Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ACE > general review > Flashcards

general review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
ACE ® Health Coach flashcards
1
Q

normal blood pressure

A

120/80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4 phase of functional movement and resistance training

A
  1. stability and mobility 2. movement 3.load 4.performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

4 phases of cardio training

A
  1. aerobic base 2.aerobic efficiency 3.anaerobic endurance 4.anaerobic power
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

plyometric exercise

A

incorporates quick,powerful movements and involve stretch-shortening cycle of a muscle, followed by an immediate shortening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

amortization phase

A

time between eccentric and concentric action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

waist to hip ratio

A

male: >0.95 female: >0.86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is SMART goal

A

the goal must be specific, measurable, attainable, relevent and time-bound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

reciprocal inhibition

A

the activation of one side of the joint muscle happens at the same time with neural inhibition of the opposing side of the muscle,allowing it to stretch, to facilitate movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

length-tension relationship

A

the relationship btw sarcomere length and muscle tension. eg. longer sarcomere produce higher tension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

joints responsible for stability/mobility

A

stability: scapulothoracic, lumbar spine, knee, foot
mobility: glenohumeral, thoracic spine, hip, ankle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

isometric contraction

A

holding the resistance in a stable position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

relapse

A

the return of an original problem cause behavioral change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

stages of client-trainer relationship

A

RIPA- rapport, investigation, planning, action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is RICE

A

it’s an acute injury management. stands for rest/restricted activity, ice, compression, elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

3 phases of healing

A

inflammatory, fibroblastic/proliferation, maturation/remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

contradictions to stretching

A

acute soft tissue injury, joint hypermobility, hematoma, , corticosteroid use, prolonged immobilization of muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3 categories of determints for physical activity

A

personal attributes, environmental factor, physical activity factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

locus of control

A

a personal attributes can affect participation and adherence. it’s belief in personal control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

motivational interviewing

A

a method of talking to people that motivate them to decide change behaviour, it can create awareness of the client, help them feel the need to change. PT use it in planning stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

stages of motor learning

A

cognitive, associative, autonomous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

transtheoretical model of behaviour change

A

aka. stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ages that qualify for risk factor

A

men: >45 women: >55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BMI qualify for risk factor

A

> 30/ waist: 102/88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

blood pressure that consider as hypertension

A

> 140/ >90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

cholesterol level considered as dyslipdemia

A

LDL > 130/ HDL < 40 ; serum cholesterol >200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

alternative words for shortened and lengthened

A

facilited/hypertonic ; inhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

shortened muscle for kyphosis/lordosis

A

hip flexor, latissimus dorsi, anterior chest, neck extensor, lumbar extensor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

lengthened muscle for kyphosis/lordosis

A

hip extensor, upper back extensor, external obliques, scapular stabilizer, neck flexor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

difference btw kyphosis and lordosis

A

kyphosis knee gravity line is more posterior from the center line (sagittal view)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

difference btw flat-back and sway-back

A

both are posterior pelvic tilt, while sway-back has more thoracic curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

shortened muscle for flat-back

A

retus abdominal, upper back extensor, ankle planter flexor, neck extensor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

lengthened muscle for flat-back

A

internal obliques, neck flexor, psoas major, lumbar extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

scapular protraction

A

aka shoulder abduction/rounded shoulder, two scapular bone far apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is a good head position

A

earlobe and acromion process are align/cheek bone and collar bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when perform thomas test, back of thigh touch table but knee does not flex to 80 degree, which muscle are tight?

A

rectus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

when perform thomas test, back of thigh can’t touch table but knee does flex to 80 degree, which muscle are tight?

A

iliopsoas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when perform shoulder flexion test, arms unable to reach 170 degree, which muscles are tight?

A

chest, back and shoulder area muscle group. pectoralis major and minor, latissimus dorsi, rhomboids, subscapularis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

scapular winging

A

a protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral border outward, it’s due to inability of the parascapular muscle group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ankle pronation

A

knee/tibial/femoral internal, foot eversion, may lift ourside of the heels off the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

lower-cross sydrome

A

the coupling relationship btw tight hip flexor and erector spinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

sharpened romberg test

A

arm crossed on chest, eyes closed, one foot stand in front of another. able to remain position >30s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

standard time for stroke stand test

A

excellent: 50/30s. poor: 20/10s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

trapezius muscle

A

connect neck and shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

how to calculate BMI and what is considered as overweight?

