General Security Flashcards
1
Q
Use of this form protects classified documents by ensuring that they are not in
plain view of people not authorized to access the document.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
A
i
2
Q
Use of this form reminds people working in a classified workplace that there are
classified documents in their work area.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
A
i
3
Q
Once executed at the time of the facility clearance approval, this form becomes a
legally binding document between the contractor and the U.S. Government.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
A
b
4
Q
This form provides a contractor specific clearance and access requirements,
authorization to generated classified information, and any other special security
requirements above and beyond those required by the National Industrial
Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
A
a
5
Q
This form must be executed as a condition of access to classified information.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
A
e
6
Q
This form is used to record security checks that must be conducted at the close
of each working day for work areas that process or store classified information.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
A
g
7
Q
This form allows military, civilian, and contractor personnel to apply for a
personnel security investigation.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
A
d
8
Q
Information collected by this form allows Defense Security Service (DSS)
personnel to analyze the extent to which a contractor organization is a FOCI risk.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
A
f
9
Q
Execution of this form allows a contractor organization to work on a classified
contract and it establishes the government’s authority to review the contractor’s
security program to ensure compliance.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
A
b
10
Q
This form authorizes the holder to hand-carry classified information using a
transportation mode other than a commercial airline.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
A
c
11
Q
This briefing provides appropriately cleared personnel with information on how to protect special types of classified information (e.g., SCI or SAP) prior to gaining access to the information. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
A
b
12
Q
This briefing reminds cleared individuals who no longer need access to classified
information of their continued responsibilities to protect classified information and
the potential civil and criminal penalties associated with the failure to fulfill those
responsibilities.
a. Initial Orientation Briefings
b. Indoctrination Briefings
c. Annual Refresher Briefings
d. Debriefings
e. Courier Briefings
f. NATO Briefings
g. Non-Disclosure Briefings
h. Foreign Travel Briefings
i. Attestation Briefings
j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
A
d
13
Q
This briefing requires individuals to orally declare their understanding of their responsibility to protect national security information. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
A
i
14
Q
This required briefing informs newly cleared personnel of their responsibilities as a member of the cleared community. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
A
a
15
Q
This required briefing informs newly cleared personnel of their responsibilities as a member of the cleared community. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
A
c
16
Q
This briefing informs individuals who will be hand-carrying classified documents of the procedures for handling those documents while in transit. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
A
e
17
Q
This briefing, typically required of personnel with Sensitive Compartmented
Information (SCI)I or Special Access Program (SAP) access, provides cleared
personnel with information regarding potential security risks at a given
destination.
a. Initial Orientation Briefings
b. Indoctrination Briefings
c. Annual Refresher Briefings
d. Debriefings
e. Courier Briefings
f. NATO Briefings
g. Non-Disclosure Briefings
h. Foreign Travel Briefings
i. Attestation Briefings
j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
A
h
18
Q
This briefing intends to provide newly cleared personnel a basic understanding of the nature of classified information and the importance of its protection to national security. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
A
a
19
Q
This briefing is also called a “Termination Briefing.”
a. Initial Orientation Briefings
b. Indoctrination Briefings
c. Annual Refresher Briefings
d. Debriefings
e. Courier Briefings
f. NATO Briefings
g. Non-Disclosure Briefings
h. Foreign Travel Briefings
i. Attestation Briefings
j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
A
d
20
Q
Two security professionals – Jo and Chris – are discussing the contracting process.
Jo says that the Federal Acquisition Regulation governs the process the federal
government uses to acquire or purchase goods and services.
Chris says that although the Federal Acquisition Regulation’s intent is to provide
uniform and government-wide policies and procedures for acquisition, the Department of
Defense has issued a supplemental acquisition regulation called the DFAR.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
A
(c)
21
Q
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Federal Acquisition
Regulation (FAR).
Jo says that, to be awarded a contract, a bidder needs to show that it meets the FAR
provisions of that contract.
Chris says that a bidder can be awarded a contract with FAR provisions if it can
demonstrate that it will be able to comply with those provisions at the time of the contract
award.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
A
c
22
Q
Which of the following roles associated with the contracting process does not require
contract expertise?
A. Administrative Contracting Officer
B. Contracting Officer
C. Contracting Officer’s Representative
D. Contracting Officer’s Technical Representative
E. Termination Contracting Officer
A
d
23
Q
security requirements in a contract.
Jo says that the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) requires that a Contract Security
Classification Specification (DD Form 254) be included or integrated in classified
contracts.
Chris says that by signing the Security Agreement (DD Form 441), a contractor
commits to establishing a Security Program in compliance with NISPOM requirements.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
A
c
24
Q
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the process for including
security requirements in a contract.
Jo says that the government needs to address contractor security requirements in the
Request for Proposal.
Chris says that the government needs to address contractor security requirements in
contract documents.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
A
c
25
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the process for including
security requirements in a contract.
Jo says that every security requirement levied upon a contractor must be addressed in
the contract.
Chris says that security requirements outside of the National Industrial Security
Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) scope cannot be included in a contract.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
26
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the various roles associated
with the contracting process.
Jo says that the Contracting Officer's Representative (COR) has the authority to make
contract changes that affect contract terms such as price, quality, quantity, and delivery.
Chris says that a Contracting Officer has the authority to enter into, administer, and
terminate contracts.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
27
A Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) specifies security
requirements and procedures for handling and protecting classified materials received
and/or generated during the execution of a classified contract.
A. True
B. False
true
28
A Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) must be prepared for
. both classified and unclassified contracts.
A. True
B. False
false
29
A Contract Security Classification Specification DD Form 254 needs to be reviewed and.
revised every year
A. True
B. False
false
30
A Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254)is the only authorized
means for providing classification guidance to a contractor.
A. True
B. False
false
31
A Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) is required for any
contract that will require a contractor to generate classified information during the
performance of the contract.
A. True
B. False
true
32
To ensure that a Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) provides
the contractor with the appropriate guidance, it should to be collaboratively prepared by
the Contracting Officer, Program Manager, and a Security Specialist.
A. True
B. False
true
33
The Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) specifies the access
level required to perform the work defined by the contract.
A. True
B. False
true
34
A Security Agreement (DD Form 441) is executed at the time of contract award.
A. True
B. False
false
35
A Security Agreement (DD Form 441) is a document that the government provides to a
contractor that outlines the contract's scope of work.
A. True
B. False
false
36
A Security Agreement (DD Form 441) is a legally binding document that commits the
contractor to establish a security program that meets National Industrial Security
Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) requirements.
A. True
B. False
true
37
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Security Agreement (DD
Form 441).
Jo says that by signing the DD Form 441, the contractor authorizes the government to
review the contractor's security program to ensure compliance.
Chris says that by signing the DD Form 441, the government commits to processing
personnel clearances for contractor employees who will be working on the contract.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
38
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Security Agreement (DD
Form 441) and the Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254).
Jo says that the DD Form 441 provides contractors the authority to store classified
materials in a contractor facility.
Chris says that the DD Form 254 allows the government to specify security
requirements above and beyond those required by the National Industrial Security
Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
39
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing unclassified contracts.
Jo says that unclassified contracts do not need to address security requirements.
Chris says that contractor employees in unclassified contracts are often exposed to
unclassified sensitive information that requires some level of protection.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
40
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing security requirements for
contractors working at government facilities.
Jo says that the contract for contractors working at a government facility may require
them to follow the facility's security requirements.
Chris says that a contractor working at a government facility and has access to a
government-owned information system must follow the rules governing that system.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
41
Facility Security Clearance (FCL) authorizes a facility to store classified information.
A. True
B. False
false
42
A Facility Security Clearance (FCL) is granted to allow the clearing of employees who
have a need to handle classified information to fulfill the requirements of the contract.
A. True
B. False
true
43
A Facility Security Clearance (FCL) is an administrative determination that a company is
eligible to access classified information at a certain classification level and all lower level
classifications.
