Who coordinates the reponse of Negotiator teams? First officer on scene / Primary Negotiator / Commander (or Coordinator) of the Negotiation Unit / Duty officer or above

Commander (or Coordinator) if the Negotiation Unit.

Under the Common law there is a rebuttable presumption that children aged 10 to 14 years cannot possess the necessary intent to commit a criminal offence. The presumption is known as: a. Mens Rea. b. Doli Incapax. c. Actus Reus. d. Ex Officio.

b. Doli Incapax.

The questions in the Suspect Financial Profile Questionaire (SFPQ) have been structured to capture information and/or details on persons of interest under four main categories. Which is NOT one of those categories? Personal / Assosciates / Occupation / Resources

Resources

Section 5 of the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989 lists the four stages of an emergency as: a. prevention, preparation, response and relief. b. prevention, preparation, response and recovery. c. prevention, preparation, response and retreat. d. prevention, preparation, response and reclamation.

b. prevention, preparation, response and recovery.

A person (NOT a high office holder) discovers a package at their front door. A note attached to it contains a credible threat. Nothing can be seen coming from the package and the person suffers no obvious health effects. The response to such a suspicious substance incident would be classified as: a. Red (High Risk Incident). b. Blue (Medium Risk Incident). c. Green (Low Risk Incident). d. Orange (Potential Risk Incident).

b. Blue (Medium Risk Incident). no credible threat = green

A woman complains to you that, while she was in a local nightclub, a man approched her from behind, grabbed her breats with both hands and began to fondle them for five seconds while rubbing his body against hers. The offence committed is: common assault / sexual touching / sexual act / aggravated sexual assault

Sexual touching.

There are certain courses of action police can take following their investigation of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following courses of action are police NOT permitted to take? a. Arrest and charge the offending driver (subject to s 99 LEPRA considerations). b. Issue a caution to the offending driver. c. Issue a penalty notice to the offending driver. d. Issue a Field CAN or Future Service CAN to the offending driver.

b. Issue a caution to the offending driver.

You are called to an incident where a person has been fatally wounded. The crime scene is located in the front yard of a residential premise. You inform the owner and begin establishing the crime scene. The owner has now asked you to leave. Are you required to leave or can you stay? a. You would exercise your powers pursuant to s88 of LEPRA and remain. b. You would exercise your powers pursuant to s41 of the Coroners Act 2009 and remain. c. You have a Common law right to remain. d. You must leave the premises immediately and apply for a crime scene warrant.

a. You would exercise your powers pursuant to s88 of LEPRA and remain.

A number of juveniles found consuming liquor in a public park are spoken to by police. Several unopened cans of beer are confiscated. The person from whom the liquor is confiscated is to be told the name of the police station where the liquor will be taken, and that the liquor will be kept there for: a. a maximum of 6 hours. b. at least 24 hours. c. at least 48 hours. d. a maximum of 28 days.

b. at least 24 hours.

If you serve a brief of evidence via post, service is deemed to be effected within Australia or an external Territory on the: a. day after it was posted. b. next working day after it was posted. c. fifth working day after it was posted. d. seventh working day after it was posted.

d. seventh working day after it was posted.

A probationary pistol licence is issued to a person who has: never held a category H licence (sport/target shooting) / never held a cat A or B firearms licence / held a category H licence which expired / held a category A or B licence which expired

Never held a category H licence (sport/target shooting)

To be eligible for a caution under the Cannabis Cautioning Scheme, a person must not have any prior conviction for: a. drug offences, sexual offences, or offences involving violence unless the conviction is spent. b. drug offences, sexual offences, or stealing offences unless the conviction is spent. c. drug offences, sexual offences, or explosives/firearms offences unless the conviction is spent. d. drug offences, sexual offences, or fraud offences unless the conviction is spent.

a. drug offences, sexual offences, or offences involving violence unless the conviction is spent.

A woman tells you that her former boyfriend has been continually telephoning her at work. He says that he has been watching her all the time with her new boyfriend. The phone calls have become more frequent and abusive. The former boyfriend's actions may constitute: a. no offence. b. the offence of offensive conduct. c. the offence of intimidation. d. an assault.

c. the offence of intimidation.

You arrest a person for possessing a prohibited drug. Upon arrival at the police station, where possible, the drug should be weighed in the presence of: a. the commander. b. the offender. c. the most senior police officer on duty at the time. d. an officer not involved in the investigation.

b. the offender.

A driver involved in a crash must give the driver’s required particulars to certain other parties involved in the crash/or a police officer within the required time. The 'required time' means as soon as possible but, except in exceptional circumstances, within: a. 24 hours of the crash. b. 48 hours of the crash. c. 72 hours of the crash. d. 7 days of the crash.

a. 24 hours of the crash.

There are certain courses of action police can take following their investigation of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following courses of action are police NOT permitted to take? ## Footnote a. Arrest and charge the offending driver (subject to s 99 LEPRA considerations). b. Issue a caution to the offending driver. c. Issue a penalty notice to the offending driver. d. Issue a Field CAN or Future Service CAN to the offending driver.

b. Issue a caution to the offending driver.

A man approaches the enquiry counter at a police station and hands over a pushbike which he claims to have found dumped in a creek yesterday. Police should enter detail of the property and its finding: official notebook / webcops / efims / both b and c

Both B and C - WebCOPS and EFIMS.

An offender is arrested in possession of 350 grams of cannabis leaf, which is in excess of the Traffickable Quantity for that drug. The most appropriate offence in this situation is: a. Possess Prohibited Plant. b. Possess Prohibited Drug. c. Deemed Supply Prohibited Plant. d. Deemed Supply Prohibited Drug.

d. Deemed Supply Prohibited Drug.

A person notices a utility parked in the street. Later that night the person returns to the utility, breaks the driver's side window and removes a toolbox which was sitting on the front seat. The appropriate offence is: a. Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900. b. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900. c. Destroying/damaging property - s 195 Crimes Act 1900. d. both answer (a) and answer (c).

d. both answer (a) and answer (c).

Consuming alcohol whilst driving a vehicle on a road is: a. an offence under Rule 298-1 of the Road Rules 2014. b. not an offence. c. an offence ONLY if the driver returns a positive breath analysis following a positive breath test. d. an offence ONLY if the driver is in control of a motor vehicle with a GVM exceeding 4.5 tonnes.

a. an offence under Rule 298-1 of the Road Rules 2014.

Police must take care when describing persons to the media. Ethnicity based descriptors can be valid and useful if used as part of the overall description of a poi. Which of the follow is NOT an appropriate ethnicity based descriptor? Indian / Pacific Islander / Asian / European

European

As a duty holder under Work Health and Safety legislation, the NSWPF must identify reasonably foreseeable: a. hazards that could give rise to risks to health and safety. b. dangers that could give rise to risks to health and safety. c. problems that could give rise to risks to health and safety. d. threats that could give rise to risks to health and safety.

a. hazards that could give rise to risks to health and safety.

A police officer who enters premises pursuant to a warrant issued under s 280 of the Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997 in order to give a noise abatement direction or investigate whether a noise abatement direction has been contravened, may: a. detain any person present on the premises for the purpose of issuing the direction or investigating a contravention. b. direct any person present to leave the premises. c. require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to furnish their name and address. d. require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to apologise to the complainant/s.

c. require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to furnish their name and address.

As set out in the Human Source Management SOPs 2013, 'contact' between a Handler and a Human Source means: any communication by a communication device / any physical contact / any communication by mobile or landline / meeting and telephone contact

Meeting and telephone contact.

When considering if an offender should be referred to the Magistrates Early Referral Into Treatment (MERIT) program, certain criteria must be met. Of the following, which is one of the criteria? a. The offender must be on another court ordered treatment. b. The offender must be charged with a sexual offence. c. The offender must be charged with a strictly indictable offence. d. The offender must voluntarily agree to participate.

d. The offender must voluntarily agree to participate.

When a person appears before a court for the offence of 'Goods in custody' (personal custody), the prosecution must prove that the property: a. may reasonably be suspected of being stolen or otherwise unlawfully obtained. b. is stolen. c. is believed to be stolen. d. was in the possession of a known thief.

a. may reasonably be suspected of being stolen or otherwise unlawfully obtained.

Section 93X(2) of the Crimes Act 1900 states that a person does not habitually consort with convicted offenders unless: a. the person consorts with at least 1 convicted offender on at least 2 occasions. b. the person consorts with at least 1 convicted offender on at least 3 occasions. c. the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 2 occasions with each convicted offender. d. the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 3 occasions with each convicted offender.

c. the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 2 occasions with each convicted offender. 2 AND 2

A 25 year old woman attends the police station and says that she was sexually assaulted 12 hours ago. After taking her personal details and some details in relation to the sexual assault you must: a. immediately notify the on call detectives. b. immediately arrange for her to be taken to the closest Sexual Assault Service for a forensic medical examination. c. immediately notify the duty officer. d. immediately arrange for a female officer to speak with her.

c. immediately notify the duty officer.

A small quantity of heroin contained in foil is weighed at a police station. The person responsible for estimating the net weight of the drug is the: a. station/exhibits officer. b. officer in charge of the case. c. independent observer. d. duty officer.

a. station/exhibits officer.

When commencing a search of a room in response to a bomb threat, you should search first: from floor level to waist height / from floor level to head height / from floor to ceiling / from ceiling to floor

From floor level to waist height

What prioirty level would you classify a suspicious substance incident where there is an obvious reason for the presence of the substance, no credible threat or risk has been identified and there are no health effects for persons at the incident site? red / blue / green / white

Green.

A child or the parent of a child cannot consent to body piercing on any part of a child's: a. nipples or genitalia. b. ear lobes. c. eyebrows. d. navel.

a. nipples or genitalia.

When police are required to tranpsort a person with a mental illness to a mental health service or an approved hospital, the type of vehicle used should be: caged truck / the least restrictive under the circumstances / owned by NSW health / unmarked

The least restrictive under the circumstances.

Briefs of Evidence containing sensitive evidence must NOT be served on the accused person. Instead, police must: a. supply the material to the court registry. b. ensure any sensitive evidence is censored before the brief is served. c. serve the brief ONLY on a legal practitioner acting on behalf of the accused person. d. serve on the accused person a sensitive evidence notice.

d. serve on the accused person a sensitive evidence notice.

A registrable person must report their relevant personal information to police: monthly / quarterly / biannually / annually

Annually.

Under the Firearms Act 1996, a category H licence authorises the holder it posses: rimfire rifles / pistols (including blank fire pistols and air pistols) / single-barrel shotguns / bolt-action rifles

Pistols (including blank fire pistols and air pistols).

s 11A of the Summary Offences Act 1988 sets out that a certain number of people who are together and who use or threaten unlawful violence commit an offence of violent disorder. The number of people who must be present is: a. 2 or more. b. 3 or more. c. 5 or more. d. 12 or more.

b. 3 or more.

Illegally receiving stolen goods, knowing them to have been stolen, is the offence of 'Receiving'. Of the following, which is not one of the proofs for that offence? a. The property was stolen. b. The property was received from a person known for property theft. c. The accused person actually received the property. d. The accused person knew at the time he received the property it was stolen.

b. The property was received from a person known for property theft.

You see a man standing amongst a group of people at a taxi rank smoking a cigarette. As a police officer, you may require the man to: a. state his name, address and telephone number. b. state his name, age and telephone number. c. state his name, age and address. d. state his name and address.

d. state his name and address.