A

weight kg/height square m, overweight >= 30,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is VO2 max

A

maximal oxygen uptake, measures cardiorespiratory efficiency, related to the capacity of heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

2 methods of measure maximal heart rate

A
  1. graded exercise test (GXT) 2. fomula 220-age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is OBLA

A

onset blood lactate accumulation, a matabolic marker where VT2 happens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how does VT2 threshold test work?

A

a 15-20 mins test, let client choose the intensity, monitor heart rate each minutes at the last 5 mins, get the average HR then mulitiply by 0.95 to get the estimate VT2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

calculate lean/fat body mass

A

1-fat%=lean%, weight x lean%= lean#, 1-desired fat%=desired lean%, lean#/desired lean%=desired weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

calculate 1RM

A

1-15 reps, start from 2 reps=95% of 1RM, 4=90%, 6=85%, 8=80%, 10=75%, 11=70%, 12=67%, 15=65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

calculate relative strengh

A

absolute strength/body weight

52
Q

blood pressure value that should stop exercise

A

SBP > 250; DBP > 115

53
Q

which body composition assessment can identify reginal fat?

A

dual energy xray (DXA)

54
Q

which body composition assessment use bicep as assessment site?

A

near infrared (NIR), not as accurate as the other methods and not accurate on obese.

55
Q

which body composition assessment has high accuracy but too expensive?

A

air displacement (ADP)

56
Q

conversion btw MET and oxygen consumption

A

1 MET = 3.5 ml/kg/min

57
Q

body fat % category

A

(average) male: 18-24% female: 25-31%

58
Q

YMCA submaximal step test HR norms

A

men: good 80-90, below average 100-110
women: good 85-100, below average 110-120

59
Q

type 1 muscle fiber and what kind of exercise

A

slow-twitch, act as stabilizer, enhance muscular endurance, high volume low intensity.

60
Q

type 2 muscle fiber and what kind of exercise

A

fast-twitch, for joint movement and generate force, high intensity low volume.

61
Q

autogenic inhibition

A

the increased tension on a muscle activate GTO response, GTO then temporarily inhibits the tension on that same muscle.

62
Q

what is humerus/humeral

A

the bone from shoulder to elbow

63
Q

what is valgus stress

A

different rate/degree of femur and tibia internal rotation that place stress on knee

64
Q

3 stages model for core and balance training

A
  1. core function 2. static balance 3. dynamic balance
65
Q

what are the 3 layers of core

A

outermost layer: rectus abdominis, erector spinae, external internal oblique, latissimus dorsi
middle layer: transverse abdominis, multifidi, deep fiber of internal oblique, diaphragm
innermost layer: bones and discs,

66
Q

diminishing return

A

when approach the genetic potential for muscle size and strength

67
Q

FIRST for muscular endurance

A

3 times/week, 60-70% 1RM, 12-16 reps, 2-3 sets, rest < 60s

68
Q

FIRST for muscular hypertrophy

A

72 hrs btw same muscle, 70-80%, 6-12 reps, 3-6 sets, rest 30-90s

69
Q

plyometric drill progression

A

single linear jump - multiple linear jump - multidirectional jump - hops and bounds - depth jump

70
Q

4 muscles that maintain a neutral pelvic posture

A

anterior: rectus abdominis, hip flexor
posterior: hamstring, erector spinae

71
Q

which stretch is most appropriate to perform during an exercise

A

dynamic stretch

72
Q

cardiovascular drift

A

a gradual increase in HR during a steady state exercise

73
Q

what is cardiovascular drift and what are the causes?

A

a gradual increase in HR during a steady state exercise.

reduction in blood volume, increasing in core temperature.

74
Q

HRR

A

MHR-RHR

75
Q

exercise guideline for moderate intensity

A

30 mins/session, 5 days/week, total 150 mins

76
Q

exercise guideline for vigorous intensity

A

20-25 mins/session, 3 days/week, total 75 mins

77
Q

exercise guideline for overweight and obese

A

moderate: 50-60 mins/session, 5-7 days/week, total 300 mins
vigorous: 3 days/week, total of 150 mins

78
Q

when to progress to phase 2 (aerobic efficiency)

A

when client can complete 20-30 mins of zone 1 exercise for 5 days/week

79
Q

what could affect cardio exercise duration

A

willingness, oxygen availability, muscle glycogen and blood glucose

80
Q

aerobic power

A

= VO2 max, indicator for cardiovascular endurance, maximal oxygen a person can use in min/kg of weight.

