General Security Flashcards
Use of this form protects classified documents by ensuring that they are not in
plain view of people not authorized to access the document.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
i
Use of this form reminds people working in a classified workplace that there are
classified documents in their work area.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
i
Once executed at the time of the facility clearance approval, this form becomes a
legally binding document between the contractor and the U.S. Government.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
b
This form provides a contractor specific clearance and access requirements,
authorization to generated classified information, and any other special security
requirements above and beyond those required by the National Industrial
Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
a
This form must be executed as a condition of access to classified information.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
e
This form is used to record security checks that must be conducted at the close
of each working day for work areas that process or store classified information.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
g
This form allows military, civilian, and contractor personnel to apply for a
personnel security investigation.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
d
Information collected by this form allows Defense Security Service (DSS)
personnel to analyze the extent to which a contractor organization is a FOCI risk.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
f
Execution of this form allows a contractor organization to work on a classified
contract and it establishes the government’s authority to review the contractor’s
security program to ensure compliance.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
b
This form authorizes the holder to hand-carry classified information using a
transportation mode other than a commercial airline.
a. DD Form 254-DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
b. DD Form 441-Security Agreement
c. DD Form 2501- Courier Authorization
d. SF 86-Questionnaire for National Security Positions
e. SF 312-Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
f. SF 328-Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
g. SF 701-Activity Security Sheet
h. SF 702-Security Container Check Sheet
i. SF 703-TOP SECRET Cover Sheet
c
This briefing provides appropriately cleared personnel with information on how to protect special types of classified information (e.g., SCI or SAP) prior to gaining access to the information. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
b
This briefing reminds cleared individuals who no longer need access to classified
information of their continued responsibilities to protect classified information and
the potential civil and criminal penalties associated with the failure to fulfill those
responsibilities.
a. Initial Orientation Briefings
b. Indoctrination Briefings
c. Annual Refresher Briefings
d. Debriefings
e. Courier Briefings
f. NATO Briefings
g. Non-Disclosure Briefings
h. Foreign Travel Briefings
i. Attestation Briefings
j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
d
This briefing requires individuals to orally declare their understanding of their responsibility to protect national security information. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
i
This required briefing informs newly cleared personnel of their responsibilities as a member of the cleared community. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
a
This required briefing informs newly cleared personnel of their responsibilities as a member of the cleared community. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
c
This briefing informs individuals who will be hand-carrying classified documents of the procedures for handling those documents while in transit. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
e
This briefing, typically required of personnel with Sensitive Compartmented
Information (SCI)I or Special Access Program (SAP) access, provides cleared
personnel with information regarding potential security risks at a given
destination.
a. Initial Orientation Briefings
b. Indoctrination Briefings
c. Annual Refresher Briefings
d. Debriefings
e. Courier Briefings
f. NATO Briefings
g. Non-Disclosure Briefings
h. Foreign Travel Briefings
i. Attestation Briefings
j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
h
This briefing intends to provide newly cleared personnel a basic understanding of the nature of classified information and the importance of its protection to national security. a. Initial Orientation Briefings b. Indoctrination Briefings c. Annual Refresher Briefings d. Debriefings e. Courier Briefings f. NATO Briefings g. Non-Disclosure Briefings h. Foreign Travel Briefings i. Attestation Briefings j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
a
This briefing is also called a “Termination Briefing.”
a. Initial Orientation Briefings
b. Indoctrination Briefings
c. Annual Refresher Briefings
d. Debriefings
e. Courier Briefings
f. NATO Briefings
g. Non-Disclosure Briefings
h. Foreign Travel Briefings
i. Attestation Briefings
j. Antiterrorism/Force Protection Briefings
d
Two security professionals – Jo and Chris – are discussing the contracting process.
Jo says that the Federal Acquisition Regulation governs the process the federal
government uses to acquire or purchase goods and services.