A. True
B. False
true
44
Sponsorship is one of the five requirements needed to obtain a Facility Security
Clearance (FCL).
A. True
B. False
true
45
By signing the Security Agreement (DD Form 441), the government commits to granting
a Facility Security Clearance (FCL) to a contractor.
A. True
B. False
false
46
A properly executed Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) is one
of the requirements needed to obtain a Facility Security Clearance (FCL).
A. True
B. False
false
47
A company with an interim Facility Security Clearance (FCL) may access classified
information while awaiting the final FCL determination.
A. True
B. False
true
48
Contractor employees cannot access classified information until the company they are
working for has been granted a Facility Security Clearance (FCL).
A. True
B. False
true
49
Contractor employees may only have access at the same or lower level of their
employer's Facility Security Clearance (FCL).
A. True
B. False
true
50
An operating entity may be granted a Facility Security Clearance (FCL) only up to the
level of its Key Management Personnel's personnel security clearances (PCL).
A. True
B. False
true
51
A facility's key management personnel may be granted personnel security clearances
(PCL) only up to the level of the facility's Facility Security Clearance (FCL).
A. True
B. False
false
52
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI).
Jo says that a U.S. company is considered under FOCI when a foreign interest has
power to decide matters affecting the management of the company in a manner that
may result in unauthorized access to classified information.
Chris says that a U.S. company is considered under FOCI when a foreign interest has
power to direct matters affecting the operations of the company in a manner that may
adversely affect the performance of classified contracts.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
53
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI).
Jo says that contractor companies under FOCI are ineligible for a facility security
clearance until the FOCI factors that made them ineligible are favorably resolved.
Chris says that a U.S. company is NOT considered under FOCI if the foreign interests
with direct or indirect power over the company are citizens of countries who have formal
reciprocal security clearance arrangement with the U.S.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
54
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI).
Jo says that Defense Security Service (DSS) implements the four phases -
Identification, Adjudication, Mitigation, and Inspection - of the FOCI process.
Chris says that the Government Contracting Activity is responsible for providing the
DSS with the contractor documentation DSS needs to identify the FOCI source.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
55
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI).
Jo says that National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) requires
companies to submit a Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests (SF 328) as part of the
initial facility clearance process.
Chris says that the Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests (SF 328) is one of the five
essential elements needed to obtain a facility clearance.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
56
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI) and the National Interest Determination (NID).
Jo says that a National Interest Determination (NID) is required when a foreign-owned
company operating under a Special Security Agreement requires access to proscribed
information (e.g., Top Secret, COMSEC, SCI, RD, or SAP information).
Chris says that a favorable National Interest Determination (NID) authorizes a foreignowned
company access to proscribed information (e.g., Top Secret, COMSEC, SCI, RD,
or SAP information).
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
Answer:
c
57
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI) and the National Interest Determination (NID).
Jo says that the Defense Security Service (DSS) is responsible for advising the
Government Contracting Activity of the requirements for a NID.
Chris says that rendering a NID is a critical DSS responsibility as it executes the FOCI
process.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
58
Industrial Security represents a partnership between the federal government and private
industry to safeguard sensitive and classified information.
A. True
B. False
true
59
Industrial Security applies to all departments and agencies under the Executive Branch
of the Federal, State, and Local governments.
A. True
B. False
false
60
Industrial Security aims to achieve greater uniformity in security requirements for classified contracts?
True or False
True
61
Industrial Security aims to achieve greater uniformity in security requirements for
classified contracts.
A. True
B. False
true
62
Industrial Security calls for a single, integrated, cohesive system for safeguarding
classified information held by the program's Cognizant Security Agencies' personnel.
A. True
B. False
false
63
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the National Industrial
Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
Jo says that the NISPOM controls the authorized disclosure of classified information
released to contractors executing classified contracts.
Chris says that the NISPOM prescribes the requirements, restrictions, and other
safeguards for preventing the unauthorized disclosure of classified information held by
contractors, licensees, and grantees of the U.S. government.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
64
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the National Industrial
Security Program (NISP).
Jo says that Executive Order 12958 established the NISP.
Chris says that NISP protects information classified under Executive Order 12829.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
65
This authority is responsible for providing overall policy direction for the National
Industrial Security Program (NISP).
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
g
66
This authority is responsible for implementing and monitoring the National Industrial
Security Program (NISP).
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
c
67
This authority is responsible for issuing implementing directives with respect to the
National Industrial Security Program (NISP).
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
c
68
This authority is the President’s designated Executive Agent for the National Industrial
Security Program (NISP).
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
e
69
This authority is responsible for the issuance and maintenance of the National Industrial
Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
e
70
This authority heads a Cognizant Security Agency (CSA) and is responsible for
determining the eligibility for access to classified information of contractors and their
respective contract.
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
e
71
This authority is responsible for inspecting and monitoring contractors who require
access to classified information to fulfill requirements of a classified contract.
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
e
72
This authority is responsible for prescribing the section of the National Industrial Security
Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) that pertains to intelligence sources and methods.
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
d
73
This authority has the right to inspect and monitor contractor facilities with access to
information that pertains to intelligence sources and methods.
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
b
74
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing industrial security roles and
responsibilities.
Jo says that the Industrial Security Representative (ISR) has the ultimate responsibility
for the administration and the day-to-day operation of the security program at a cleared
contractor facility.
Chris says that the Facility Security Officer (FSO) is responsible for ensuring that the
contractor's security program is following National Industrial Security Program Operating
Manual (NISPOM) guidelines to be compliant with the requirements specified in DD
Form 441 (DoD Security Agreement).
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
75
Which one of the following is a role within the Department of Defense's Cognizant Security
Office (CSO)?
A. Facility Security Officer
B. Industrial Security Representative
C. Information System Security Manager
D. Contracting Officer's Technical Representative
b
76
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing industrial security roles and
responsibilities.
Jo says that contractors working at a government facility may be required to follow the
security requirements of that facility.
Chris says that contractors working at a government facility who process information on a
government-owned information system must appoint an Information System Security
Manager to ensure that the contractors are following the requirements of that governmentowned
information system.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
77
Defense Security Service, as a NISP Cognizant Security Agency, is responsible for the
administration of the security requirements specified in the National Industrial Security
Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
A. True
B. False
false
78
Defense Security Service serves as the Secretary of Defense's designated NISP
Cognizant Security Office responsible for providing advice, assistance, and oversight of
contractors' security program.
A. True
B. False
true
79
There are instances when Defense Security Service does not serve as the Cognizant
Security Office within the Department of Defense.
A. True
B. False
true
80
Defense Security Service has security cognizance over cleared facilities on a military
installation.
A. True
B. False
false
81
Defense Security Service has security cognizance over cleared facilities on a military
installation.
A. True
B. False
false
82
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing industrial security roles and
responsibilities.
Jo says that the Installation Commander may choose to retain some of the oversight
functions of the Cognizant Security Office when contractors work on the Commander's
installation.
Chris says that security requirements outside the scope of the National Industrial Security
Program (NISP) require the oversight of the installation commander or the organization
that levied the requirement upon the contract.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
83
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing industrial security roles and
responsibilities.
Jo says that the designation of a Cognizant Security Office relieves a Government
Contracting Activity of the responsibility to protect and safeguard classified information
associated with its classified contracts.
Chris says that the designation of a Cognizant Security Office inhibits a Government
Contracting Activity from visiting a contractor performing its classified contract to review
the security aspects of that content.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
84
The responsibility for determining need-to-know in connection with a classified visit rests
with the individual who needs to disclose classified information during the visit.
A. True
B. False
true
85
Classified visit is allowed if the visit is necessary and the visit's purpose cannot be
achieved without access to or disclosure of classified information.
A. True
B. False
true
86
The Facility Security Officer is responsible for ensuring that the visitor requiring access to
contractor-held classified information is an authorized person.