You stop a car which was reported stolen two hours previously. You speak with the driver who tells you that she took the vehicle as she had no other way to get home from a nightclub and she was going to leave it intact in the street after she had driven home. The appropriate offence is: a. Steal motor vehicle - s 154F Crimes Act 1900. b. Stealing - s 117 Crimes Act 1900. c. Use motor vehicle without consent of owner - s 147 Road Transport Act 2013. d. Taking a conveyance without consent of owner - s 154A CrimesAct 1900.

d. Taking a conveyance without consent of owner - s 154A CrimesAct 1900.

Who may report the homelessness of a child to the Director-General of the Department of FAmily and Community Serivces? A police officer only / An officer of the Department of Family and Community Serivces only / Any person authorised in writing by the Director-General / Any person

Any person.

The investigation period begins when a person is arrested and ends at a time that is reasonable having regard to all the circumstances (not exceeding the maximum investigation period). Of the following, which circumstance would NOT be taken into account when determining a reasonable time? a. The number, seriousness and complexity of the offences under investigation. b. The time taken for police involved in the investigation to partake in a meal break as per the Award. c. Whether the person has indicated a willingness to make a statement or to answer any questions. d. The number and availability of other persons who need to be questioned or from whom statements need to be obtained.

b. The time taken for police involved in the investigation to partake in a meal break as per the Award.

Under the Liquor Act, the hotel licence allows that the licensed premises to trade from Monday to Saturday inclusive, without applying for an extention or being permitted under the Act to have extended trading hours are: 5am to midnight / 10am to 10pm / 10am to 12 midnight / 5am to 10pm

5am to midnight.

A firearm seized during a murder investigation is entered in EFIMS as an exhibit. Criminal proceedings in relation to the matter have been finalised. Who authorises disposal of the firearm? a. The presiding judge. b. The magistrate who presided at the committal. c. The Local Area Commander (or specialist equivalent). Incorrect d. The coroner.

d. The coroner.

An offence NOT covered under the Young Offenders Act 1997 is: supply prohib drug / traffic offence under 17yrs / domestic / fruad

Supply prohibited drug

For all reportable deaths, before a body can be admitted to a morgue, police must obtain a: a. Coronial Order (Authority to Remove, Transport and Hold Deceased Person/Human Remains). b. Coronial Order (Investigation). c. Verification of Death Certificate. d. Medical Certificate of Cause of Death.

c. Verification of Death Certificate.

Where you have a declarable association you must report it promptly and in writing to: a. Professional Standards Command. b. your commander/manager or supervisor. c. a senior police officer. d. a police officer of or above the rank of Superintendent (or non-sworn equivalent

b. your commander/manager or supervisor.

An offender enters a house through the open front door and grabs some loose change which is found on top of a sideboard. The offender then leaves through the open front door. The appropriate offence is: a. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900. b. Stealing - s 117 Crimes Act 1900. c. Steal from dwelling - s 148 Crimes Act 1900. d. Goods in custody - s 527C Crimes Act 1900.

c. Steal from dwelling - s 148 Crimes Act 1900.

In accordance with the NSW Police Media Policy, police are generally permitted to: a. issue a media release about day to day operational matters for which they have direct responsibility and/or expertise. b. criticise a court decision. c. comment on police policy and procedure. d. grant interviews with the media on any police operation.

a. issue a media release about day to day operational matters for which they have direct responsibility and/or expertise.

A person attends the station to collect an item of miscellaneous property that they found two months ago. You find that the property has gone missing from the property room. You should immediately notify your: a. Crime Manager of the circumstances and confirm the details in writing. b. Shift Supervisor of the circumstances and confirm the details in writing. c. Region Commander of the circumstances and confirm the details in writing. d. Commander of the circumstances and confirm the details in writing.

d. Commander of the circumstances and confirm the details in writing.

For evidence to be admissible in a court of law it must be: a. relevant, reliable and credible. b. relevant, reliable and fair. c. relevant, reliable and probative. d. relevant, reliable and factual.

b. relevant, reliable and fair.

You stop a motor vehicle fitted with diplomatic plates that is being driven erratically. You speak to the driver and suspect he is intoxicated. The driver produces a RED ID card confirming he is a diplomatic agent. He claims immunity and refuses to submit to a breath test. You would: a. inform the driver it is an offence to refuse the test and repeat your request until he complies. b. make whatever arrangements are necessary and appropriate in the interest of road safety. c. inform the driver he will be arrested for refusing the breath test if he does not comply. d. arrest the driver and take him to the police station for the purpose of a breath analysis.

b. make whatever arrangements are necessary and appropriate in the interest of road safety. Red = immune. Lime = not immune.

The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym 'HOT ALERTS'. What does 'HOT' stand for? a. Hidden, Obvious, Tampered. b. Hidden, Obvious, Typical. c. Hidden, Obvious, Ticking. d. Hidden, Obvious, Threat.

b. Hidden, Obvious, Typical.

Under the Securities Industries Act 1997, a Class 1C licence holder authorised the licensee to do what? Act as a master licensee / act as a security consultant / Act as a crowd controller / Install and repair security equipment

Act as a crowd controller.

The Family Court of Australia may issue a warrant for the arrest of a person who has contravened a parenting order. Such a warrant ceases to be in force: 3 months / 6 months / 9 months / 12 months

6 months after the issue of the warrant unless an earlier date is specified in the warrant.

A can of spray paint seized from a minor under the Graffiti Control Act 2008 may be disposed of immediately if part of the contents of the can have been used, or:

It is otherwise of negligible value.

Criminal proceedings are taken to have commenced on the date: a CAN is filed in the registry of a relevant court / a CAN is served on the accused person / a CAN is created / an accused person first appears at the court listed in the CAN.

A Court Attendance Notice is filed in the registry of the relevant court.

A driver involved in a crash must give the drivers requuired particulars to certain other parties involved in the crash. Which is NOT one of the required particulars?

The driver's driver licence number.

The driver of a car involved in a crash is treated at hospital and a compulsory blood sample taken. The result of the sample is negative and you decide to post a penalty notice to the driver. The penalty notice can be posted within: a. 24 hours of the offence. b. 48 hours of the offence. c. 14 calendar days of the offence. d. 3 calendar months of the offence.

d. 3 calendar months of the offence.

Police officers may be required to submit to a mandatory drug and alcohol test. What type of incident would require the officer to submit to such a test? a. A person has been seriously injured in a motor cycle collision. b. A person has been seriously injured in a motor vehicle collision. c. A person has been killed in a motor vehicle collision. d. A person has been killed or seriously injured as result of amotor vehicle pursuit.

d. A person has been killed or seriously injured as result of amotor vehicle pursuit.

The responsibility for removing debris, which is likely to endanger any person, from the roadway at the scene of a motor vehicle crash where drivers are not injured is initially given to the: police / drivers involved / tow truck driver / council workers

Drivers involved in the crash.

A 17-year-old young person attempts to use a forged birth certificate to enter a registered club. The most appropriate offence is found in the: a. Registered Clubs Act b. Summary Offences Act c. Liquor Act d. Young Offenders Act

c. Liquor Act

The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym 'HOT ALERTS'. What does 'ALE' stand for? a. Alert Level Eradicated. b. Alert Level Escalated. c. Alert Level Eliminated. d. Alert Level Elevated.

d. Alert Level Elevated.

A person is arrested for possessing a small quantity of cannabis leaf wrapped in foil. The exhibit should be secured in a: a. plastic drug security bag. b. paper drug security bag (PAB24). c. fabric (breathable) drug security bag. d. paper evidence bag sealed with evidence tape.

a. plastic drug security bag. Large amounts = PAB24. Small amounts = plastic drug security bag.

Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, the time limit for carrying out a forensic procedure on a suspect not under arrest is? 4 hours including time out / 4 hours excluding time out / 2 hours including time out / 2 hours excluding time out

Within 2 hours and excluding any time out.

With regard to media access to any person in custody, police should ensure that: a. persons in custody are provided with the means to cover their face if they wish. b. media organisations are given equal access to the person in custody. c. filming of the person in custody by the media only takes place after written consent is obtained. d. a media area is established to allow police greater control of the media.

a. persons in custody are provided with the means to cover their face if they wish.

In a prosecution for the offence of 'Offensive conduct' pursuant to s 4 of the Summary Offences Act 1988, it is a sufficient defence if the accused satisfies the court that: a. he or she had a reasonable excuse for the conduct alleged. b. the offence was not witnessed directly by police. c. he or she was seriously impaired by intoxicating liquor or a drug or combinations of drugs. d. the conduct was not carried out in the immediate presence of another person or persons.

a. he or she had a reasonable excuse for the conduct alleged.

An ambulance will remove a deceased when: a. sudden death has occurred and the body is in public view. b. death occurred more than 24 hours previously. c. it is obvious resuscitation will not be successful. d. the deceased is personally known to any person present at the scene.

a. sudden death has occurred and the body is in public view.

Under the Registered Clubs Act 1976 (NSW), a police officer may demand from any person who is on the premises of any registered club, and whom that police officer suspects, on reasonable grounds, is not a member of the registered club or a guest of a member of the registered club: a. particulars of the correct name and address of that person. b. particulars of the correct name and age only of that person. c. particulars of the correct name only of that person. d. particulars of the correct age only of that person.

a. particulars of the correct name and address of that person.

With regard to the release of information during an investigation or prior to an arrest, the following information may be released: a. the psychological state of an alleged offender. b. descriptions of remarks made by offenders, but not a direct quote. c. the identity of a victim of a sexual crime. d. methodology used by an offender.

b. descriptions of remarks made by offenders, but not a direct quote.

A registrable person must report any changes to their relevant personal information to police: a. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 7 days. b. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 14 days. c. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 21 days. d. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 28 days.

a. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 7 days.

A coroner does not have jurisdiction to hold an inquest concerning a death or suspected death unless it appears to the coroner that the circumstances meet one or more of the criteria set out in s 18 of the Coroners Act 2009. Of the following, which is NOT one of that criteria? a. The remains of the person are in NSW. b. The death or suspected death or the cause of the death or suspected death occurred in NSW. c. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW and, although the person did not reside in NSW, was born in NSW. d. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW but the person had sufficient connection with NSW.

c. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW and, although the person did not reside in NSW, was born in NSW.

The first step in preventing prisoner suicide or illness is to identify: the type of offence allged / the seriousness of the known facts / any potential risks / both a and b

Any potential risks.

A man gets drunk and passes out in the toilet of a club. Staff close and lock the club soon after. The man wakes, steals a case of beer from the cool room and smashes a window near the bar to get out. The appropriate offence is: a. Larceny - s117 Crimes Act 1900. b. Steal and break out - s112 Crimes Act 1900. c. Fraudulent appropriation - s124 Crimes Act 1900 and Intentionally damage property - s195 Crimes Act 1900. d. Steal from dwelling - s148 Crimes Act 1900.

b. Steal and break out - s112 Crimes Act 1900.

The Statement of Strategic Intent 2019 lists the vision of the NSW Police Force as: a. To prevent, disrupt and respond. b. Proactive Partnership Policing. c. A safer NSW. d. A secure NSW.

c. A safer NSW.

A person who is the holder of a permit to acquire a firearm and who wishes to purchase a registered firearm from a suitably licensed person who is not a licensed firearms dealer must arrange the sale through: a. The NSWPF Firearms Registry. b. A licensed firearms dealer. c. The officer-in-charge of the nearest police station. d. The registrar of the Local Court.

b. A licensed firearms dealer.