Chris says that although the Federal Acquisition Regulation’s intent is to provide
uniform and government-wide policies and procedures for acquisition, the Department of
Defense has issued a supplemental acquisition regulation called the DFAR.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
(c)
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Federal Acquisition
Regulation (FAR).
Jo says that, to be awarded a contract, a bidder needs to show that it meets the FAR
provisions of that contract.
Chris says that a bidder can be awarded a contract with FAR provisions if it can
demonstrate that it will be able to comply with those provisions at the time of the contract
award.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Which of the following roles associated with the contracting process does not require
contract expertise?
A. Administrative Contracting Officer
B. Contracting Officer
C. Contracting Officer’s Representative
D. Contracting Officer’s Technical Representative
E. Termination Contracting Officer
d
security requirements in a contract.
Jo says that the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) requires that a Contract Security
Classification Specification (DD Form 254) be included or integrated in classified
contracts.
Chris says that by signing the Security Agreement (DD Form 441), a contractor
commits to establishing a Security Program in compliance with NISPOM requirements.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the process for including
security requirements in a contract.
Jo says that the government needs to address contractor security requirements in the
Request for Proposal.
Chris says that the government needs to address contractor security requirements in
contract documents.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the process for including
security requirements in a contract.
Jo says that every security requirement levied upon a contractor must be addressed in
the contract.
Chris says that security requirements outside of the National Industrial Security
Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) scope cannot be included in a contract.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the various roles associated
with the contracting process.
Jo says that the Contracting Officer’s Representative (COR) has the authority to make
contract changes that affect contract terms such as price, quality, quantity, and delivery.
Chris says that a Contracting Officer has the authority to enter into, administer, and
terminate contracts.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
A Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) specifies security
requirements and procedures for handling and protecting classified materials received
and/or generated during the execution of a classified contract.
A. True
B. False
true
A Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) must be prepared for
. both classified and unclassified contracts.
A. True
B. False
false
A Contract Security Classification Specification DD Form 254 needs to be reviewed and.
revised every year
A. True
B. False
false
A Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254)is the only authorized
means for providing classification guidance to a contractor.
A. True
B. False
false
A Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) is required for any
contract that will require a contractor to generate classified information during the
performance of the contract.
A. True
B. False
true
To ensure that a Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) provides
the contractor with the appropriate guidance, it should to be collaboratively prepared by
the Contracting Officer, Program Manager, and a Security Specialist.
A. True
B. False
true
The Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) specifies the access
level required to perform the work defined by the contract.
A. True
B. False
true
A Security Agreement (DD Form 441) is executed at the time of contract award.
A. True
B. False
false
A Security Agreement (DD Form 441) is a document that the government provides to a
contractor that outlines the contract’s scope of work.
A. True
B. False
false
A Security Agreement (DD Form 441) is a legally binding document that commits the
contractor to establish a security program that meets National Industrial Security
Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) requirements.
A. True
B. False
true
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Security Agreement (DD
Form 441).
Jo says that by signing the DD Form 441, the contractor authorizes the government to
review the contractor’s security program to ensure compliance.
Chris says that by signing the DD Form 441, the government commits to processing
personnel clearances for contractor employees who will be working on the contract.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Security Agreement (DD
Form 441) and the Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254).
Jo says that the DD Form 441 provides contractors the authority to store classified
materials in a contractor facility.
Chris says that the DD Form 254 allows the government to specify security
requirements above and beyond those required by the National Industrial Security
Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing unclassified contracts.
Jo says that unclassified contracts do not need to address security requirements.
Chris says that contractor employees in unclassified contracts are often exposed to
unclassified sensitive information that requires some level of protection.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing security requirements for
contractors working at government facilities.
Jo says that the contract for contractors working at a government facility may require
them to follow the facility’s security requirements.
Chris says that a contractor working at a government facility and has access to a
government-owned information system must follow the rules governing that system.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Facility Security Clearance (FCL) authorizes a facility to store classified information.