A. True
B. False
false
87
Verification of a visitor's eligibility and access can be done through JPAS or through a visit
authorization letter sent by the visitor's employer.
A. True
B. False
true
88
A contract employee traveling on DoD orders can process their own visit request.
A. True
B. False
false
89
Positive identification of visitors is a requirement of classified visits.
A. True
B. False
true
90
Government employees temporarily stationed at a contractor's facility must meet security
procedures of the host contractor.
A. True
B. False
true
91
Contractor employees who are long-term visitors at a government installation must follow
the security requirements of that installation.
A. True
B. False
true
92
The security of meetings involving disclosure of classified information is the responsibility
of the sponsoring government agency or activity.
A. True
B. False
true
93
The sponsoring government agency or activity must approve attendees of meetings.
A. True
B. False
true
94
Contractors request for a meetings authorization needs to include an explanation of the
contractor purpose that will be served by the disclosure of classified information at the
meeting.
A. True
B. False
false
95
All persons in attendance at classified meetings shall possess the requisite clearance and
need-to-know for the information to be disclosed.
A. True
B. False
true
96
Need-to-know of meeting attendees must be determined by the contractor organization
holding the classified information that will be disclosed in the meeting.
A. True
B. False
false
97
Classified meeting announcements must be classified at the same classification level as
the meeting.
A. True
B. False
false
98
Classified meeting invitations to foreign persons must be sent by the authorizing or
sponsoring government agency.
A. True
B. False
true
99
Critical program information includes both classified military information and
controlled unclassified information.
a. True
b. False
true
100
Critical program information needs to be protected from unauthorized or
inadvertent destruction, transfer, alteration, or loss.
a. True
b. False
true
101
Compromise of critical program information can significantly alter program
direction, shorten the combat effective life of the system, or require additional
research, development, test, and evaluation resources to counter the impact of
its loss.
a. True
b. False
true
102
Security Classification Guides developed to address critical program information
needs to address the possibility that the compilation and aggregation of critical
program information may reveal classified information.
a. True
b. False
true
103
The organizational or command security manager is responsible for developing,
approving, and implementing the Program Protection Plan - a single source
document that specifies all protection efforts designed to deny unauthorized
access to a critical program information.
a. True
b. False
false
104
The preparation and implementation of a Program Protection Plan is based on
effective application of risk avoidance methodology.
a. True
b. False
false
105
The Program Protection Plan needs to be classified according to its content.
a. True
b. False
true
106
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the policy documents
associated with information classification.
Jo says that Executive Order 13526 calls for basic classification policy that
advocates classifying information only when necessary to prevent damage to
U.S. national security and only for as long as necessary, but no longer than
fifteen years.
Chris says that DoD 5200.2-R is the policy document that established the
baseline information security requirements for the Department of Defense.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
107
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of
classifying information.
Jo says that information eligible for classification is owned by, produced by,
produced for, or is under the strict control of the U.S. government.
Chris says that the three classification levels differ in the extent of damage one
can expect from the unauthorized disclosure of the designated information.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
108
classifying information.
Jo says that information can be classified to prevent or delay public release.
Chris says that information ineligible for classification can still be classified if
there is a need to limit dissemination of the information.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
109
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of original
classification.
Jo says that original classification refers to the initial determination that
information requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of
U.S. national security.
Chris says the original classification entails the use of a six-step process that
results in the information custodian making a classification determination.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
110
Original classification authority is delegated to occupants of positions.
a. True
b. False
true
111
Delegation of the original classification authority (OCA) needs to specify the
lowest level the OCA can classify a piece of information.
a. True
b. False
true
112
An original classification authority cannot issue a Security Classification Guide
until approved by the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO).
a. True
b. False
false
113
Declassified foreign government information may be considered for original
classification by an original classification authority.
a. True
b. False
false
114
An original classification authority can communicate their classification decision
by issuing either a security classification guide or a properly marked source
document.
a. True
b. False
true
115
The original classification process begins with a determination of whether or not
the information is official government information and is not already classified by
another original classification authority.
a. True
b. False
true
116
The original classification process only includes the assignment of a classification
level to eligible official government information, but not a determination of how
long the classification should last.
a. True
b. False
false
117
Executive Order 13526 requires the original classification authority to identify or
describe the damage to national security that could reasonably be expected from
the unauthorized disclosure of the information.
a. True
b. False
true
118
Prior to making classification determinations using the original classification
process, the original classification authority must go through required training per
DoD 5200.1-R.
a. True
b. False
true
119
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of derivative
classification.
Jo says that derivative classification needs to be reviewed and approved by
delegates of the original classification authority.
Chris says that derivative classification refers to an individual's responsibility to
properly mark newly developed material consistent with the classification
markings specified in authorized sources.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
120
The derivative classification process includes the evaluation of the original
classification authority's original classification determination.
a. True
b. False
false
121
The derivative classification process calls for the use of the authorized sources,
such as the Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) to apply
required markings on derivative documents.
a. True
b. False
true
122
The Security Classification Guide (SCG) takes precedence when there is a
conflict between marking information presented in the source document and the
SCG.
a. True
b. False
true
123
Derivative classifiers need to be aware that the paraphrasing or the restating of
classified information extracted from a classified source document could result in
a change in classification.
a. True
b. False
true
124
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Security
Classification Guide (SCG).
Jo says that derivative classifiers use the SCG to determine if something is
classified, its classification level, downgrading and declassification instructions,
special control notices, and other information critical to the proper classification,
marking, and dissemination of the items in question.
Chris says that the SCG is a document issued by the component or agency's
Information Security Program based on properly marked source documents
created by original classification authorities.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
125
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Security
Classification Guide (SCG).
Jo says that SCG specify classification levels, special requirements, and
duration instructions for classified programs, projects, and plans.
Chris says that the SCG serves to document the results of the implementation of
a derivative classification process.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
126
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing compilation.
Jo says that classification by compilation includes situations when two or more
pieces of unclassified information, when combined or associated, warrant
protection as classified information.
Chris says that the classification by compilation applies when pieces of
information classified at a lower level, by virtue of being combined or associated,
warrant a higher classification level.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
127
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing classification
marking.
Jo says that marking informs custodians of the specific protection requirements
for that information.
Chris says that the standards and requirements for the marking of DoD
classified and controlled unclassified information can be found in Executive Order
13526.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
128
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing classification
marking.
Jo says that all classified information needs to be clearly identified using
electronic labeling, designation or marking.
Chris says that if the physical marking of the medium containing classified
information is not possible, then identification of classified information must be
accomplished by other means.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
129
marking.
Jo says that both original and derivative classifiers are responsible for the
marking and designation of classification information.
Chris says that original classifiers need to pay special attention to the required
markings they will need to apply on information that has appeared in a
newspaper, magazine, or other public medium.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
130
Required markings for originally classified documents include the overall
classification of the document.
a. True
b. False
true
131
Required markings for originally classified documents include a concise reason
for classification.
a. True
b. False
true
132
Required markings for originally classified documents include applicable
instructions for the declassification and/or downgrading of the document.
a. True
b. False
true
133
Required markings for originally classified documents include page markings and
portion markings.
a. True
b. False
true
134
Required markings for originally classified documents include applicable control
notices.
a. True
b. False
true
135
Required markings for originally classified documents include information about
the original classification authority of the document using the "Classified by" line.
a. True
b. False
true
136
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the classification
marking process.
Jo says that the first step in marking a document is to identify the overall
classification level of the document.
Chris says that the overall classification of a document depends on the highest
classification level of information contained in the document.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
137
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing classification
markings.
Jo says that the document's overall classification should be marked or stamped
on the front cover of the document.
Chris says that each interior page of a classified document must be
conspicuously marked, top and bottom, with the document's overall classification.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
138
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the proper marking of
a derivatively classified document.
Jo says that derivative classifiers need to consult either the classified source
document(s) and/or classification guide(s) to determine the classification level for
each portion of the derivative document.