Under the Road Transport Act 2013, the novice range of prescribed concentration of alcohol is defined as: a. more than 0.01 and less than 0.02 grams of alcohol per 100ml of blood. b. more than 0.02 and less than 0.05 grams of alcohol per 100ml of blood. c. more than 0.00 and less than 0.05 grams of alcohol per 100ml of blood. d. more than 0.00 but less than 0.02 grams of alcohol per 100 ml of blood.

d. more than 0.00 but less than 0.02 grams of alcohol per 100 ml of blood.

A young man standing outside a local hotel removes his jeans and exposes his buttocks to a number of women inside the hotel. The young man has: a. committed no offence. b. committed the offence of 'Obscene exposure'. c. committed the offence of 'Offensive conduct'. d. committed the offence of 'Lewdness' (Common law).

c. committed the offence of 'Offensive conduct'.

'A' borrows a video camera from 'B' to film the wedding of 'C'. 'A' sells the footage to 'C' for a large profit. 'A' decides to start a business filming weddings and keeps the video camera. The appropriate offence is: a. Larceny — s 117 Crimes Act 1900. b. Larceny as a bailee — s 125 Crimes Act 1900. c. Fraud — s 192E Crimes Act 1900. d. Fraudulent appropriation — s 124 Crimes Act 1900.

d. Fraudulent appropriation — s 124 Crimes Act 1900.

The offence of 'Aggravated littering' applies where the litter deposited causes or contributes to, or is reasonably likely to, appreciable danger or harm to any persons, animals, premises or property. Of the following, which item would be considered 'Aggravated littering'? a. Confetti. b. Shredded paper. c. A cigarette butt. d. A hypodermic syringe.

d. A hypodermic syringe.

Offences under the Firearms Act 1996 may be dealt with in a summary manner before the Local Court if the court attendance notice was issued within: 6 months / 12 months / 2 years / 18 months

2 years of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.

Jane is 17 years of age and homeless. Before you can make a report of her homelessness to the Director-General of the Department of Family and Community Services, you must first: a. obtain the consent of the young person's parent or guardian. b. obtain the consent of any adult nominated by the young person. c. obtain the consent of the young person. d. attempt to find the young person suitable accommodation.

c. obtain the consent of the young person.

s 11(1) of the Drug Misuse and Trafficking Act 1985 provides the offence of 'Possess equipment to administer a prohibited drug'. This section, however, would NOT apply to: a. a bong to be used to smoke cannabis. b. a water pipe to be used to smoke opium. c. a hypodermic needle to be used to inject heroin. d. an implement to be used to ingest cocaine.

c. a hypodermic needle to be used to inject heroin.

a. 24 hours of charging.

When dealing with a Human Source, you must ensure your conduct: a. is exemplary. b. safeguards their security and protection. c. does not come under notice. d. is conducive to a professional relationship.

b. safeguards their security and protection.

Under section 25(1) of the Liquor Act 2007, an on-premises licence generally authorises a licensee to: a. Sell liquor by retail on the licensed premises for consumption on the premises only. b. Sell liquor by retail on the licensed premises for consumption off the premises only. c. Sell liquor by retail off the licensed premises for consumption on the premises only. d. Sell liquor by retail off the licensed premises for distribution on the premises only.

a. Sell liquor by retail on the licensed premises for consumption on the premises only.

All police dealing with Human Sources will ensure: a. accurate and complete records are maintained in relation to all NSWPF/Human Source associations. b. every Human Source is psychologically assessed prior to being registered on the Source Management System. c. thorough enquiries are made to establish if the Source is in any way related to any police employee at their station. d. the Source is contactable 24/7.

a. accurate and complete records are maintained in relation to all NSWPF/Human Source associations.

c. Liquor Act 2007.

A subpoena for a witness to give evidence in summary proceedings must be served within a reasonable time. In any case, it must be served at least: a. 5 days before the last day on which it must be complied with. b. 7 days before the last day on which it must be complied with. c. the day before the last day on which it must be complied with. d. 14 days before the last day on which it must be complied with.

a. 5 days before the last day on which it must be complied with.

Pursuant to s 88 of LEPRA, a police officer who is lawfully on premises (whether by authority of a crime scene warrant or for any other lawful reason) may establish a crime scene, exercise crime scene powers and what else? a. Investigate the offence. b. Detain any person on the premises. c. Bring equipment onto the premises. d. Stay on the premises for those purposes.

d. Stay on the premises for those purposes.

Clause 5 of the Summary Offences Regulation 2010 empowers police to dispose of confiscated liquor at the time of seizure if: a. there is no means to convey the liquor to a police station. b. police are unable to issue a receipt for the seized liquor. c. the liquor is in a container which is unsealed. d. the owner consents to the liquor being disposed of.

c. the liquor is in a container which is unsealed.

When a certificate as to cause of death has been issued and the body is not otherwise required to be conveyed to the morgue, transportation of the body should be arranged by:

The relatives or friends of the deceased.

Offenders can be referred to the Magistrates Early Referral into Treatment Program (MERIT) in two ways. Of the following, which is one of these ways? a. Upon application by the offender's most immediate next of kin. b. Upon arrest. c. At the instigation of the police prosecutor. Incorrect d. At the instigation of Probation and Parole.

Upon arrest.

In response to a high risk situation, can the first police on scene request the Tactical Operations Unit and Negotiators? a. No, only the Duty Operations Inspector can. b. No, only a Region Commander/equivalent can. c. Yes but only if a person has been seriously injured and is likely to die as a result. d. Yes, however, advice should be sought wherever possible from a senior officer.

d. Yes, however, advice should be sought wherever possible from a senior officer.

While patrolling the CBD during the early hours you have cause to speak to a person whom you learn is a registrable person in NSW. The person claims to be unaware of their obligations, denies being served the required notices and has no fixed place of abode. You would: a. detain the person for the purpose of serving the required notices. b. inform the person of their reporting obligations and record the fact in WebCOPS. c. submit an intelligence report disseminated to the Crime Manager. d. submit an intelligence report disseminated to the Child Protection Registry.

a. detain the person for the purpose of serving the required notices.

A person is not guilty of failing to produce a firearm's licence to a police officer if the person has a reasonable excuse for not having the licence when the demand is made and they produced it as soon as practicable after the demand was made, but not more than: a. 4 hours after the demand for its production is made. b. 6 hours after the demand for its production is made. c. 8 hours after the demand for its production is made. d. 12 hours after the demand for its production is made.

b. 6 hours after the demand for its production is made.

A 16 year old youth is found drinking beer in a public park. Police have the power under the Summary Offences Act 1988 to arrest the youth: ## Footnote a. only for the purpose of questioning about the offence b. only for the purpose of the administration of a caution c. in order to commence proceedings for the offence only for the purpose of locating an adult responsible for the youth

b. only for the purpose of the administration of a caution.

A motor vehicle is towed to a holding yard at the direction of police. The tow truck operator completes the necessary paperwork and hands police an account for the towing fee. The towing fee is recoverable from the owner if the vehicle was towed to the holding yard because: a. it was causing an obstruction to traffic. b. it was involved in a fatal crash. c. it is required for scientific examination. d. it was needed as an exhibit.

a. it was causing an obstruction to traffic.

As a duty holder under Work Health and Safety legilsation, the NSWPF must: enunciate / extrapolate / eliminate / eradicate

ELIMINATE risks to health and safety so far as is reasonably practicable.

Unless it is for a defined lawful purpose, it is an offence for a person to possess a spray paint can in a public place if the person is under what age? a. 10 years. b. 14 years. c. 16 years. d. 18 years.

d. 18 years.

You investigate a crash in which a person has been injured. The offending driver declines to supply any information regarding the crash, claiming a right to silence. Under the provisions of Rule 287(3) of the Road Rules 2014, he is required to: a. state his name only. b. state his name and address only. c. give the driver's required particulars within the required time. d. (in addition to B), produce his driver licence.

c. give the driver's required particulars within the required time.

During a search of a premises three cannabis plants are located growing in pots in the back yard. The occupier of the premises claims ownership of the plants and also admits to watering them to make them grow. The most appropriate offence is: a. Possess a Prohibited Plant. b. Supply a Prohibited Plant. c. Cultivate a Prohibited Plant. d. Cultivate Prohibited Drug.

c. Cultivate a Prohibited Plant.

A negotiation team comprises four police negotiators performing the roles of team leader, primary negotiator, secondary negotiator and: Responder / Rescuer / Reliever / Recorder

Recorder.

The Certification of police employees permits them to drive police motor vehicles. The Classification determines: a. their level of experience. b. the level to which a driver may respond to particular incidents. c. the types of police vehicles they may drive. d. their driving history.

b. the level to which a driver may respond to particular incidents.

About 1am you attend a residence from which loud music is being emitted. The occupier opens the door but upon seeing you slams the door shut. The occupier refuses to answer the door again and increases the volume of the music. You may: a. force entry to issue a noise abatement direction. b. remain at the premises until the occupier opens the door to allow you to issue a noise abatement direction. c. turn the power off at the meter box. d. seek a warrant pursuant to s 280 of the Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997.

d. seek a warrant pursuant to s 280 of the Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997.

The NSW Police Force Handbook lists the circumstances when a penalty notice is NOT to be issued for a traffic or parking offence. Of the following, which is one of those listed circumstances? a. The offence is included in the Fixed Penalty Handbook. b. Young persons aged 16 or older are involved. c. The driver of an ambulance or fire vehicle not on urgent duty commits a minor traffic offence. d. The offender is a police officer on duty involved in a crash causing serious injuries.

d. The offender is a police officer on duty involved in a crash causing serious injuries.

You arrest an offender for illegally being in possession of a prescribed restricted substance. The offender states that it was bought from an unknown person in the street two days previously. The offence committed is: a. Possess Prohibited Drug. b. Goods in Custody. c. Possess Prohibited Plant. d. Possess Prescribed Restricted Substance.

d. Possess Prescribed Restricted Substance.

a. detain the person for the purpose of serving the required notices.

For the purposes of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998, a child is defined as being: a. under the age of 18 years. b. under the age of 16 years. c. under the age of 14 years. d. under the age of 10 years.

b. under the age of 16 years.

An offender notices a bicycle lying on the front lawn of a house. The offender enters the property and takes the bicycle, permanently depriving the owner of it. The offence committed is: a. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900. b. Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900. c. Take conveyance without consent - s 154A Crimes Act 1900. d. Steal from dwelling - s 148 Crimes Act 1900.

b. Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.

Unless the parent of a child or young person consents, it is an offence under s 230 of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998 to: a. buy food for a child or young person. b. cut or colour the hair on a child or young person's head. c. tattoo a child or young person. d. buy clothing for a child or young person.

c. tattoo a child or young person.

Under the Security Industries Act 1997, licences have been placed into three groups. What are they? 1. Master Licence, Class 1 licence and class 2 licence. 2. Master licence, Class A licence and class B licence.

1. Master licence, Class 1 licence and class 2 licence.

Unless a search warrant is specifically endorsed otherwise, it will normally be executed: a. by day between 9am and 6pm. b. by day between 6am and 9pm. - probably this one c. by day or by night as is reasonable in all the circumstances. d. at a time when there is likely to be less risk to the safety of any person. - wrong

b. by day between 6am and 9pm. - probably this one

Under the provisions of the Weapons Prohibition Act, 1998 a crossbow, is classified as a: a. dangerous article. b. legally possessed item. c. prohibited weapon. d. firearm.

c. prohibited weapon.