A. True
B. False
false
A Facility Security Clearance (FCL) is granted to allow the clearing of employees who
have a need to handle classified information to fulfill the requirements of the contract.
A. True
B. False
true
A Facility Security Clearance (FCL) is an administrative determination that a company is
eligible to access classified information at a certain classification level and all lower level
classifications.
A. True
B. False
true
Sponsorship is one of the five requirements needed to obtain a Facility Security
Clearance (FCL).
A. True
B. False
true
By signing the Security Agreement (DD Form 441), the government commits to granting
a Facility Security Clearance (FCL) to a contractor.
A. True
B. False
false
A properly executed Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) is one
of the requirements needed to obtain a Facility Security Clearance (FCL).
A. True
B. False
false
A company with an interim Facility Security Clearance (FCL) may access classified
information while awaiting the final FCL determination.
A. True
B. False
true
Contractor employees cannot access classified information until the company they are
working for has been granted a Facility Security Clearance (FCL).
A. True
B. False
true
Contractor employees may only have access at the same or lower level of their
employer’s Facility Security Clearance (FCL).
A. True
B. False
true
An operating entity may be granted a Facility Security Clearance (FCL) only up to the
level of its Key Management Personnel’s personnel security clearances (PCL).
A. True
B. False
true
A facility’s key management personnel may be granted personnel security clearances
(PCL) only up to the level of the facility’s Facility Security Clearance (FCL).
A. True
B. False
false
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI).
Jo says that a U.S. company is considered under FOCI when a foreign interest has
power to decide matters affecting the management of the company in a manner that
may result in unauthorized access to classified information.
Chris says that a U.S. company is considered under FOCI when a foreign interest has
power to direct matters affecting the operations of the company in a manner that may
adversely affect the performance of classified contracts.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI).
Jo says that contractor companies under FOCI are ineligible for a facility security
clearance until the FOCI factors that made them ineligible are favorably resolved.
Chris says that a U.S. company is NOT considered under FOCI if the foreign interests
with direct or indirect power over the company are citizens of countries who have formal
reciprocal security clearance arrangement with the U.S.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI).
Jo says that Defense Security Service (DSS) implements the four phases -
Identification, Adjudication, Mitigation, and Inspection - of the FOCI process.
Chris says that the Government Contracting Activity is responsible for providing the
DSS with the contractor documentation DSS needs to identify the FOCI source.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI).
Jo says that National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) requires
companies to submit a Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests (SF 328) as part of the
initial facility clearance process.
Chris says that the Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests (SF 328) is one of the five
essential elements needed to obtain a facility clearance.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI) and the National Interest Determination (NID).
Jo says that a National Interest Determination (NID) is required when a foreign-owned
company operating under a Special Security Agreement requires access to proscribed
information (e.g., Top Secret, COMSEC, SCI, RD, or SAP information).
Chris says that a favorable National Interest Determination (NID) authorizes a foreignowned
company access to proscribed information (e.g., Top Secret, COMSEC, SCI, RD,
or SAP information).
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
Answer:
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of foreign
ownership, control, or influence (FOCI) and the National Interest Determination (NID).
Jo says that the Defense Security Service (DSS) is responsible for advising the
Government Contracting Activity of the requirements for a NID.
Chris says that rendering a NID is a critical DSS responsibility as it executes the FOCI
process.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
Industrial Security represents a partnership between the federal government and private
industry to safeguard sensitive and classified information.
A. True
B. False
true
Industrial Security applies to all departments and agencies under the Executive Branch
of the Federal, State, and Local governments.
A. True
B. False
false
Industrial Security aims to achieve greater uniformity in security requirements for classified contracts?
True or False
True
Industrial Security aims to achieve greater uniformity in security requirements for
classified contracts.
A. True
B. False
true
Industrial Security calls for a single, integrated, cohesive system for safeguarding
classified information held by the program’s Cognizant Security Agencies’ personnel.