Chris says that, when conducting portion markings, derivative classifiers need to
mark unclassified information exempt from Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
release with a (U) for unclassified.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
139
Required markings for derivatively classified documents include the overall
classification of the document.
a. True
b. False
true
140
Required markings for derivatively classified documents include a concise reason
for classification.
a. True
b. False
false
141
Required markings for derivatively classified documents include applicable
instructions for the declassification and/or downgrading of the document.
a. True
b. False
true
142
Required markings for derivatively classified documents include page markings
and portion markings.
a. True
b. False
true
143
Required markings for derivatively classified documents include applicable
control notices.
a. True
b. False
true
144
Required markings for derivatively classified documents include information
about the original classification authority of the document.
a. True
b. False
true
145
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the proper marking of a
derivatively classified document.
Jo says that, when a document is derived from multiple sources, the derivative classifier
must apply the downgrading instruction that provides the lowest level of classified
protection for the shortest period of time.
Chris says that, when a document is derived from multiple sources, the derivative
classifier must apply the declassification instruction that provides the highest level of
classified protection for the longest period of time.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
146
```
This abbreviation is used to mark portions of classified documents that include
information concerning the design, manufacture, or utilization of atomic weapons;
the production of special nuclear material; or the use of special nuclear material
in the production of energy.
a. ORCON
b. NOFORN
c. IMCON
d. PROPIN
e. REL TO
f. RD
g. NATO
h. FGI
```
f
147
This control marking is authorized only when the originator has an intelligence
sharing arrangement or relationship with a foreign government approved in
accordance with DCI policies and procedures that permits the release of the
specific intelligence information to that foreign government.
a. ORCON
b. NOFORN
c. IMCON
d. PROPIN
e. REL TO
f. RD
g. NATO
h. FGI
e
148
```
This control marking is used on imagery representations and reporting that
identify sensitive analytical methods or intelligence sources.
a. ORCON
b. NOFORN
c. IMCON
d. PROPIN
e. REL TO
f. RD
g. NATO
h. FGI
```
c
149
```
This control marking is used to specify that the originator has determined that the
information may not be disclosed, in any form, to foreign governments,
international organizations, coalition partners, foreign nationals, or immigrant
aliens without originator approval.
a. ORCON
b. NOFORN
c. IMCON
d. PROPIN
e. REL TO
f. RD
g. NATO
h. FGI
```
b
150
Two security professionals - Chris and Jo - are discussing the destruction of
classified materials.
Jo says that classified items must be destroyed in a way that ensures that the
classified information can't be recognized.
Chris says that classified items must be destroyed in a way that ensures that the
classified information can't be reconstructed.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
151
Two security professionals - Chris and Jo - are discussing the destruction of
classified materials.
Jo says that authorization methods for destruction include burning, shredding,
pulverizing, disintegrating, pulping, melting, and chemical decomposition.
Chris says that execution of authorization methods needs to take place on
approved destruction equipment.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
152
Typewriter ribbons must be cut up into several pieces first, prior to burning them
using a furnace.
a. True
b. False
true
153
Microforms and microfiche can be shredded using a shredder with the capability
to crosscut the material into 1 mm by 5 mm pieces.
a. True
b. False
false
154
Two security professionals - Chris and Jo - are discussing the destruction of
classified documents.
Jo says that the use of the secure volume concept for shredding classified
documents refers to the practice of shredding all classified documents that need
to be destroyed during an annual cleanup day to increase the chance of
participation.
Chris says that the use of the secure volume concept involves shredding 20 or
more pages at the same time to lower the chance that the classified information
can be reconstructed.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
155
Two security professionals - Chris and Jo - are discussing the destruction of
classified documents.
Jo says that classified documents need to be shredded using a shredder that
is in the GSA-maintained list of approved destruction and degaussing products.
Chris says that the current standard for shredders calls for the shredder to have
the capability to cut paper in long strips.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
156
Videotapes with classified information can be "destroyed" by recording
unclassified information over the classified information.
a. True
b. False
false
157
Destruction of thumb drives or zip discs must be coordinated with the local
information systems personnel and must conform to applicable guidance.
a. True
b. False
true
158
```
This system can be triggered by a date or event designated by the original
classification authority.
a. Automatic Declassification
b. Mandatory Declassification
c. Scheduled Declassification
d. Systematic Declassification
```
c
159
Based on Executive Order 13526, this system declassifies all classified records
determined to have permanent historical value 25 years from the date of its
original classification.
a. Automatic Declassification
b. Mandatory Declassification
c. Scheduled Declassification
d. Systematic Declassification
a
160
This system allows for declassification exemptions for nine categories of
information specified in Executive Order 13526, as amended.
a. Automatic Declassification
b. Mandatory Declassification
c. Scheduled Declassification
d. Systematic Declassification
a
161
This system allows for the public to request whether or not classified information
can be declassified and made available to the public.
a. Automatic Declassification
b. Mandatory Declassification
c. Scheduled Declassification
d. Systematic Declassification
b
162
Original classification authorities are required to provide declassification
instructions for information they originally classified.
a. True
b. False
true
163
Declassification instructions could specify: (1) a date of 25 years or less from the
classification date, (2) a specific event likely to occur within 25 years, or by (3) a
25X1-human exemption with no date of declassification.
a. True
b. False
true
164
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the declassification of
classified information.
Jo says that systematic review for declassification applies to information that: (1)
the Department of Defense generates, (2) is permanently valuable, and (3) is
considered exempt for automatic declassification.
Chris says that under the systematic review for declassification program,
individual holders of classified information are required to systematically review
classified information in their custody to determine whether it can be declassified.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
165
Documents exempted from an automatic declassification need to have the proper
marking plus a brief reference to the pertinent exemption category per Executive
Order 13526.
a. True
b. False
true
166
Declassification instructions are not applicable to documents with Restricted Data
(RD), Formerly Restricted Data (FRD), and Special Access Program (SAP)
information.
a. True
b. False
false
167
The Director of National Intelligence determines when documents with sensitive
compartmented information (SCI) will be declassified; therefore, such documents
do not include declassification instructions.
a. True
b. False
false
168
A security infraction occurs when any knowing, willful, or negligent action
contradicts Executive Order 13526, but does not comprise a violation.
a. True
b. False
true
169
A security infraction, compared to a security violation, does not place classified
information at risk.
a. True
b. False
false
170
A security violation occurs when any knowing, willful, or negligent action could
reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified
information.
a. True
b. False
true
171
Failure to properly downgrade information to a lower classification level is an
example of a security infraction.
a. True
b. False
false
172
A security violation occurs when any knowing, willful, or negligent action to
classify or continue the classification of information contrary to the requirements
of Executive Order 13526, as amended.
a. True
b. False
true
173
A security infraction occurs when any knowing, willful, or negligent action results
in the creation of a special access program contrary to the requirements of
Executive Order 13526, as amended.
a. True
b. False
false
174
All security violations involve a compromise of classified information.
a. True
b. False
false
175
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of actual
and potential compromise.
Jo says that actual compromise involves an unauthorized disclosure of classified
information.
Chris says that not all security violations involve actual compromise, but all involve
potential compromise.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
176
Information assurance programs and personnel leverage physical, personnel,
and information security measures to prevent unauthorized access to classified
information and information systems.
a. True
b. False
true
177
Information assurance programs and personnel contribute to the information
security goal by ensuring that classified information processed, stored, and
transmitted by information systems and the information systems themselves, are
protected.
a. True
b. False
true
178
Information assurance personnel enforce "confidentiality" by preventing the
disclosure of information to unauthorized individuals or information systems.
a. True
b. False
true
179
Permitting unauthorized individuals to look over your shoulder at your computer
screen while you have confidential data displayed on it is considered a breach of
confidentiality.
a. True
b. False
true
180
Information assurance personnel enforce "integrity" by preventing the
unauthorized modification of the data a system processes, stores, and transmits.
a. True
b. False
true
181
To ensure availability, information assurance personnel need to ensure that the
computing systems used to store and process the information, the security
controls and measures used to protect it, and the communication changes used
to access it must be functioning correctly.
a. True
b. False
true
182
Information assurance refers to the measures that protect and defend information
and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication,
confidentiality, and non-repudiation.
a. True
b. False
true
183
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the concepts of needto-
know, access, and eligibility and how they relate to protecting classified
information.