Before asking someone to travel a long distance to identify a body, you should consult: a. your Commander. b. the Coroner. c. the Government Medical Officer. d. your Duty Officer.

a. your Commander.

After stopping the driver of a motor vehicle for a RBT, you locate in the vehicle a rifle made in 1850 incapable of discharging breech-loaded metallic cartridges. The driver admits he does not have a firearms licence or permit and that the rifle is unregistered. You would: a. take action for the offences of 'Unauthorised possession of a firearm' and 'Possess unregistered firearm'. b. take action for the offence of 'Unauthorised possession of a firearm' ONLY as the firearm is exempt from registration. c. take action for the offence of 'Possess unregistered firearm' ONLY is exempt from licensing requirements. d. make a record in WebCOPS but take no action as the rifle is exempt from licensing and registration requirements.

d. make a record in WebCOPS but take no action as the rifle is exempt from licensing and registration requirements.

The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym 'HOT ALERTS'. What does 'RT' stand for? a. Receipt of Threat. b. Recognition of Threat. c. Removal of Threat. d. Rejection of Threat.

a. Receipt of Threat.

You lawfully search an offender in a public place and locate a detonator. The offender has no reasonable excuse for possessing the detonator. The appropriate offence is: GIC / Possesion of dangerous articles other than firearms / Larceny / Possess explosive

Possession of dangerous articles other than firearms - s 93FB Crimes Act 1900.

When a death has occurred in which foul play is suspected, the body should only be moved or disturbed after release by the: a. Coroner. b. Crime Scene Investigator. c. Area Commander/District Commander (or specialist equivalent). d. Next of Kin.

b. Crime Scene Investigator.

Except in limited circumstances, a forensic procedure is NOT to be carried out on a child under: a. 16 years of age. b. 14 years of age. c. 12 years of age. d. 10 years of age.

d. 10 years of age.

An intoxicated person who is detained under s 206 LEPRA, may be taken to and detained at an authorised place of detention if: a. it is in the person's best interest to do so. b. a responsible person cannot be found to take care of the intoxicated person. c. it is unlikely the person will cease to be intoxicated within 6 hours of being detained. d. the intoxicated person consents to being so detained.

b. a responsible person cannot be found to take care of the intoxicated person.

If, when carrying out a forensic procedure to obtain a DNA sample, any part of a mouth, hair, or blood sample kit is dropped, or is picked up by any person without gloves, or is contaminated in anyway, the procedure should be carried out again: a. after cleaning/sterilising the contaminated item (where necessary). b. after replacing the contaminated item. c. using a new kit. d. if common sense dictates such action is required.

c. using a new kit.

Police have a duty of care to a person who is released from custody. This duty of care requires that police ensure the person being released: a. reaches their usual place of abode. b. is released in the quickest manner possible. c. is released into the care of relatives. d. is capable of caring for themself.

d. is capable of caring for themself.

Police who are investigating a suspicious death are required to be present at the post mortem if directed to do so by the: a. Police Area/District Commander (or delegate). b. Coroner. c. Forensic Pathologist. d. Manager of Coronial Services (State Coroners Court).

b. Coroner.

Following service of the respondent copy of an application notice made to the Local Court, a copy of the application notice must be filed with the court registry: a. by the first return date for the application notice. b. within 5 days of the day it was served. c. before the first return date for the application notice. d. within 72 hours of the day on which it was served.

c. before the first return date for the application notice.

Under the Firearms Act 1996, which of the following would be a prohibited pistol? CALIBRE OF MORE THEN .38 INCH OR SELF LOADING WITH A BARREL LENGTH OF LESS THAN 120MM OR A REVOLVER WITH A BARREL LENGTH OF LESS THAN 100MM.

CALIBRE OF MORE THEN .38 INCH OR SELF LOADING WITH A BARREL LENGTH OF LESS THAN 120MM OR A REVOLVER WITH A BARREL LENGTH OF LESS THAN 100MM.

When serving a CAN on an accused who is an inmate of a correctional centre, the notice should be served on: the inmate / any correctives services officer above rank of assistant / any corrective service officer in charge of the wing / the general manager of the correctional centre

The general manager of the correctional centre.

Under certain circumstances, a police fact sheet may be released to the media after it has been read out in an open court or admitted in proceedings. Who has the discretion to release the fact sheet? The Registrar of the relevant Court / The Local Area Commander / The OIC / The Police Media Unit

The Registrar of the relevant Court

A senior police officer may at any time withdraw a penalty notice (CIN) issued by a police officer under the Criminal Procedure Act 1986. A senior police officer means: a. a police officer who is not appointed on probation. b. a police officer of or above the rank of senior constable. c. a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant. d. a police officer of or above the rank of inspector.

d. a police officer of or above the rank of inspector.

A woman is walking along the footpath carrying her handbag over her shoulder. A young man comes up behind her, grabs the handbag from her shoulder and runs off up the street with it. The offence committed is: a. Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900. b. Robbery - s 94 Crimes Act 1900. c. Steal from the person - s 94 Crimes Act 1900. d. Common assault - s 61 Crimes Act 1900 and Larceny s 117 Crimes Act 1900.

c. Steal from the person - s 94 Crimes Act 1900.

The holder of a security licence whose licence is lost, stolen, destroyed, defaced, mutilated or becomes illegible must report the occurrence to police within: a. 24 hours. b. 48 hours. c. 7 days. d. 14 days.

c. 7 days.

In all cases of adult sexual assault, the initial response officer is required to notify: a. the Shift Supervisor. b. the Duty Officer. c. the Local Area Commander. d. the Crime Manager.

b. the Duty Officer.

A woman informs police that she is separated from her husband but he has recently commenced to stalk her. Which of the following would be held to be an example of stalking? a. Harassing conduct. b. The making of repeated telephone calls to the victim. c. Following the victim about. d. Conduct that causes a reasonable apprehension of injury.

c. Following the victim about.

You attend the scene of a break, enter and steal. At the scene you locate and seize a torch used by the offender. In cases where battery operated equipment comes into your possession you should:

Remove the batteries unless there is a good reason not to.

A person under the age of 18 years is guilty of an offence if the person possesses or consumes alcohol in a public place unless the person can show that: a. they were under the supervision of a responsible adult. b. the alcohol was legally purchased by an adult. c. the person was attending an approved function. d. the alcohol is not open.

a. they were under the supervision of a responsible adult.

Generally, a certificate as to the cause of death of a person may be given by a medical practitioner who has attended to the person during the period of:

6 months immediately before the persons death.

Once a Human Source is registered, the Handler will be required to complete a review in the Source Management System every: a. 14 days. b. 30 days. c. 60 days. d. 90 days.

d. 90 days.

While executing a search warrant at a residence, the occupier stands in front of a closed door and tells police they cannot enter as his infant child is asleep in the room. Despite repeated warnings the man refuses to move aside. The most appropriate offence is: a. Hinder police - s 546C Crimes Act 1900. b. Hinder investigation - s 315 Crimes Act 1900. c. Pervert course of justice - s 319 Crimes Act 1900. d. Obstruct/hinder person executing warrant - s 52 LEPRA.

d. Obstruct/hinder person executing warrant - s 52 LEPRA.

There are 6 main functions within the Incident Command and Control System (ICCS) model. These are: Planning, Operations, Administration & Logistics, Investigations, Intelligence and; Public Interaction / Public Intervention / Public Interest / Public Information

Public Information.

For the purpose of the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, an 'appropriately qualifed' person is: Any police officer / Any police officer excluding a probie / Any police officer Sgt or above / Any police officer authorised in writing by the Commisioner of Police

Any police officer authorised in writing by the Commisioner of Police

A person must not smoke in a motor vehicle that is on a road or road related area if there is present in the vehicle a person under what age? a. 18 years. b. 16 years. c. 14 years. d. 10 years.

b. 16 years.

A driver provides a positive breath test but the subsequent breath analysis returns a reading of 0.040. The driver is not subject to the special range provisions. The driver asks to be conveyed back to her vehicle. You would: a. tell the driver she must make her own arrangements. b. convey the driver back to her car. c. arrange for a taxi to take the driver to her car. d. arrange for a friend or relative of the driver to attend the police station to collect her.

b. convey the driver back to her car.

What is the maximum investigation period for an investigation not extended by a detention warrant? 3 hour / 4 hours / 6 hours / 8 hours

6 hours.

Under Work Health and Safety Legislation, a worker can cease or refuse to carry out work if they: a. have reasonable concern that the work would expose them to any health or safety risk. b. have a reasonable concern that the work would expose them to an immediate/imminent serious health and safety risk. c. have been directed to cease work by a Health and Safety representative. d. both (b) and (c).

d. both (b) and (c).

Applications under the Criminal Assets Recovery Act 1990 for restraining orders, asset forfeiture and unexplained wealth orders are made to the: NSW Supreme Court / Local Court / District Court / Coroner's Court

NSW Supreme Court

Who is the primary combat agency for all land based hazardous materials incidents? a. NSW Police Force. b. Fire and Rescue NSW. c. NSW State Emergency Service. d. Ambulance Service of NSW

b. Fire and Rescue NSW.

During the investigation of a Part 8A complaint, the subject officer is entitled to have accorded procedural fairness. One of the key points of procedural fairness is: a. giving the subject officer the opportunity to respond to and comment on allegations adverse to the officer. b. disclosing the identity of the complainant to the subject officer. c. delaying the investigation of a complaint if the subject officer is engaged in the police promotions process. d. declining an investigation if it will delay or overturn the subject officer's promotion.

a. giving the subject officer the opportunity to respond to and comment on allegations adverse to the officer.

Who coordinates the response of Negotiator teams? First officer on scene / Primary Negotiator / Commander (or Coordinator) of the Negotiation Unit / Duty officer or above

Commander (or Coordinator) of the Negotiation Unit.

You attend a residence with officers from the Department of Family and Community Services who are in possession of an order issued by the Children's Court for the removal of a child subject of a care application. The order authorises you to: a. remove the child from the premises only. b. remove the child from the premises and convey him or her to the court. c. enter the premises, search for and remove the child. d. remove the child if located pursuant to a search warrant. - not d

Most Likely C.

A critical incident may arise where a person dies or is seriously injured in an incident involving a level of police interaction. Following a critical incident, who is responsible for making any public statements to the media? Select one: a. Duty Officer. b. Local Area Commander. c. appropriate Region Commander/specialist Commander equivalent and, where relevant, the Coroner. d. appropriate Deputy Commissioner.

c. appropriate Region Commander/specialist Commander equivalent and, where relevant, the Coroner.

A person is found in possession of two cans of spray paint near the side wall of a building. He admits that he was about to paint slogans on the wall using the spray paint. The appropriate offence is: a. Armed with an Instrument with Intent to Commit an Offence. b. Possession of graffiti implement. c. Damage property by means of spray paint. d. Malicious Damage.

b. Possession of graffiti implement.

Unless the parent of a child consents, it is an offence under s 230A of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998 to perform body piercing on a child under: a. 18 years of age. b. 17 years of age. c. 16 years of age. d. 10 years of age.

16 years of age.

As a mandatory reporter, if you suspect a child or young person is at risk of significant harm, you must report your suspicious to the Department of Family and Community Services: a. within 24 hours. b. within 48 hours. c. immediately. d. as soon as practicable.

d. as soon as practicable.