A. True
B. False
false
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the National Industrial
Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
Jo says that the NISPOM controls the authorized disclosure of classified information
released to contractors executing classified contracts.
Chris says that the NISPOM prescribes the requirements, restrictions, and other
safeguards for preventing the unauthorized disclosure of classified information held by
contractors, licensees, and grantees of the U.S. government.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the National Industrial
Security Program (NISP).
Jo says that Executive Order 12958 established the NISP.
Chris says that NISP protects information classified under Executive Order 12829.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
This authority is responsible for providing overall policy direction for the National
Industrial Security Program (NISP).
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
g
This authority is responsible for implementing and monitoring the National Industrial
Security Program (NISP).
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
c
This authority is responsible for issuing implementing directives with respect to the
National Industrial Security Program (NISP).
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
c
This authority is the President’s designated Executive Agent for the National Industrial
Security Program (NISP).
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
e
This authority is responsible for the issuance and maintenance of the National Industrial
Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
e
This authority heads a Cognizant Security Agency (CSA) and is responsible for
determining the eligibility for access to classified information of contractors and their
respective contract.
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
e
This authority is responsible for inspecting and monitoring contractors who require
access to classified information to fulfill requirements of a classified contract.
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
e
This authority is responsible for prescribing the section of the National Industrial Security
Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) that pertains to intelligence sources and methods.
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
d
This authority has the right to inspect and monitor contractor facilities with access to
information that pertains to intelligence sources and methods.
A. Chairman of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
B. Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
C. Director of the Information Security Oversight Office
D. Director of National Intelligence
E. Secretary of Defense
F. Secretary of Energy
G. National Security Council
b
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing industrial security roles and
responsibilities.
Jo says that the Industrial Security Representative (ISR) has the ultimate responsibility
for the administration and the day-to-day operation of the security program at a cleared
contractor facility.
Chris says that the Facility Security Officer (FSO) is responsible for ensuring that the
contractor’s security program is following National Industrial Security Program Operating
Manual (NISPOM) guidelines to be compliant with the requirements specified in DD
Form 441 (DoD Security Agreement).
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
Which one of the following is a role within the Department of Defense’s Cognizant Security
Office (CSO)?
A. Facility Security Officer
B. Industrial Security Representative
C. Information System Security Manager
D. Contracting Officer’s Technical Representative
b
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing industrial security roles and
responsibilities.
Jo says that contractors working at a government facility may be required to follow the
security requirements of that facility.
Chris says that contractors working at a government facility who process information on a
government-owned information system must appoint an Information System Security
Manager to ensure that the contractors are following the requirements of that governmentowned
information system.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
Defense Security Service, as a NISP Cognizant Security Agency, is responsible for the
administration of the security requirements specified in the National Industrial Security
Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
A. True
B. False
false
Defense Security Service serves as the Secretary of Defense’s designated NISP
Cognizant Security Office responsible for providing advice, assistance, and oversight of
contractors’ security program.
A. True
B. False
true
There are instances when Defense Security Service does not serve as the Cognizant
Security Office within the Department of Defense.
A. True
B. False
true
Defense Security Service has security cognizance over cleared facilities on a military
installation.
A. True
B. False
false
Defense Security Service has security cognizance over cleared facilities on a military
installation.
A. True
B. False
false
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing industrial security roles and
responsibilities.
Jo says that the Installation Commander may choose to retain some of the oversight
functions of the Cognizant Security Office when contractors work on the Commander’s
installation.
Chris says that security requirements outside the scope of the National Industrial Security
Program (NISP) require the oversight of the installation commander or the organization
that levied the requirement upon the contract.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing industrial security roles and
responsibilities.
Jo says that the designation of a Cognizant Security Office relieves a Government
Contracting Activity of the responsibility to protect and safeguard classified information
associated with its classified contracts.
Chris says that the designation of a Cognizant Security Office inhibits a Government
Contracting Activity from visiting a contractor performing its classified contract to review
the security aspects of that content.