Jo says that, by assignment to the position, an original classification authority
has a need-to-know.
Chris says that verification of need-to-know and access to classified information
is the information holder's responsibility.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
184
A foreign exchange officer assigned to a joint forces command has full access to
all classified information provided to the command.
a. True
b. False
false
185
U.S. relief agency liaison officers have access to raw intelligence images and
data related to humanitarian efforts.
a. True
b. False
false
186
A retired Combatant Commander has full access to all levels of classified
information she was able to access prior to retirement.
a. True
b. False
false
187
The Federal United States District Attorney grants or denies access to classified
information related to criminal cases.
a. True
b. False
false
188
A Department of Defense civilian employee with a current Single Scope
Background Investigation adjudicated to ICD 704 standards is eligible for access
to Top Secret information.
a. True
b. False
true
189
A Department of Defense military member with a National Agency Check
adjudicated for suitability is eligible for access to Confidential information.
a. True
b. False
false
190
A local national employed by the Department of Defense in Germany with a ten
year-old Single Scope Background Investigation is eligible for access to Secret
information.
a. True
b. False
false
191
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of protecting
classified information.
Jo says that a foreign disclosure officer utilizes a Delegation of Disclosure
Authority Letter to approve the release of U.S. classified information to a foreign
national.
Chris says that, if approved by a senior intelligence official, SCI intelligence
information can be stored outside of a secure room.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
192
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of handling
special types of information.
Jo says that the Patent Secrecy Act of 1952 forbids the classification of
information in order to stop the granting of a patent of an invention.
Chris says that, because the U.S. is part of NATO, NATO classified information
can be reclassified by original classification authorities using the original
classification process.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
193
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the use of the FOUO
designation.
Jo says that FOUO is a designation applied to unclassified information exempt
from mandatory release to public under FOIA (Freedom of Information Act).
Chris says that the absence of the FOUO marking on classified information
means that the information is automatically releasable to the public under the
FOIA (Freedom of Information Act).
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
194
Only the Secretary of the Energy can declassify this type of information.
a. Atomic Energy Information (RD/FRD)
b. Communications Secretary (COMSEC)
c. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)/FOUO
d. Foreign Government and Specialized Treaty Information
e. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
f. Scientific and Technical Information Program (STIP)
g. Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI)
h. Special Access Program (SAP)
a
195
This type of information - derived from intelligence sources, methods, or
analytical processes--must be handled using formal access control systems
established by the Director of National Intelligence.
a. Atomic Energy Information (RD/FRD)
b. Communications Secretary (COMSEC)
c. Communications Secretary (COMSEC)
d. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)/FOUO
e. Foreign Government and Specialized Treaty Information
f. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
g. Scientific and Technical Information Program (STIP)
h. Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI)
i. Special Access Program (SAP)
h
196
This type of information includes emission or emanation security material and
information.
a. Atomic Energy Information (RD/FRD)
b. Communications Secretary (COMSEC)
c. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)/FOUO
d. Foreign Government and Specialized Treaty Information
e. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
f. Scientific and Technical Information Program (STIP)
g. Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI)
h. Special Access Program (SAP)
b
197
This type of information requires the use of enhanced protection measures
exceeding those normally required for information at the same level of
classification.
a. Atomic Energy Information (RD/FRD)
b. Communications Secretary (COMSEC)
c. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)/FOUO
d. Foreign Government and Specialized Treaty Information
e. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
f. Scientific and Technical Information Program (STIP)
g. Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI)
h. Special Access Program (SAP)
h
198
An information custodian must use the correct cover sheet for classified
information removed from a GSA-approved storage container.
a. True
b. False
true
199
Unless restricted by the originating agency, Top Secret, Secret and Confidential
information may be reproduced to the extent required by operational needs.
a. True
b. False
true
200
A SF 702 (Security Container Checklist) can be modified to include safety
requirements.
a. True
b. False
false
201
Reproduced classified material needs to be placed under the same
accountability, safeguarding, and control requirements governing the original
material.
a. True
b. False
true
202
An information custodian must account for, control, and mark working papers in
the same manner required of classified documents.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
false
203
A SF 701 (Activity Security Checklist) is used to record end-of-day checks for
areas that process or store classified information.
a. True
b. False
true
204
When in an open area within a classified work area, the use of secure telephone
equipment ensures that classified discussions are properly protected.
a. True
b. False
false
205
Each office that reproduces classified information must have procedures in place
to ensure that both the copy and the original are properly protected.
a. True
b. False
true
206
Determining whether or not a classified document has a reproduction control
notice is the first thing a custodian should check prior to making copies of the
document.
a. True
b. False
true
207
The Security Container Sheet (SF 702) is used to record the documents stored in
a security container.
a. True
b. False
false
208
The use of cover sheets block classified information from view so no one can
read it, and it reminds the person working with the document that they have
classified materials in their work area.
a. True
b. False
true
209
The SF-703, SF-704, and SF-705 may be used for special or sensitive
information other than Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential documents
respectively.
a. True
b. False
false
210
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing procedures for
safeguarding classified information.
Jo says that any workplace that handles classified information must have
established procedures in place to avoid the unauthorized disclosure of classified
materials.
Chris says that any workplace that handles classified information must have
established procedures in place to deter anyone from removing classified
information from the area without authorization.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
211
Custodians are responsible for ensuring that classified information is secured in
an approved storage container or an approved open storage area.
a. True
b. False
true
212
Custodians are responsible for ensuring that all classified information in their
possession is under the direct control of authorized persons.
a. True
b. False
true
213
Custodians are responsible for verifying a person's need-to-know and access
before providing that individual with any classified information.
a. True
b. False
true
214
Custodians are responsible for verifying a person's need-to-know and access
before providing that individual with any classified information.
a. True
b. False
true
215
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing the topic of storing
classified information.
Jo says that there are three authorized places in which an individual can store
classified information - the individual's head, hands, and an approved container.
Chris says that an approved security container must be used whenever the
classified material is not under the supervision of a custodian.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
216
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing the topic of storing
classified information.
Jo says that the most commonly used containers for storing classified materials
are those approved by General Services Administration (GSA).
Chris says that classified information can only be stored in a GSA-approved
container.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
217
storage.
Jo says that open storage is a term used to describe the ability to store classified
information openly in an area that has been approved for that purpose.
Chris says that open storage areas are designed to meet the safeguarding
requirements of a vault or a secure working space.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
218
Prior to gaining access to classified information, an individual who wants access
to classified information needs to establish that he or she has a need-to-know.
a. True
b. False
false
219
An information custodian must verify that an individual who wants access to
classified information has the appropriate clearance, has a need-to-know, and
has completed a SF-312.
a. True
b. False
true
220
SF-312 is a contractual agreement between the classified information custodian
and the cleared employee stating that the latter agrees never to disclose the
classified information to an unauthorized person.
a. True
b. False
false
221
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing the topic of
transmitting and transporting classified information.
Jo says that DoD Component Heads are responsible for establishing
transmission and transportation procedures that minimize the risk of compromise
while permitting use of the most cost-effective transmission or transportation
means.
Chris says that in order to use a fax machine to transmit classified documents, a
custodian needs to use secure communications equipment over a secure
communications circuit approved for the transmission of classified information at
the level of the classified document.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
222
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing the topic of
transmitting and transporting classified information.
Jo says that the Defense Security Service (DSS) maintains a register of certified
secure digital facsimiles.