Unless it is withdrawn sooner by the issuing magistrate, or it has been executed, a telephone search warrant issued under LEPRA expires: 12 / 24 / 48 / 72 hours after issue

24 hours after issue.

The NSW Police Force provides personal counselling services for all staff and their immediate families via the Employee Assistance Program (EAP). EAP provides counselling in regards to: a. anxiety and depression. b. emotional stress. c. workplace conflict. d. All the above.

d. All the above.

A warrant is issued authorising police to enter premises to investigate a domestic violence incident. Upon entry to the premises the original of the warrant should be given to any person apparently residing there who is of, or above, the age of: a. 14 years. b. 16 years. c. 17 years. d. 18 years.

d. 18 years.

A person, vehicle or area subject of an authorisation of the special powers under Part 2 of the Terrorism (Police Powers) Act 2002 is known as the: a. terrorist. b. target. c. suspect. d. subject.

b. target.

If a case cannot progress further due to all reasonable avenues of investigation being exhausted, with no further action to be taken, the case status will be amended to: a. SUSPENDED. b. NO ACTION. c. CASE FINALISED. d. CASE CLOSED.

d. CASE CLOSED.

Which of the following is not a prohibited weapon under the Weapons Prohibition Act 1998? Butterfly knife / Samurai sword / Walking stick containing a sword / Studded glove

A Samurai sword

Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, who is deemed to be a senior police officer? a. A police officer of or above the rank of Senior Constable. b. A police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant. c. Any commissioned police officer. d. Any police officer with 7 or more years service with the NSW Police Force.

b. A police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant.

Where a person in custody is searched and money is located. The money should be counted in front of both the person and: A support person / The shift supervisor / Arresting or escorting police / At least one other police officer

Arresting/escorting police.

A person who discharges a firearm in a public place without a reasonable excuse commits an offence under the provisions of the: a. Crimes Act 1900. b. Firearms Act 1996. c. Prohibited Weapons Act 1998. d. Common law.

a. Crimes Act 1900.

You attend the scene of a death which is not considered to be unusual or suspicious. You make inquiries in relation to the medical history of the deceased. A report to the Coroner is required if the deceased was not attended by a medical practitioner within the period of: a. 3 months immediately before death. b. 6 months immediately before death. c. 9 months immediately before death. d. 12 months immediately before death.

b. 6 months immediately before death.

You speak with a man walking along a street in an area where break and enters are taking place. You have reason to search him and locate a screwdriver and a large variety of keys. The man admits that he intended to use the implements to gain entry to houses to steal property. The offence is: a. Goods in Custody - s 527C Crimes Act 1900. b. (Attempt) Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900. c. Break and enter with intent to steal - s 113 Crimes Act 1900. d. Being armed with intent to commit indictable offence - s 114 Crimes Act 1900.

d. Being armed with intent to commit indictable offence - s 114 Crimes Act 1900.

Police search a person and locate a 'bong'. A person could be proceeded against for 'Possess Equipment to Administer a Prohibited Drug' if it could be proved: a. the person had used the 'bong'. b. the person intended using the 'bong'. c. the person's friend had used the bong. d. the person states that it was for display only.

b. the person intended using the 'bong'.

An on-scene risk assessment classifies a suspicious substance incident site as 'Blue' (Medium Risk). Your first course of action should now be: a. to obtain a sample of the substance for analysis. b. to guard the substance pending its analysis. c. to issue potentially contaminated persons with a Medical Advisory Notice. d. to remove, isolate and assess potentially contaminated persons.

d. to remove, isolate and assess potentially contaminated persons.

A strip search must NOT: a. be conducted on any person under 18 years of age. b. be conducted in a private area. c. under any circumstances be conducted in the presence of another person. d. involve a search of a person's body cavities or an examination of the body by touch.

d. involve a search of a person's body cavities or an examination of the body by touch.

You are investigating a suicide and learn that the Deceased sent a text message to a person minutes before taking his own life. The person refuses to let you see the message on her phone. You would: a. arrest and charge the person with 'Concealing serious indictable offence' pursuant to s 316 of the Crimes Act. b. arrest and charge the person with 'Hindering investigation' pursuant to s 315 of the Crimes Act. c. obtain and serve on the person a Coroner's Notice pursuant s 53 of the Coroners Act 2009. d. seize the person's phone pursuant to your powers under s 21 of LEPRA.

c. obtain and serve on the person a Coroner's Notice pursuant s 53 of the Coroners Act 2009.

For matters involving multiple offences, what is the maximum number of criminal infringement notices that may be issued to a suspect at any one time? a. Two. b. Three. c. Four. d. Six.

c. Four.

When preparing media releases or planning for media interviews, which of the following is a key corporate police media message? a. Police are in your community, working hard to address rising crime. b. Police will encourage personal responsibility but will not be held responsible for careless victims. c. Crime prevention is our priority. d. The community's help to drive down crime is welcome but not essential.

c. Crime prevention is our priority.

Of the following, who would NOT be considered an excluded volunteer under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000?

A child who volunteers to undergo a forensic procedure who is a suspect for a robbery.

All category A an B registered firearms must be stored in a: 1. Locked steel safe that meets the minimum storage requirement 2. Locked hardwood or steel receptacle that meets the minimum storage requirements 3. Under the floor safe that meets the minimum storage requirements 4. Locked steel safe, gun board, or under the floor safe that meets the minimum storage requirements

Locked hardwood or steel receptacle that meets the minimum storage requirements.

Some hours have passed before you can attend a residence in relation to several complaints of extremely loud music being played. Upon arrival no music can be heard but the occupier tells you he is putting on another CD. In this situation you may issue a noise abatement direction: a. ONLY if music is played at an offensive level in your presence. b. ONLY if a new complaint is received after the music recommences at an offensive level. c. if it appears offensive noise has at any time within the past 7 days been emitted from the premises. d. if it appears offensive noise has at any time within the past 24 hours been emitted from the premises.

c. if it appears offensive noise has at any time within the past 7 days been emitted from the premises.

A child is initially arrested and then released on the grounds that the child will be administered a caution. If the child refuses the caution, police should: a. refer the child for a Youth Conference. b. commence proceedings against the child by serving a court attendance notice. c. arrest and charge the child for the offence of 'Refuse caution' under the Criminal Procedure Act 1986. d. proceed with the caution of the child regardless.

b. Commence proceedings against the child by serving a court attendance notice.

A police officer may carry out a strip search of a person at a place other than a police station or other place of detention if the police officer suspects on reasonable grounds the strip search is necessary for the purposes of the search and that the: a. behaviour of the person in the circumstances makes the strip search necessary. b. seriousness and urgency of the circumstances makes the strip search necessary. c. demeanour of the person in the circumstances makes the strip search necessary. d. thing subject of the search is of a form capable of being secreted on the person.

b. seriousness and urgency of the circumstances makes the strip search necessary.

Committal proceedings for indictable matters are commenced by: a. arresting the person pursuant to s99 of LEPRA. b. creating a charge within COPS. c. issuing and filing a court attendance notice. d. acceptance of a charge within COPS.

c. issuing and filing a court attendance notice.

In satisfying the element of 'the property belongs to another' in Larceny under s117 of the Crimes Act 1900, which of the following is NOT a consideration? a. Possession. b. Custody. c. Control. d. Ownership.

b. Custody.

A reportable death to a coroner includes a death that was not the reasonably expected outcome of a health-related procedure carried out in relation to the person. Health related procedure includes the administration of: a. an anaesthetic. b. a sedative. c. a drug. d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

You should search the body of a deceased person in the presence of a family member or some other reliable independent witness (e.g. ambulance officer). If no such person is available, you should conduct the search in the presence of: a. any police officer. b. the most senior supervisor available. c. any willing person. d. the Local Area Commander.

b. the most senior supervisor available.

What priority level would you classify a suspicious substance incident involving an actual threat or risk to the health and safety of a high profile person? a. Green. b. Blue. c. Red. d. White.

c. Red.

You are conducting a firearms compliance audit on a firearms licence holder. During the inspection you notice that the licence holder has firearms stored unsecured under the bed and not in an approved cabinet/safe. You should: a. Seize the firearms and suspend the licence. Commence legal proceedings concerning the firearms not being kept safe. b. Issue a caution under the Firearms Act in respect to not keeping firearms safely. c. Give the person 24 hours to rectify the situation then return to ensure that they now comply. d. Inform the Firearms Registry of the circumstances of the incident. They will then instigate a licence suspension.

a. Seize the firearms and suspend the licence. Commence legal proceedings concerning the firearms not being kept safe.

On what premises does LEPRA allow crime scenes to be established? a. Public places only. b. Premises that require a crime scene warrant. c. Premises of any kind, whether or not in a public place. d. Private premises.

c. Premises of any kind, whether or not in a public place.

You attend a domestic violence incident where the victim informs you her partner is growing cannabis in the backyard. Her partner is present and hears this. You walk outside and locate three cannabis plants. Does the victim meet the definition of a Human Source? a. Yes, the victim has provided credible information about a crime. b. No, as there is no need to protect this person's identity. c. Yes, as the victim might be a source of other criminal intelligence. d. No, as the victim is obviously complicit in the crime.

b. No, as there is no need to protect this person's identity.

On some occasions you may have to seize a motor vehicle as an exhibit. In situations where you take a vehicle directly to a holding yard or another police station, you should: a. enter particulars of the vehicle seized together with tools, accessories and contents in EFIMS. b. enter particulars of the vehicle seized together with tools, accessories and contents in WebCOPS. c. enter particulars of the vehicle seized together with tools, accessories and contents in the Holding Yard Book. d. enter particulars of the vehicle seized together with tools, accessories and contents on the general station pad.

a. enter particulars of the vehicle seized together with tools, accessories and contents in EFIMS.

A 16 year old youth is found drinking beer in a public park. Police have the power under the Summary Offences Act 1988 to arrest the youth: a. only for the purpose of questioning about the offence. b. only for the purpose of the administration of a caution. c. in order to commence proceedings for the offence. d. only for the purpose of locating an adult responsible for the youth.

b. only for the purpose of the administration of a caution.

A police officer may seize liquor in the possession of a person in a public place when that person is under the age of 18 years and they: a. are not under the supervision of a responsible adult. b. are in the company of their father. c. are taking it home in company with their 19 year old sister. d. have a reasonable excuse for possessing the liquor.

a. are not under the supervision of a responsible adult.

Do not include a person's private, business or official address or telephone number on any statement served on an Accused unless: a. you believe it is already known. b. it is a materially relevant part of the evidence. c. the defence requests it in writing. d. it will avoid unnecessary delays in proceedings.

b. it is a materially relevant part of the evidence.

A 13-year-old child receives a C.A.N at a police station for a serious offence. A decision is made to take the child's fingerprints for identification purposes. Before the fingerprints can be taken, authorisation must first be obtained from: a. an officer of or above the rank of Sergeant. b. any commissioned police officer. c. any police officer appointed as a Custody Manager. d. the Children's Court (or authorised officer in limited circumstances).

d. the Children's Court (or authorised officer in limited circumstances).

Who is authorised to comment on police policy or procedures? a. Commissioner and Deputy Commissioners. b. Relevant corporate sponsor. c. Directors/Assistant Commissioners at Region Command level or specialist equivalent. d. All the above.

d. All the above.