Who is correct?
A. Jo is correct
B. Chris is correct
C. Jo and Chris are both correct
D. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
The responsibility for determining need-to-know in connection with a classified visit rests
with the individual who needs to disclose classified information during the visit.
A. True
B. False
true
Classified visit is allowed if the visit is necessary and the visit’s purpose cannot be
achieved without access to or disclosure of classified information.
A. True
B. False
true
The Facility Security Officer is responsible for ensuring that the visitor requiring access to
contractor-held classified information is an authorized person.
A. True
B. False
false
Verification of a visitor’s eligibility and access can be done through JPAS or through a visit
authorization letter sent by the visitor’s employer.
A. True
B. False
true
A contract employee traveling on DoD orders can process their own visit request.
A. True
B. False
false
Positive identification of visitors is a requirement of classified visits.
A. True
B. False
true
Government employees temporarily stationed at a contractor’s facility must meet security
procedures of the host contractor.
A. True
B. False
true
Contractor employees who are long-term visitors at a government installation must follow
the security requirements of that installation.
A. True
B. False
true
The security of meetings involving disclosure of classified information is the responsibility
of the sponsoring government agency or activity.
A. True
B. False
true
The sponsoring government agency or activity must approve attendees of meetings.
A. True
B. False
true
Contractors request for a meetings authorization needs to include an explanation of the
contractor purpose that will be served by the disclosure of classified information at the
meeting.
A. True
B. False
false
All persons in attendance at classified meetings shall possess the requisite clearance and
need-to-know for the information to be disclosed.
A. True
B. False
true
Need-to-know of meeting attendees must be determined by the contractor organization
holding the classified information that will be disclosed in the meeting.
A. True
B. False
false
Classified meeting announcements must be classified at the same classification level as
the meeting.
A. True
B. False
false
Classified meeting invitations to foreign persons must be sent by the authorizing or
sponsoring government agency.
A. True
B. False
true
Critical program information includes both classified military information and
controlled unclassified information.
a. True
b. False
true
Critical program information needs to be protected from unauthorized or
inadvertent destruction, transfer, alteration, or loss.
a. True
b. False
true
Compromise of critical program information can significantly alter program
direction, shorten the combat effective life of the system, or require additional
research, development, test, and evaluation resources to counter the impact of
its loss.
a. True
b. False
true
Security Classification Guides developed to address critical program information
needs to address the possibility that the compilation and aggregation of critical
program information may reveal classified information.
a. True
b. False
true
The organizational or command security manager is responsible for developing,
approving, and implementing the Program Protection Plan - a single source
document that specifies all protection efforts designed to deny unauthorized
access to a critical program information.
a. True
b. False
false
The preparation and implementation of a Program Protection Plan is based on
effective application of risk avoidance methodology.
a. True
b. False
false
The Program Protection Plan needs to be classified according to its content.
a. True
b. False
true
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the policy documents
associated with information classification.
Jo says that Executive Order 13526 calls for basic classification policy that
advocates classifying information only when necessary to prevent damage to
U.S. national security and only for as long as necessary, but no longer than
fifteen years.
Chris says that DoD 5200.2-R is the policy document that established the
baseline information security requirements for the Department of Defense.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of
classifying information.
Jo says that information eligible for classification is owned by, produced by,
produced for, or is under the strict control of the U.S. government.
Chris says that the three classification levels differ in the extent of damage one
can expect from the unauthorized disclosure of the designated information.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
classifying information.
Jo says that information can be classified to prevent or delay public release.
Chris says that information ineligible for classification can still be classified if
there is a need to limit dissemination of the information.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
d
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of original
classification.
Jo says that original classification refers to the initial determination that
information requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of
U.S. national security.