Chris says that, due to the sensitive nature of COMSEC information, it is subject
to special transmission procedures found in the National Security
Telecommunications and Information Systems Security Instruction (NSTISSI) No.
4001.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
223
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing the topic of
transmitting and transporting classified information.
Jo says that DoD 5200.1-R, Information Security Program, provides guidance for
the transmission and transportation of classified information.
Chris says that the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) maintains a
register of certified COMSEC equipment.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
224
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing the unique challenges
of protecting classified information on an information system.
Jo says that security practitioners may encounter situations such as spillage of
classified information onto an unclassified system.
Chris says that security practitioners may encounter situations such as classified
information being processed by an information system that is not accredited to
process classified information.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
225
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing the topic of
transmitting classified information.
Jo says that a custodian always needs to verify that the receiver of a faxed
document has the proper clearance eligibility and need-to-know.
Chris says that custodians need to remember that the intended recipient of a
faxed document may not be the same person who receives the faxed document.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
226
Both the inner and outer wrapping needs to be addressed to an official
government activity or DoD contractor.
a. True
b. False
true
227
When using USPS, the outer wrapper needs to include the name of the intended
recipient.
a. True
b. False
false
228
The sender's complete return address needs to be on the inner wrapping, but
may not be on the outer wrapping.
a. True
b. False
false
229
Both the inner and outer wrapping must identify highest classification level of the
information the package will contain.
a. True
b. False
false
230
Any applicable special marking (other than classification level) needs to be
written on the inner wrapper.
a. True
b. False
true
231
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing requirements for
transporting classified material.
Jo says that there are different carrier requirements for transporting confidential,
secret, and top secret information.
Chris says that individuals hand-carrying classified information need to be
briefed in the process of hand-carrying classified information, but they do not
have to have the appropriate clearance or need-to-know.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
232
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing requirements for
transmitting classified information.
Jo says that Secret information can be mailed via the U.S. Postal Service
registered mail within and between the 50 states, the District of Columbia, and
the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
Chris says that Top Secret information can be mailed via the U.S. Postal
Service express mail within and between the 50 states, the District of Columbia,
and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
233
This classification level is the highest level that can be transmitted through the
direct contact between appropriately cleared personnel.
a. Confidential
b. Secret
c. Top Secret
c
234
```
This classification level is the highest level that can be transmitted using the U.S.
Postal Service First Class Mail.
a. Confidential
b. Secret
c. Top Secret
```
a
235
```
This classification level is the highest level that can be transmitted using the
Defense Courier Service.
a. Confidential
b. Secret
c. Top Secret
```
c
236
```
This classification level is the highest level that can be transmitted using a
Department of State Courier Service.
a. Confidential
b. Secret
c. Top Secret
```
c
237
```
This classification level is the highest level that can be transmitted using a GSA
contract holder for overnight delivery.
a. Confidential
b. Secret
c. Top Secret
```
b
238
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing requirements for handcarrying
classified information.
Jo says that hand-carrying classified information should be considered as the
first option for transmitting classified information.
Chris says that a written authorization is required to hand-carry classified
information.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
239
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing requirements for handcarrying
classified information.
Jo says that there are different types of authorization for hand-carrying classified
information depending on the type of transportation that will be utilized.
Chris says that the individual personally hand-carrying classified information is
liable for the material being transported and should not deviate from the
authorized travel schedule.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
240
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing the content of a courier
briefing.
Jo says that the courier briefing informs individuals personally hand-carrying the
classified information of their security responsibilities.
Chris says that the courier briefing informs the U.S. Postal Service of its
responsibility for ensuring that its employees are taking the appropriate
measures to protect classified material that they are hand-carrying.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
241
Adjudication refers to the Department of Defense standard procedure for
collecting information about an individual’s background, activities, and personal
behavior for the purpose of making a personnel security determination.
a. True
b. False
false
242
A determination of an individual’s trustworthiness for a position that does not
require access to classified information is an example of an adjudicative decision.
a. True
b. False
true
243
The adjudication process involves an examination of a sufficient period of a
person’s life to make an affirmative determination that the person is an
acceptable risk.
a. True
b. False
true
244
The adjudication process uses the whole person concept as a guide for
determining the categories of information that must be collected and evaluated
against the adjudication criteria.
a. True
b. False
false
245
A determination of special access eligibility for employees whose duties involve
exceptionally sensitive information is an example of an adjudication decision.
a. True
b. False
true
246
The only type of adjudication decision DoD Central Adjudication Facilities (CAF)
are allowed to make deals with the granting of security clearances.
a. True
b. False
false
247
Adjudication decisions balance the interests of national security against the
interests of the individual.
a. True
b. False
true
248
When an individual’s loyalty, trustworthiness, or reliability is in doubt, the
adjudication decision is always made in favor of national security.
a. True
b. False
true
249
A Central Adjudication Facility’s responsibilities include making eligibility
determinations.
a. True
b. False
true
250
A Central Adjudication Facility serves as a central repository for personnel
security investigative records.
a. True
b. False
false
251
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing factors that
adjudicators' consider when evaluating the relevance of individual's conduct or
behavior.
Jo says that adjudicators consider factors such as the nature, extent, and
seriousness of an individual’s conduct or behavior.
Chris says that adjudicator’s consider factors such as the individual’s age and
maturity at the time of the conduct or behavior.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
252
Two security professionals – Jo and Chris – are discussing factors that
adjudicators’ consider when evaluating the relevance of individual’s conduct or
behavior.
Jo says that adjudicators consider factors such as the frequency and recency of
the conduct.
Chris says that adjudicator’s consider factors such as the potential for pressure,
coercion, exploitation, or duress.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
253
Two security professionals – Jo and Chris – are discussing the adjudication
guidelines.
Jo says that the adjudicative guidelines provide guidance on how to evaluate
information gathered on an individual against the thirteen primary areas of
security concerns.
Chris says that each adjudicative guideline lists and describes the guideline’s
basis or concern, disqualifying conditions, and mitigating conditions.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
254
Two security professionals – Jo and Chris – are discussing adjudication
guidelines.
Jo says that mitigating conditions - situations that reduce the severity of the
disqualifying conditions - always outweigh the disqualifying conditions in a case.
Chris says that existence of disqualifying conditions automatically results in a
denial or revocation of access eligibility.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
255
Two security professionals – Jo and Chris – are discussing eligibility
determinations.
Jo says that adjudicators make final determination of eligibility based on the
application of the adjudication guidelines.
Chris says that making the final determination of eligibility remains the
responsibility of the specific department or agency.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
256
The Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI) is the approved personnel
security investigation standard for non-critical sensitive civilian positions.
a. True
b. False
false
257
The Access National Agency Check with Inquiries (ANACI) is the approved
personnel security investigation standard for critical sensitive positions.
a. True
b. False
false
258
Civilian position sensitivity designations vary based on the investigative
requirements applicable to a position.
a. True
b. False
false
259
The Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI) and the Access National
Agency Check with Inquiries (ANACI) are the only two Personnel Security
Investigations approved for the initial issuance of clearance eligibility for all
civilian position designations.
a. True
b. False
false
260
The Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI) is the personnel security
investigation standard for non-sensitive positions requiring Top Secret clearance
eligibility.
a. True
b. False
false
261
The Access National Agency Check with Inquiries (ANACI) is the personnel
security investigation standard for noncritical-sensitive positions requiring Top
Secret clearance eligibility.
a. True
b. False
false
262
The National Agency Check with Local Agency and Credit Check is the
personnel security investigation standard for special-sensitive positions.
a. True
b. False
false
263
This designation is applied to positions that include duties associated with special
programs such as Special Access Programs (SAP).
a. Critical-Sensitive
b. Non-Critical Sensitive
c. Non-Sensitive
d. Special-Sensitive
a
264
```
This designation is applied to positions that include duties that require access to
"Secret" information.
a. Critical-Sensitive
b. Non-Critical Sensitive
c. Non-Sensitive
d. Special-Sensitive
```
b
265
```
This designation is applied to positions that include duties with a need to access
"Confidential" information.
a. Critical-Sensitive
b. Non-Critical Sensitive
c. Non-Sensitive
d. Special-Sensitive
```
b
266
```
This designation is typically associated with fiduciary duties requiring the highest
degree of public trust.
a. Critical-Sensitive
b. Non-Critical Sensitive
c. Non-Sensitive
d. Special-Sensitive
```
a
267
This designation is applied to positions that include duties that require access to
Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI).
a. Critical-Sensitive
b. Non-Critical Sensitive
c. Non-Sensitive
d. Special-Sensitive
a
268
```
This designation is applied to positions that include both critical-sensitive and
non-critical sensitive duties.
a. Critical-Sensitive
b. Non-Critical Sensitive
c. Non-Sensitive
d. Special-Sensitive
```
a
269
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the position
sensitivity designations.