You are the driver of a police vehicle proceeding on urgent duty to a 'Persons on premises' call. You should: a. activate all emergency warning devices to give the best practicable warning of your approach. b. not use any emergency warning devices as it would alert the offenders of your approach. c. use the red/blue warning lights only. d. use the siren sparingly and only when all other means of alerting traffic have failed.

a. activate all emergency warning devices to give the best practicable warning of your approach.

A person who is carrying a firearm is required to produce the firearm and any licence or permit that authorises the person to possess the firearm on demand being made by a police officer. The demand by the police officer can be made:

At any time.

A person comes to the inquiry counter with a box of fruit and vegetables which they claim they found one hour ago at a local car park. You make urgent inquiries to locate the owner without success. The finder does not wish to claim the property. You should now obtain from the finder: a. verbal authority to destroy the goods in their presence. b. written authority to auction the goods. c. written authority for the food to be given to local charity. d. verbal authority to give the goods to those police present.

c. written authority for the food to be given to local charity.

The NSW Police Force supports and operates within the National Drug Strategy 2010-2015. This framework is based on a harm minimisation approach to illicit drugs. Of the following, which is NOT one of the three broad types of activities encompassed by the harm minimisation approach? a. Supply control. b. Increased penalties. c. Demand reduction. d. Harm reduction.

b. Increased penalties.

You observe a person, whom you reasonably suspect is a minor, drinking beer in a bar area of a hotel. As a police officer you may require the person to: a. state his or her full name only. b. state his or her full name, residential address and date of birth. c. state his or her full name and residential address only. d. state his or her residential address only.

b. state his or her full name, residential address and date of birth.

A person who is a holder of a category H licence must NOT possess or use a pistol fitted with a magazine that has a capacity of more than: 10 rounds / 12 rounds / 15 rounds / 20 rounds

10 rounds.

To establish the 'taking away of the goods' in an offence of Larceny, it is suffificent to show that the goods were: a. moved at least 6cm from their original position. b. completely taken out of the victim's presence. c. moved slightly from their original position. not moved but the offender placed his/her hand on them.

c. moved slightly from their original position.

The officer responsible for initiating the preservation of a crime scene is the: a. duty officer. b. shift supervisor. c. first officer/s to arrive at the scene. d. crime scene examiner.

c. first officer/s to arrive at the scene.

You investigate a death and prepare a 'Report of Death to the Coroner' (P79A) form. The original and three copies of the P79A must be sent to the Coroner without delay and, in any case, within: a. 24 hours. b. 48 hours. c. 3 days. d. 7 days.

a. 24 hours.

Under the provisions of the Summary Offences Act 1988, an 'offensive implement' means anything: a. which is not licensed. b. made or adapted for use for causing injury to a person. c. which a member of the public finds offensive. d. that may cause fear in the mind of a reasonable person.

b. made or adapted for use for causing injury to a person.

You arrest an offender for illegally being in possession of a prescribed restricted substance. The offender states that it was bought from an unknown person in the street two days previously. You would commence proceedings against the offender under the: a. Drug Misuse and Trafficking Act. b. Crimes Act. c. Poisons and Therapeutic Goods Act. d. Summary Offences Act.

c. Poisons and Therapeutic Goods Act.

A person is stopped by police carrying a bag containing three new and expensive leather coats. The person claims to have just purchased the coats but is unable to satisfy police that this is true. The appropriate offence is: a. Stealing - s 117 Crimes Act 1900. b. Goods in custody - s 527C Crimes Act 1900. c. Receiving - s 188 Crimes Act 1900. d. Receiving - s 189 Crimes Act 1900.

b. Goods in custody - s 527C Crimes Act 1900.

Where a young person does not admit an offence for which they would otherwise be considered for a caution or youth justice conference, the provisions of the Protected Admissions Scheme should be offered to the young person. The decision to offer the Protected Admissions Scheme rests with the:

Police officer investigating the offence.

A person charged with a domestic violence offence is granted bail not to be within 100 metres of the victim's residence. A short time after the person's release from custody he is found across the road (15 metres) from the victim's residence. Your power to arrest comes from: a. Crimes (Domestic and Personal Violence) Act 2007. b. Crimes Act 1900. c. Bail Act 2013. d. Law Enforcement (Powers and Responsibilities) Act 2002.

c. Bail Act 2013.

Whilst Generally Police would refuse any gifts or benefits offered to them, in some limited circumstances Police may accept particular gifts which are of nominal value or would not create a sense of obligation to the giver. Examples of such gifts would NOT include: a. a cup of tea offered by the occupant of premises Police attend in the course of their duties. b. a small fridge magnet offered by a company with their logo printed on it. c. a voucher given by a restaurant to a particular officer entitling them to a free meal. d. a box of chocolates sent to a police station with a note from the sender asking that they be shared amongst staff.

c. a voucher given by a restaurant to a particular officer entitling them to a free meal.

If you are required to seize an animal as an exhibit and it is likely police will be responsible for its care, you should: Select one: a. first obtain permission from your commander before doing so. b. assume responsibility for the animal and submit a claim for any associated costs. c. obtain a written undertaking from the owner or owner's representative to pay any costs. d. have the RSPCA assume responsibility for the animal.

c. obtain a written undertaking from the owner or owner's representative to pay any costs.

Which of the following is NOT sexual harassment? a. Sending offensive or sexually graphic emails. b. Overhearing sexually explicit jokes. c. A mutually agreeable relationship between two colleagues. d. Sexually provocative remarks about a person's appearance.

c. A mutually agreeable relationship between two colleagues.

b. in its management of Aboriginal issues.

To determine if an unattended item is suspicious you apply 'Get the FACTS'. What does F stand for?

Find the owner.

If you are unable to serve the respondent copy of an application notice after taking all reasonable steps to do so, what action could be taken? a. Assign a new court date. b. Apply for substituted service. c. Apply to file the Application notice unserved in the court registry. d. All the above.

d. All the above.

You attend the scene of a major traffic crash involving a heavy vehicle. The heavy vehicle has sustained damage in the crash which you reasonably believe is not an imminent and serious safety risk. You may issue a: minor defect / major defect

A minor defect notice.

You lawfully seize an unopened carton of 12 cans of spray paint from a minor. Because the paint cannot be disposed of immediately, it must be taken to an appropriate police station and kept there for at least: a. 24 hours. b. 7 days. c. 28 days. d. 90 days.

b. 7 days.

When are White Level Inspections conducted? a. Each day upon arrival at work. b. On a random basis as determined by the Commander/Manager. c. When instructed to do so by the Commander/Manager. d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

Before serving an Early Appropriate Guilty Plea (EAGP) brief of evidence on the ODPP, it must be submitted for review and certification to: a. your supervisor. b. the police prosecutor. c. the court process officer. d. the registrar of the relevant court.

a. your supervisor.

Proceedings for offences under the Drug Misuse and Trafficking Act 1985 are determined by the quantity of a particular prohibited drug or plant in accordance with Schedule 1 of the Act. Of the following, which is NOT a quantity listed in the Schedule? Small / Traffickable / Indictable / Summary

Summary quantity

You attend a restaurant in relation to a domestic violence dispute involving a husband and wife. During the course of inquiries it is learnt that the husband has a firearm at the family home. You would: a. enter and search for the firearm pursuant to s 86 of LEPRA. b. apply for a warrant in order to search the home for the firearm. c. not search the home under any circumstances. d. revoke the husband's firearms licence and seize the firearm pursuant to s 25 of the Firearms Act 1996.

b. apply for a warrant in order to search the home for the firearm.

A driver has been arrested and conveyed to hospital for a compulsory blood and urine test by virtue of Schedule 3, Clause 15 of the Road Transport Act 2013. There the driver supplies both samples as required. You would: a. return the driver to their car. b. arrest the driver for 'Drive under the influence of a drug'. c. take the driver home so that they cannot drive. d. release the driver, and issue a direction prohibiting the driver from driving a vehicle for 48 hours.

d. release the driver, and issue a direction prohibiting the driver from driving a vehicle for 48 hours.

What must the NSW Police Force do when attending all suspicious substance incidents classified as either RED (High Risk) or BLUE (Medium Risk)?

Investigate the incident and initiate Disaster Victim Registration (DVR)

Unless it is withdrawn sooner by the issuing magistrate or extended, if no time of expiry is specified in a search warrant issued under LEPRA (other than a telephone warrant, a covert search warrant or a criminal organisation search warrant), the warrant expires: 12 / 24 / 48 / 72 hours

72 hours.

When taking a report of a bomb threat over the telephone you should: record a summary of what the caller said / keep the conversation to a minimum / ascertain if the caller was familiar with the area / listen to the caller's voice only and ignore any background noise

Ascertain if the caller was familiar with the area.

Under s 86 of the Liquor Act 2007, a Local Court may order a licensee to close a licensed premises if they are satisfied that there is, or likely to be, a breach of peace in the neighbourhood of the premises. Who can apply to the Local Court for this order? a. a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant. b. an authorised inspector under the Act. c. any police officer. d. any person.

d. any person.

Crime scene powers under Part 7 of LEPRA may be exercised by a police officer if he or she is lawfully on premises. Pursuant to s 89(1) of LEPRA, 'premises' means: a. any public place. b. any habitable structure, whether or not a public place. c. premises of any kind, whether or not a public place. d. any dwelling.

c. premises of any kind, whether or not a public place.

To determine if an unattended item is suspicious you apply 'Get the FACTS'. FACTS is an acronym for the three steps involved. What does 'CTS' stand for? a. Consider the setting. b. Consider the seriousness. c. Consider the situation. d. Consider the scene.

c. Consider the situation.

On the first mention, if an accused enters a plea of not guilty in relation to summary criminal proceedings in the Local Court, a Magistrate or Registrar is to order a brief of evidence to be served upon the accused in: a. 4 weeks. b. 6 weeks. c. 40 days. d. 60 days.

a. 4 weeks.

The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018-2023 contains four priorities. OF the following, which is NOT one of those priorities? ensure community safety / enhance communication / reduce length of custodial sentences / improve safety and wellbeing

Reduce the length of custodial sentences.

A driver involved in a crash must give the driver’s required particulars to certain other parties involved in the crash. Of the following, which is NOT one of the required particulars? a. The driver's name and address. b. The driver's driver licence number (if a motor vehicle). c. The name and address of the owner of the driver's vehicle. d. The vehicle's registration number (if any).

b. The driver's driver licence number (if a motor vehicle).

You have just had an interaction with a registered NSWPF Human Source. What should you do next? a. Download a Contact Advice Report template from the NSWPF intranet, complete and email to the Source Management Unit. b. Create a Contact Advice Report on the Source Management System. c. Notify your Command Registrar so that he or she can complete the Contact Advice Report. d. Notify the Controller so that he or she can complete the Contact Advice Report.

b. Create a Contact Advice Report on the Source Management System.

You arrest a woman pursuant to an arrest warrant issued under s 109B of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998. The woman must, as soon as practicable, be brought before: a. the Children's Court, a Children's Magistrate or a Registrar. b. the Local Court, a Magistrate or a Registrar. c. the District Court, a Judge of the District Court or a Registrar. d. the Family Court, a Family Court Magistrate or a Registrar.

a. the Children's Court, a Children's Magistrate or a Registrar.

When conducting a search of a building in response to a bomb threat, if no area has been specified, concentrate initially on: a. main work areas if a business, or main living areas if a residence. b. easily accessible areas. c. areas surrounding doors and windows. d. external areas and those accessible to the public.

d. external areas and those accessible to the public.