Chris says the original classification entails the use of a six-step process that
results in the information custodian making a classification determination.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
Original classification authority is delegated to occupants of positions.
a. True
b. False
true
Delegation of the original classification authority (OCA) needs to specify the
lowest level the OCA can classify a piece of information.
a. True
b. False
true
An original classification authority cannot issue a Security Classification Guide
until approved by the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO).
a. True
b. False
false
Declassified foreign government information may be considered for original
classification by an original classification authority.
a. True
b. False
false
An original classification authority can communicate their classification decision
by issuing either a security classification guide or a properly marked source
document.
a. True
b. False
true
The original classification process begins with a determination of whether or not
the information is official government information and is not already classified by
another original classification authority.
a. True
b. False
true
The original classification process only includes the assignment of a classification
level to eligible official government information, but not a determination of how
long the classification should last.
a. True
b. False
false
Executive Order 13526 requires the original classification authority to identify or
describe the damage to national security that could reasonably be expected from
the unauthorized disclosure of the information.
a. True
b. False
true
Prior to making classification determinations using the original classification
process, the original classification authority must go through required training per
DoD 5200.1-R.
a. True
b. False
true
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the topic of derivative
classification.
Jo says that derivative classification needs to be reviewed and approved by
delegates of the original classification authority.
Chris says that derivative classification refers to an individual’s responsibility to
properly mark newly developed material consistent with the classification
markings specified in authorized sources.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
b
The derivative classification process includes the evaluation of the original
classification authority’s original classification determination.
a. True
b. False
false
The derivative classification process calls for the use of the authorized sources,
such as the Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254) to apply
required markings on derivative documents.
a. True
b. False
true
The Security Classification Guide (SCG) takes precedence when there is a
conflict between marking information presented in the source document and the
SCG.
a. True
b. False
true
Derivative classifiers need to be aware that the paraphrasing or the restating of
classified information extracted from a classified source document could result in
a change in classification.
a. True
b. False
true
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Security
Classification Guide (SCG).
Jo says that derivative classifiers use the SCG to determine if something is
classified, its classification level, downgrading and declassification instructions,
special control notices, and other information critical to the proper classification,
marking, and dissemination of the items in question.
Chris says that the SCG is a document issued by the component or agency’s
Information Security Program based on properly marked source documents
created by original classification authorities.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing the Security
Classification Guide (SCG).
Jo says that SCG specify classification levels, special requirements, and
duration instructions for classified programs, projects, and plans.
Chris says that the SCG serves to document the results of the implementation of
a derivative classification process.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing compilation.
Jo says that classification by compilation includes situations when two or more
pieces of unclassified information, when combined or associated, warrant
protection as classified information.
Chris says that the classification by compilation applies when pieces of
information classified at a lower level, by virtue of being combined or associated,
warrant a higher classification level.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing classification
marking.
Jo says that marking informs custodians of the specific protection requirements
for that information.
Chris says that the standards and requirements for the marking of DoD
classified and controlled unclassified information can be found in Executive Order
13526.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
a
Two security professionals - Jo and Chris - are discussing classification
marking.
Jo says that all classified information needs to be clearly identified using
electronic labeling, designation or marking.
Chris says that if the physical marking of the medium containing classified
information is not possible, then identification of classified information must be
accomplished by other means.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
marking.
Jo says that both original and derivative classifiers are responsible for the
marking and designation of classification information.
Chris says that original classifiers need to pay special attention to the required
markings they will need to apply on information that has appeared in a
newspaper, magazine, or other public medium.
Who is correct?
a. Jo is correct
b. Chris is correct
c. Jo and Chris are both correct
d. Jo and Chris are both incorrect
c
Required markings for originally classified documents include the overall
classification of the document.
a. True
b. False
true
Required markings for originally classified documents include a concise reason
for classification.
a. True
b. False
true
Required markings for originally classified documents include applicable
instructions for the declassification and/or downgrading of the document.
a. True
b. False
true
Required markings for originally classified documents include page markings and
portion markings.
a. True
b. False
true