Jo says that sensitivity of the position's most important duty determines its
position sensitivity.
Chris says that a position may be designated as critical-sensitive even though
the position does not have any requirement for accessing classified information.
Who is correct?
a. Joe is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Joe and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
270
The Single Scope Background Investigations (SSBI) is the personnel security
investigation standard approved for the initial issuance of "Secret" clearance
eligibility for military positions.
a. True
b. False
false
271
The Access National Agency Check with Inquiries (ANACI) is the personnel
security investigation standard approved for the initial issuance of clearance
eligibility for noncritical-sensitive military positions.
a. True
b. False
false
272
The National Agency Check with Local Agency and Credit Check is the
personnel security investigation standard approved for the initial issuance of "Top
Secret" clearance eligibility for military positions.
a. True
b. False
false
273
The Access National Agency Check with Inquiries (ANACI) is the personnel
security investigation standard approved for the initial issuance of "Confidential"
clearance eligibility for military positions.
a. True
b. False
false
274
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing Limited Access
Authorizations.
Jo says that Limited Access Authorizations are granted to U.S. citizens when
classified access is needed to perform temporary duty assignments.
Chris says that Limited Access Authorizations grant local nationals temporary
eligibility to access "Top Secret" information.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
275
Designation of a restricted area is the responsibility of the Physical Security
Director.
a. True
b. False
false
276
A restricted area must be properly marked to inform personnel that they are in
the vicinity of a restricted area.
a. True
b. False
false
277
All individuals with the appropriate personnel clearance level are allowed access
to a designated restricted area.
a. True
b. False
false
278
Controlled areas may be set up adjacent to designated Restricted Areas to
facilitate the verification and authentication of personnel.
a. True
b. False
true
279
Restricted areas employ physical security measures to prevent unauthorized
entry and/or minimize incursions or interference.
a. True
b. False
true
280
Restricted areas may be of different types depending on the nature and varying
degree of importance of the security interest.
a. True
b. False
true
281
Only the installation Commander or the Activity Director can authorize a
restricted area.
a. True
b. False
true
282
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing Facility Access
Control Procedures.
Jo says that admittance to a restricted area is typically limited to personnel
assigned to the area and persons who have been specifically authorized access
to that area.
Chris says that visitors to a restricted area must be escorted by personnel
assigned to the area or by persons who have been specifically authorized access
to that area.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
283
```
This facility access control procedure includes procedures for searching
packages, vehicles, and personnel.
a. Identification Systems and Methods
b. Methods of Control
c. Entry and Exit Inspection
```
c
284
The facility access control procedure employs various types of entry control
devices including the use of the Common Access Card.
a. Identification Systems and Methods
b. Methods of Control
c. Entry and Exit Inspection
a
285
This facility access control procedure employs the use of physical security
countermeasures including automated entry control systems, exchange badge
systems, and security personnel conducting physical inspection of your
credentials.
a. Identification Systems and Methods
b. Methods of Control
c. Entry and Exit Inspection
a
286
This facility access control procedure employs escorts and access control rosters
to ensure accountability for all visitors to an area.
a. Identification Systems and Methods
b. Methods of Control
c. Entry and Exit Inspection
b
287
The two person concept requiring two people to be present at all times while in a
defined area is an example of this facility access control procedure.
a. Identification Systems and Methods
b. Methods of Control
c. Entry and Exit Inspection
b
288
The use of an x-ray machine or metal detector to determine whether or not a
person is bringing unauthorized items into an area is an example of this facility
access control.
a. Identification Systems and Methods
b. Methods of Control
c. Entry and Exit Inspection
c
289
This facility access control procedure focuses on the unauthorized removal of
government assets from an area; thus, it serves not only as a deterrent, but also
as a means for detecting contraband.
a. Identification Systems and Methods
b. Methods of Control
c. Entry and Exit Inspection
c
290
The Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 (HSPD 12) aims to reduce the
number of systems used in this facility access control procedures by mandating
common system criteria.
a. Identification Systems and Methods
b. Methods of Control
c. Entry and Exit Inspection
a
291
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing Facility Access
Control Procedures.
Jo says that, within the Department of Defense, the Common Access Card
fulfills the requirements of the common identification criteria mandated by HSPD
12.
Chris says that, depending on the area sensitivity some Department of Defense
facilities may still require credentials in addition to the Common Access Card as
part of their facility access control procedure.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
292
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris- are discussing lock systems typically
used within the Department of Defense (DoD)
Jo says that the two primary types of locks used within DoD are combination
locks and key operated locks.
Chris says that the type of locking device selected for use depends on the
environment and the type of assets that require protection.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
293
Mortise locks are considered low security locking devices typically found in
general office areas.
a. True
b. False
true
294
The two types of combination locks approved for use to safeguard classified
information includes a family of locks known as X-07, X-08, X-09; and
combination padlocks that comply with an Underwriters’ Laboratory Standard.
a. True
b. False
true
295
Low security padlocks provide limited-to-minimal resistance to forced or
surreptitious entry.
a. True
b. False
true
296
Lock and Key control procedures should include a key register and an authorized
user list.
a. True
b. False
true
297
Key control procedures are necessary because corrective measures associated
with lost or uncontrolled keys can be costly and time consuming.
a. True
b. False
true
298
Locks used to secure classified information must meet FF-L-2740 specifications.
a. True
b. False
true
299
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris- are discussing the Department of
Defense's (DoD) Physical Security Program.
Jo says that the DoD Physical Security Program uses active and passive
measures to detect, deter, delay, and/or deny unauthorized access to personnel,
installations, equipment, facilities, activities, and operations.
Chris says that one purpose of the DoD Physical Security Program is to prevent
damage to the theft of, and/or loss of the Department assets.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
300
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Department of
Defense (DoD) Physical Security Program.
Jo says that physical security uses active and passive measures to safeguard
personnel, installations, equipment, facilities, activities, and operations against
espionage, sabotage, terrorism, damage, and criminal activity
Chris says that prevention and protection are the primary purposes of a physical
security program.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
301
To achieve security-in-depth, a security program needs to employ and deploy
layers of complementary security controls to deter, detect, delay, assess,
respond, and document unauthorized movement within the facility.
a. True
b. False
true
302
A security program determined to have security-in-depth employs an integrated
protective system of active and passive security controls.
a. True
b. False
true
303
Security-in-depth is a security concept that calls for the systematic use of
physical security measures in levels or steps to create different layers of
protection.
a. True
b. False
true
304
Because different assets may require different levels of protection, the securityin-
depth concept calls for the use of different types of security controls to ensure
that each asset has the same level protection.
a. True
b. False
false
305
This entity manages, implements, and directs the installation or facility's physical
security program.
a. Anti-Terrorism Working Group (ATWG)
b. Anti-Terrorism Officer
c. CI Support Personnel
d. Force Protection Working Group (FPWG)
e. Information Systems Security Managers (ISSM)
f. Installation Commander/Facility Director
g. Law Enforcement Officials
h. Legal Officers
i. Operations Security Officer
j. Physical Security Officer/Provost Marshal
k. Threat Working Group (TWG)
j
306
This entity has overall responsibility for the safety and protection of the people
and property in an installation or a facility.