A Bronze classification driver may: a. engage in urgent duty driving ONLY in life threatening situations. b. breach road rules ONLY when executing a traffic stop. c. engage in urgent duty driving ONLY under the direct supervision of a Gold or Silver classified driver. d. NOT engage in a pursuit or urgent duty driving under any circumstances.

d. NOT engage in a pursuit or urgent duty driving under any circumstances.

Point 1 of the Code of Conduct and Ethics states, an employee of NSW Police must behave in a way that upholds the values and the good reputation of NSW Police whether on or off duty. Of the following which is correct? a. If you want to you can act honestly, truthfully and with integrity. b. You must act honestly, truthfully and with integrity in all of your dealings with other employees and the public. c. You should consider the public when you are not working. d. When dealing with other employees or the public consider how they might help you.

b. You must act honestly, truthfully and with integrity in all of your dealings with other employees and the public.

The NSWPF Drug and Alcohol Testing Procedures policy document details the types of tests a police officer can be subjected to. Which of the following is NOT one of those tests? a. Random. b. Targeted. c. Mandatory. d. Compulsory.

d. Compulsory.

An application by telephone for the issue of a Provisional Order can be made by: a. a police officer. b. the person in need of protection. c. a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant. d. either a police officer or the person in need of protection.

a. a police officer.

What should be taken into account when determining a reasonable time for the purposes of an investigation period? charge process / medical treatment / legal advice / relevant circumstances of the case

All the relevant circumstances of the particular case.

A person arrested for committing a strictly indictable offence and who appears to have a mental illness or is mentally disordered should be: Select one: a. charged and brought before a court as soon as possible. b. dealt with under the Mental Health Act 2007. c. released from custody as any charges would be dismissed on mental health grounds. d. charged but released on bail for the purpose of a mental health assessment.

a. charged and brought before a court as soon as possible.

Which one of the following statements is TRUE in relation to Category 4 vehicles? a. May be used for pursuits in exigent circumstances. b. May be used for urgent duty in matters that are life threatening. c. Includes unmarked HWP vehicles fitted with electronic siren but not displaying a portable warning light on the roof. d. Includes solo cycles fitted with electronic siren and warning lights.

b. May be used for urgent duty in matters that are life threatening.

You approach a house in order to investigate a complaint of offensive noise, however, when you seek admission it is refused by the occupier. You are authorised to enter the house to investigate the complaint: a. by force if necessary. b. after giving verbal notice of your intention to enter. c. using your powers of entry under LEPRA. d. after obtaining a telephone warrant.

d. after obtaining a telephone warrant.

A person would NOT commit the offence of 'Obscene exposure' pursuant to s 5 of the Summary Offences Act 1988 if he deliberately exposed his penis while inside his own home and the act could be seen by a person who is: a. walking along an adjacent street. b. walking through an adjacent park. c. driving their car in a nearby street. d. gardening in the backyard of their home.

d. gardening in the backyard of their home.

After the authorised trading hours of a hotel have ceased, licensees have a certain time period in which to clear patrons from the restricted areas of the premises. This time period is: a. 5 minutes. b. 15 minutes. c. 30 minutes. d. 1 hour.

c. 30 minutes.

Your options for dealing with the offence of Smoking in a smoke-free area pursuant to s 7(1) of the Smoke-free Environment Act 2000 include: a. issuing a Penalty Notice only. b. issuing a Court Attendance Notice only. c. issuing either a Penalty Notice or Court Attendance Notice. d. referring the matter to the Director-General of the Department of Health.

c. issuing either a Penalty Notice or Court Attendance Notice.

You enter a hotel and detect a minor playing a gaming machine in the lounge bar area. In this situation an offence is committed under the provisions of the: a. Registered Clubs Act 1976. b. Liquor Act 2007. c. Gaming Machines Act 2001. d. Crimes Act 1900.

c. Gaming Machines Act 2001.

A certificate of expert evidence under section 177 of the Evidence Act 1995, together with a written notice of proposal to tender the certificate, must be served on the defence no later than how many days before the hearing? a. 21. b. 14. c. 7. d. 3.

a. 21.

A Category A firearms licence would apply to: a. air rifles only. b. air rifles, rimfire rifles, shotguns (other than pump, lever or self-loading) and rimfire rifle/shotgun combinations. c. self-loading centre fire rifles. d. self-loading shotguns.

b. air rifles, rimfire rifles, shotguns (other than pump, lever or self-loading) and rimfire rifle/shotgun combinations.

The definition of 'violence' in the offence of 'Violent disorder' under the Summary Offences Act 1988 includes violent conduct towards: Persons only / Property only / Property as well as persons / At least 5 people and only property valued in excess of $1000

Property as well as persons.

A person breaks into a caravan by forcing open the door and takes some food from the fridge. The offender is observed returning to their own caravan nearby. Police are called, speak with the witness and subsequently arrest the offender. The appropriate offence is: ## Footnote Larceny / Break, enter and steal / Break and enter with intent to steal / Steal from dwelling

Break, enter and steal.

A multi-ply paper drug exhibit bag (PAB24) should be used instead of a plastic drug exhibit bag (PAB18) to secure: a. freshly harvested cannabis leaf that has not been subjected to any form of drying process. b. large seizures of cannabis leaf. c. prescription medication ONLY. d. narcotics ONLY.

b. large seizures of cannabis leaf.

At the conclusion of your investigations into a domestic violence offence you apply for an interim AVO against the holder of a licence authorising them to possess a firearm. In accordance with Section 23 of the Firearms Act, this licence must be suspended and confiscated. The licence is suspended until: a. the order is served upon the person. b. the order is confirmed or revoked. c. the appeal period of 21 days has expired. d. the expiration of a 72 hour 'cooling off' period.

b. the order is confirmed or revoked.

A police officer who seizes a thing pursuant to a search warrant must return the thing to the owner or person who had lawful possession of the thing before it was seized if the officer is satisfied that its retention as evidence is not required and what else? a. Permission to return the thing has been authorised by a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant. b. It is lawful for the person to have possession of the thing. c. Permission to return the thing has been authorised by a police officer of or above the rank of inspector. d. The owner or person who had lawful possession of the thing before it was seized has requested its return in writing.

b. It is lawful for the person to have possession of the thing.

When a fatality or serious accident ocurs in the workplace, or while a person is engaged in pursuing an occupation, you are required to contact: Labour Council of NSW / Safework NSW / Relevenat union / Safe Work Australia

Safework NSW

In relation to the offence of ‘Receiving’, it must be proved that the accused received the subject property ‘knowing the same to have been stolen’. The term ‘knowing’ means: a. suspected. b. assumed. c. believed. d. inferred.

c. believed.

You are handed property while absent from your normal work location. After examing the property you record the particulars in your notebook and have the entry signed by the finderto berify its correctness. You are now required to: Have local police attend / Take the property to the nearest police station / Ask the finder to take the property / Take the property to your police station

Take the property to the nearest police station.

Pursuant to s 47 of LEPRA a police officer can apply to an eligible issuing officer for a search warrant if the police officer believes on reasonable grounds that there is, or within 72 hours will be, in or on the premises a thing connected with a searchable offence in relation to the warrant. Of the following, which is NOT a searchable offence? a. An indictable offence. b. A prescribed summary offence. c. A firearms or prohibited weapons offence. d. An offence involving a thing being stolen or unlawfully obtained.

b. A prescribed summary offence.

In accordance with the Work Health and Safety Act 2011, what is the definition of a workplace? a. A police station b. A place where police carry out work and includes any place they go or are likely to be while at work c. A police vehicle d. Both A and C

b. A place where police carry out work and includes any place they go or are likely to be while at work

An offender smashes the side window of a car, reaches through and opens the car door from the inside. He then enters and searches the car and removes a lady's handbag which contains $300 in cash. The appropriate offence is: Break, enter and steal / larceny / destroy-damage property / both b and c

Both B and C - Larceny and Damage/Destroy property.

Section 93Y of the Crimes Act 1900 sets out certain circumstances that may be a statutory defence for the offence of Consorting. Which of the following is NOT a statutory defence to consorting? a. The consorting occurred in the course of the lawful operation of a business. b. The consorting occurred in the course of socialising with close associates. c. The consorting occurred in the course of the provision of a health service. d. The consorting occurred in the course of the provision of legal advice.

b. The consorting occurred in the course of socialising with close associates.

A packaged liquor licence applies to licensed premises where liquor is sold by retail on the licensed premises for consumption: a. away from the licensed premises. b. on the licensed premises. c. both on and off the licensed premises. d. in the beer garden of the licensed premises.

a. away from the licensed premises.

c. 4 hours. 4 hours normal, 6 hours rural.

Which of the following requires an order by a Magistrate or authorised officer to carry out a forensic procedure? a. Suspect under arrest, consenting. b. Suspect not under arrest, consenting. c. Suspect is a child or incapable person. d. Suspect (ATSI) not under arrest, consenting.

c. Suspect is a child or incapable person.

hile on patrol you stop and speak to a male urinating in the street. You determine the matter can be dealt with by issuing a Criminal Infringement Notice but do not have a Fixed Penalty Notice Handbook with you. The notice must be served within how many days of the offence? a. 7 days. b. 14 days. c. 21 days. d. 28 days.

b. 14 days.

Under s 34 of the Gaming and Liquor Administration Act 2007, a person must not wilfully: a. refuse to allow an inspector or officer to enter any premises the inspector or officer may lawfully enter. b. obstruct, delay, hinder, assault, threaten, insult or intimidate an inspector or police officer. c. impersonate an inspector as defined in this Act. d. all the above.

d. all the above.

The confiscation of proceeds of crime act 1989 sets out the 'relevant period' after conviction that police can apply for a forfeiture order. What is that period?

B. 6 months

An example of licensed premises to which a packaged liquor licence would apply, would be a: a. bottle shop. b. licensed restaurant. c. public bar. d. beer garden.

a. bottle shop.

Any person who has in his/her care a child/young person MUST provide certain things that are adequate and proper for the child's/young person's safety, welfare or well being. Of the following, which is NOT one of those things? a. Food. b. Money. c. Clothing. d. Medical aid.

b. Money.

Under the Firearms Act 1996, a person who possesses a firearm must take all reasonable precautions to ensure: a. its safekeeping and that it is not lost or stolen. b. it is unloaded at all times. c. that it is maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's specficiations. d. it is not handled by any other person licensed to do so.

a. its safekeeping and that it is not lost or stolen.

It is NOT an offence for a young person who is in the company of a responsible adult to: a. drink alcohol in a bar area of an hotel. b. drink alcohol in an area of the hotel authorised for minors. c. be present in an area of the hotel authorised for minors. d. use an amusement device in a bar area of an hotel.

c. be present in an area of the hotel authorised for minors.

You attend your local hospital in relation to a deceased person who died from injuries sustained in an incident that occurred at a location outside your LAC. Responsibility for investigating the circumstances surrounding the death rests with: a. the LAC responsible for the location in which the person sustained the injuries causing death. b. the LAC responsible for the location in which the person died. c. the Region Unsolved Homicide Squad. d. the Coronial Support Unit, Glebe Coroner's Court.

a. the LAC responsible for the location in which the person sustained the injuries causing death.

You are the OIC of a case and need to remove a drug exhibit from the exhibit room or drug security cabinet. In addition to checking the exhibit in the presence of the station officer, exhibit manager or exhibit officer, you must: a. record the movement in EFIMS. b. record the time, date and exhibit details in your notebook. c. make a record in the relevant COPS event. d. make a record on the general station pad.

a. record the movement in EFIMS.

You stop a motor vehicle after observing the driver commit a minor traffic offence. While speaking to the driver he tells you he consumed a glass of wine five minutes prior. You request the driver to wait 15 minutes before conducting a breath test but he refuses. You would: a. arrest the driver and convey him to the nearest police station for the purpose of a breath analysis. b. conduct the breath test. c. detain the driver for 15 minutes, then conduct the breath test. d. detain the driver while you complete a penalty notice for the offence, then conduct the breath test.

b. conduct the breath test.

When compiling a brief of evidence, in addition to the original (master brief), how many copies are required? a. Two. b. Three. c. Four. d. Five.

b. Three.

Who may apply for a crime scene warrant? a. Any police officer of or above the rank of Inspector. b. Any police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant. c. The police officer in charge of the scene. d. Any police officer.

d. Any police officer.

Where the Defendant's copy of a Court Attendance Notice is posted, faxed or emailed, it must be sent: a. at least 3 days before the court listing. b. at least 21 days before the court listing. c. on the day of the court listing. d. at least 7 days before the court listing.

b. at least 21 days before the court listing.

You are on a rest day and receive a phone call that you are being recalled to duty for the purpose of a targeted drug test. Who has authority to recall you to duty for this purpose? a. An Assistant Commissioner or above. b. A Superintendent or above. c. An Inspector or above. d. You cannot be recalled to duty for targeted drug testing.

a. An Assistant Commissioner or above.

Who is authorised to comment on Security and Counter Teorrorism? The Commissioner / The Deputy Commissioners / The Assistant Commissioner / All the above

All the above.

Proceedings against a person for 'Goods in custody' are likely to be commenced when the person is found in possession of: a. a missing police baton. b. a stolen motor vehicle. c. a wallet they found in the street and decided to keep. d. goods which they stole from a shop.

not c or d.

Which of the following is an intimate forensic procedure? a. Taking a dental impression. b. Taking a sample of hair other than pubic hair. c. Taking a hand print. d. Taking a sample from a nail or under a nail.

a. Taking a dental impression.

Any statement, confession, admission or information made or given to a police officer by a child who is of or above the age of 14 years in relation to criminal proceedings shall not be admitted in evidence in those proceedings unless there was present at the time and place it was made or given: a. a custody manager. b. a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant. c. an adult (other than a member of the police force) who was present with the consent of the child. d. an adult (other than a member of the police force) who was present with the consent of the custody manager.

c. an adult (other than a member of the police force) who was present with the consent of the child.

You seize 12 new spray paint cans from a person you suspect is under the age of 18 years near an area recently subjected to acts of graffiti. You must now provide the person the reasons for its seizure. This means telling the person you suspect he or she is under 18 years of age, and: a. that you have reasonable grounds to suspect the person is responsible for those acts of graffiti. b. that the person is not employed in an occupation that would justify possession of that quantity/type of paint. c. you are not satisfied the person has the spray paint cans in his or her possession for a lawful purpose. d. is not in the company of a responsible adult.

c. you are not satisfied the person has the spray paint cans in his or her possession for a lawful purpose.

Except for a telephone search warrant, an application for a search warrant under LEPRA must be made: a. orally to an eligible issuing officer. b. in writing and in person to an eligible issuing officer. c. orally to any Justice of the Peace. d. in writing and in person to any Justice of the Peace

b. in writing and in person to an eligible issuing officer.

Work Health and Safety legislation requires the NSWPF to consult with its workers on health and safety matters. For example, when: a. making changes to, or renovating stations and facilities. b. making decisions about purchasing fine or medium ball point pens. c. making decisions about new arms and appointments, holsters or other personal protective equipment. d. both (a) and (c).

d. both (a) and (c).

The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018-2023 has a three tier system for addressing Aboriginal issues. Of the following, which is NOT one of those tiers? PACC / ASDSC / PASAC / PACT

Police Aboriginal Coordination Team | (PACT)

An example of licensed premises to which a packaged liquor licence would apply, would be a: a. A bottle shop b. Licensed restaurant c. Public bar d. Beer garden

a. A bottle shop

It is an offence for a person under the age of 18 years to possess liquor in a public place. However, a defence to this offence is if the person establishes they: a. had a reasonable excuse for possessing the liquor. b. were holding the liquor for an adult. c. had no intention of consuming the liquor. d. had written permission from their parent/guardian.

a. had a reasonable excuse for possessing the liquor.

To determine if an unattended item is suspicious you apply 'Get the FACTS'. What does 'A' stand for? Assess the priority/packaging/premises/property

Assess the property.

Unless otherwise exempted, the holder of a Class 1 or Class 2 security licence must at all times while carrying on a security activity:

Wear on his or her person their original security licence so that it is clearly visible.

Police who are victims or witnesses in a matter are referred to as: a. police customers. b. internal customers. c. corporate customers. d. police are not regarded as customers under the guidelines.

b. internal customers.

b. Coroner.

Pursuant to Part 9 of LEPRA, the investigation period begins when a person is arrested and ends: a. when the person is charged or released from custody. b. at the conclusion of any interview, or when the person formally refuses to be interviewed. c. at a time that is reasonable having regard to all the circumstances (not exceeding the max investigation period). d. at the distrection of the custody manager.

c. at a time that is reasonable having regard to all the circumstances (not exceeding the max investigation period).

People suffering from dementia often: a. are unable to walk or talk properly. b. appear physically well, strong and agile. c. have no difficulty judging situations or making decisions. d. are afraid to leave their house.

b. appear physically well, strong and agile.

A 12-year-old girl is walking home from school when a man walking in the opposite direction pulls down his pants and exposes his erect penis to her. The offence committed is: a. Offensive Conduct - s4 Summary Offences Act 1988. b. Aggravated Indecent Assault - s61M Crimes Act 1900. c. Obscene Exposure - s5 Summary Offences Act 1988. d. Common Assault - s61 Crimes Act 1900.

c. Obscene Exposure - s5 Summary Offences Act 1988.

Can a young person act as an ongoing registered Human Source?

Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances.

Unless special arrangements exist, ambulance officers ARE NOT required to transport a person who has been deceased for more than: a. 6 hours. b. 8 hours. c. 12 hours. d. 24 hours.

d. 24 hours.

A police officer rents a house with a person who is not a police officer. A declarable association would exist if the person is: a. known by the police officer to be a social user of recreational drugs. b. the licensee of a hotel. c. the daughter of the police officer's Commander/Manager. d. arrested and issued with a Court Attendance Notice for Low Range PCA.

a. known by the police officer to be a social user of recreational drugs.

The Confiscation of Proceeds of Crime Act 1989 allows police to seize and hold property which may then be forfeited to the Crown upon conviction. There are three types of confiscation orders: Forfeiture Orders, Drug Proceeds Orders and Pecuniary Penalty Orders. What is the relevant period in which these orders can be applied for? a. Within 12 months of conviction. b. Within 18 months of conviction. c. Within six months of conviction. d. Within 2 years of conviction.

c. Within six months of conviction.

Under the provisions of the Liquor Act a 'Packaged Liquor Licence' defines premises where liquor is: sold and supplied for consumption on the premesis / sold to customers away from the licenced premesis / sold and supplied for consumption away from the licensed premises / sold to customers on the premises but not in the bar area

Sold and supplied for consumption away from the licensed premises.

A police officer who obtains a search warrant is to furnish a report in writing to the issuing magistrate setting out certain information. The report is to be submitted within a certain time period of the warrant being executed, or its expiration. The specified time period is: a. 5 days. b. 7 days. c. 10 days. d. 14 days.

c. 10 days

You investigate a death that was expected from a known natural cause. The Deceased was being seen by a specialist medical practitioner on an almost daily basis, who has issued a certificate as to the cause of death. Nonetheless, this matter would be a reportable death to the Coroner if: a. the person died whilst consuming alcohol within licensed premises (hotel or registered club only). b. the person was a patient receiving treatment at a declared mental health facility. c. a senior next of kin within the meaning of s 6A of the Coroners Act 2009 could not be identified or located. d. the person was visiting NSW from another State/Territory of Australia.

b. the person was a patient receiving treatment at a declared mental health facility.

What is the chain of command when completing either a one-off or ongoing registration of a Human Source? a. Handler, Senior Supervisor, Controller, Command Registrar and Central Registrar. b. Handler, Controller, Senior Supervisor, Command Registrar and Central Registrar. c. Handler, Controller, Command Registrar, Senior Supervisor and Central Registrar. d. Handler, Senior Supervisor, Command Registrar, Ctonroller and Central Registrar.

b. Handler, Controller, Senior Supervisor, Command Registrar and Central Registrar.

A man enters a shoe shop and tries on a new pair of shoes. He removes the price tag and leave the shop without paying for them. The appropriate offence is: Stealing / Fraudulent appropriation / Fraud / Stealing property in a dwelling

Stealing - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.

Heroin is: a. a depressant. b. a stimulant. c. a hallucinogenic. d. all the above.

a. a depressant.

Under the provisions of the Liquor Act, a hotel licence authorises a premises to supply and sell liquor: a. for consumption on the premises only. b. for consumption both on and away from the premises. c. for consumption off the premises only. d. at drive-in bottle shops only.

b. for consumption both on and away from the premises.

An offender breaks into a house in order to steal any money that can be found. The offender ransacks the premises but leaves without taking anything. The appropriate offence is: a. Break, enter and steal - s112 Crimes Act 1900. b. Break and enter with intent (steal) - s113 Crimes Act 1900. c. Attempt Break, enter and steal - s112 Crimes Act 1900. d. Attempt Steal from dwelling - s148 Crimes Act 1900.

b. Break and enter with intent (steal) - s113 Crimes Act 1900.

A final apprehended violence order, or interim court order, or variation or revocation of either such order, must be served personally on a defendant if he or she is not present when the order is made. Personal service may be effected by: a. sending an electronic copy of the document to the defendant's personal email address (if he or she consents). b. leaving a copy of the document addressed to the defendant at the defendant's business or residential address. c. posting a copy of the document addressed to the defendant to the defendant's business or residential address. d. leaving a copy of the document with the defendant and telling the defendant the nature of the document.

d. leaving a copy of the document with the defendant and telling the defendant the nature of the document.

While patrolling your local area you see a juvenile drinking a bottle of beer in a local park. A person under the age of 18 who consumes liquor in a public place would commit an offence under the provisions of the: a. Crimes Act 1900. b. Liquor Act 2007. c. Summary Offences Act 1988. d. Registered Clubs Act 1976.

c. Summary Offences Act 1988.

You attend the scene of an apparent death at which the ambulance is also present. Unless special circumstances exist, ambulance officers will NOT transport bodies if: they believe resus should continue / they become aware poi wants to donate organs / sudden death in public view / death occurred more than 24 hours prior

Death occurred more than 24 hours prior.

When police are searching premises by virtue of a search warrant, the owner or occupier should: accompany the police where practicable / be kept away / remain outside the premises / be detained at a police station

Accompany the police where practicable.

Under Section 35(3) of the Coroners Act 2009 a police officer is required to report a death or suspected death to a coroner or assistantant coroner: 24H / 48H / 7 Days / ASAP

As soon as possible after the death or suspected death has been reported.