a. Anti-Terrorism Working Group (ATWG)
b. Anti-Terrorism Officer
c. CI Support Personnel
d. Force Protection Working Group (FPWG)
e. Information Systems Security Managers (ISSM)
f. Installation Commander/Facility Director
g. Law Enforcement Officials
h. Legal Officers
i. Operations Security Officer
j. Physical Security Officer/Provost Marshal
k. Threat Working Group (TWG)
f
307
This entity is responsible for assessing physical security requirements and for
conducting criticality, vulnerability, and risk assessments.
a. Anti-Terrorism Working Group (ATWG)
b. Anti-Terrorism Officer
c. CI Support Personnel
d. Force Protection Working Group (FPWG)
e. Information Systems Security Managers (ISSM)
f. Installation Commander/Facility Director
g. Law Enforcement Officials
h. Legal Officers
i. Operations Security Officer
j. Physical Security Officer/Provost Marshal
k. Threat Working Group (TWG)
a
308
This entity is responsible for ensuring the proper and legal incorporation of
security considerations.
a. Anti-Terrorism Working Group (ATWG)
b. Anti-Terrorism Officer
c. CI Support Personnel
d. Force Protection Working Group (FPWG)
e. Information Systems Security Managers (ISSM)
f. Installation Commander/Facility Director
g. Law Enforcement Officials
h. Legal Officers
i. Operations Security Officer
j. Physical Security Officer/Provost Marshal
k. Threat Working Group (TWG)
h
309
This entity is responsible for coordinating physical security measures to protect
information systems.
a. Anti-Terrorism Working Group (ATWG)
b. Anti-Terrorism Officer
c. CI Support Personnel
d. Force Protection Working Group (FPWG)
e. Information Systems Security Managers (ISSM)
f. Installation Commander/Facility Director
g. Law Enforcement Officials
h. Legal Officers
i. Operations Security Officer
j. Physical Security Officer/Provost Marshal
k. Threat Working Group (TWG)
e
310
This entity supports the physical security mission by managing the installation's
use of defensive measures to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property
from terrorist attacks.
a. Anti-Terrorism Working Group (ATWG)
b. Anti-Terrorism Officer
c. CI Support Personnel
d. Force Protection Working Group (FPWG)
e. Information Systems Security Managers (ISSM)
f. Installation Commander/Facility Director
g. Law Enforcement Officials
h. Legal Officers
i. Operations Security Officer
j. Physical Security Officer/Provost Marshal
k. Threat Working Group (TWG)
b
311
This entity supports the physical security mission by providing information on our
adversaries' intentions and capabilities.
a. Anti-Terrorism Working Group (ATWG)
b. Anti-Terrorism Officer
c. CI Support Personnel
d. Force Protection Working Group (FPWG)
e. Information Systems Security Managers (ISSM)
f. Installation Commander/Facility Director
g. Law Enforcement Officials
h. Legal Officers
i. Operations Security Officer
j. Physical Security Officer/Provost Marshal
k. Threat Working Group (TWG)
c
312
This entity supports the physical security mission by facilitating the identification
of critical information.
a. Anti-Terrorism Working Group (ATWG)
b. Anti-Terrorism Officer
c. CI Support Personnel
d. Force Protection Working Group (FPWG)
e. Information Systems Security Managers (ISSM)
f. Installation Commander/Facility Director
g. Law Enforcement Officials
h. Legal Officers
i. Operations Security Officer
j. Physical Security Officer/Provost Marshal
k. Threat Working Group (TWG)
i
313
Two Security Professionals - Jo and Chris- are discussing physical security
threats.
Jo says that natural disasters are considered a physical security threat because
they have the potential to damage DoD resources or interrupt activities or
operations.
Chris says that, although natural disasters have the potential to damage DoD
resources or interrupt activities or operations, they are not considered a physical
security threat because they are natural occurring phenomena.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
314
Which of the following is an adversary who uses the threat of violence to instill
fear and intimidate governments to fulfill goals that are generally political,
religious, or ideological?
a. Criminal
b. Foreign Intelligence Agents
c. Insider
d. Terrorists
d
315
Which of the following is an adversary that actively engages in intelligence
activities against the U.S. in the interest of another country?
a. Criminal
b. Foreign Intelligence Security Service
c. Insider
d. Terrorists
b
316
```
This concept refers to an indication, circumstance, or event with the potential to
cause loss of or damage to an asset.
a. Criticality
b. Threat
c. Vulnerability
```
b
317
This concept refers to a situation or circumstance, which if left unchanged, may
result in damage to mission-essential resources.
a. Criticality
b. Threat
c. Vulnerability
c
318
This concept refers to weaknesses that can be exploited by an adversary to gain
unauthorized access to or information from an asset.
a. Criticality
b. Threat
c. Vulnerability
c
319
This concept refers to the perceived imminence of intended aggression by a
capable entity to harm a government's programs, operations, people,
installations, or facilities.
a. Criticality
b. Threat
c. Vulnerability
b
320
This concept looks at the importance of a part to the whole.
a. Criticality
b. Threat
c. Vulnerability
a
321
```
This concept is based on both an asset's importance to national security, and the
effect of its partial or complete loss.
a. Criticality
b. Threat
c. Vulnerability
```
a
322
Two Security Professionals - Jo and Chris- are discussing the physical security
principles of point and area security.
Jo says that area security maximizes the effectiveness of response forces by
focusing security efforts on a specific asset or resource.
Chris says that only point security allows a security professional to effectively
protect assets from damage, loss, and theft.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
323
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing the physical security
principles of point and area security.
Jo says that point security is a physical security principle that calls for the use of
a physical security measure to protect a consolidated set of assets.
Chris says that area security is a physical security principle that calls for the use
of a consolidated set of physical security measures to protect a specific asset or
resource.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
324
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris- are discussing the physical security
principles of point and area security.
Jo says that security professionals employ both point and area security to
protect assets from damage, loss, and theft.
Chris says that security professionals employ both point and area security in an
integrated manner to protect national security.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
325
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris- are discussing threat levels and
Force Protection Conditions (FPCON).
Jo says that the FPCON level set by authorized personnel dictates the security
measures an installation enacts to prevent or mitigate hostile actions against its
personnel, resources, facilities, and critical information.
Chris says that senior leaders use threat levels to assist them in determining the
appropriate FPCON level.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
326
Which of the following threat levels suggest that there are terrorists present but
there are no indications of anti-U.S. activity?
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. Significant
d. High
b
327
```
Which of the following FPCON levels indicates the existence of an increased
threat of terrorist activity?
a. FPCON ALPHA
b. FPCON BRAVO
c. FPCON CHARLIE
d. FPCON DELTA
```
c
328
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris- are discussing Crime Prevention
Programs.
Jo says that the Department of Defense (DoD) considers criminals a threat
because they have the potential to cause the loss of or damage to DoD assets or
operations.
Chris says that crime prevention is a DoD Physical Security Program goal.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
329
The first layer of an integrated physical security system typically uses protective
barriers to protect a facility's perimeter.
a. True
b. False
true
330
The perimeter of an installation or facility is the outermost area of security
responsibility for physical security practitioners.
a. True
b. False
true
331
Protective barriers such as poured concrete or hardened steel barriers are used
for establishing perimeter boundaries.
a. True
b. False
true
332
Protective barriers deter individuals from attempting unlawful or unauthorized
entry.
a. True
b. False
true
333
Protective barriers such as fencing can also be used as platforms for sensors
and lighting.
a. True
b. False
true
334
Two security professionals- Jo and Chris- are discussing protective barriers.
Jo says that protective barriers can be used to enforce facility access control.
Chris says that protective barriers can be used to harden a facility.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