81
Q

good relationship for core muscle?

  • flexion:extension
  • right side bridge:left side bridge
  • side bridge:extension
A

less than 1.0
no greater than 0.05 from 1.0
less than 0.75

82
Q

5 metabolic syndrome symptoms

waist, triglycerides, HDL, blood pressure, fasting blood glucose

A
  1. waist: > 102/88 cm
  2. triglycerides > 150
  3. reduced HDL < 40/50
  4. elevated blood pressure >130/85
  5. fasting blood glucose > 100
83
Q

which disease is suitable for weight-bearing exercise?

A

osteoporosis, (plyometric )

84
Q

which disease is suitable for aquatic exercise

A

asthma, stroke, arthritis

85
Q

what RPE level should low risk cardiovascular disorder patient exercise at?

A

RPE of 11-14

86
Q

exercise guideline for type 1 diabetes

A

3-5 days/week, all level, 55-75% or 11-14 RPE

87
Q

exercise guideline for type 2 diabetes

A

5-6 days/week, low-moderate, 50-80% or 11-16 RPE, 40-60 mins/session

88
Q

exercise precautions for diabetes clients

fasting glucose level, blood glucose level, glucose level

A

fasting >=250, blood glucose >=300,
type 1: glucose <100
avoid during peak insulin activity

89
Q

exercise guideline for metabolic syndrome

A

3-5 times/week, intensity depends on weight status,

start from 40-75%, RPE of 9-13, 200-300 mins total / week

90
Q

what is the goal of exercise for arthritis

A

maintain ROM and flexibility

focus on duration than intensity

91
Q

exercise for fibromyalgia

A

daily stretching, warm water exercise, low- moderate intensity, goal is 150 mins aerobic / week

92
Q

exercise for chronic fatigue syndrome

A

low intensity, rest ratio 1:3

93
Q

exercise should be avoided for low-back pain

A
  1. unsupported forward flexion
  2. raise 2 legs while lying supine or prone
  3. rapid movement
  4. twisted waist and turned feet
94
Q

exercise guidelines for old people

A

moderate: 30 mins, 5 days/week, scale of 5-6
vigorous: 20 mins,3 days/week, scale of 7-8

95
Q

strength training for old people

A

2 times/week, 8-10 exercise, 10-15 reps

96
Q

what is the most common sport related injury?

A

anterior cruciate ligament injury

97
Q

what is the most common knee injury

A

menisci cartilage damage

98
Q

most common upper extremity injury?

A

lumbar, then shoulder pain

99
Q

how to modify exercise when have shoulder pain

A

do not fully extend arm, elbow more toward the front of body

100
Q

rotator cuff injuries (symptoms and exercise)

A

have trouble lifting arms above head, exercise with elbow bent, no overhead activity.

101
Q

what is lateral epicondylitis

A

tennis elbow, injury of the wrist extensor tendon

102
Q

what is medial epicondylitis

A

golfer’s elbow, injury of the wrist flexor tendon

common in 30-55 years

103
Q

what kind of injury may benefit from aquatic exercise

A

greater trochanteric bursitis

104
Q

what kind of injury is common in athlete/active people

A

iliotibial band syndrome, it’s primary caused by training errors
also medial tibial stress syndrome(posterior shin splints), ankle sprains, achilles tendinitis

105
Q

exercise difference for greater trochanteric bursitis and iliotibial band syndrome

A

GTB focus on gluteals and hips, IBS focus on hip abductors and thigh.
both can’t perform squat and lunges

106
Q

what are the injuries that need to stretch the IT band

A

greater trochanteric bursitis, patellofemoral pain syndrome

107
Q

which injury is known as jumper’s knee

A

infrapatellar tendinitis

108
Q

3 cause for low-back pain

A
  1. mechanical: certain movement
  2. degenerative disc disease: (due to aging)
  3. sciatica: nerve involvement
109
Q

3 categories of patellofemoral pain syndrome

A
  1. overuse
  2. biomechanical
  3. muscle dysfunction
110
Q

exercise for achilles tendinitis

A

controlled eccentric strengthen of the calf

111
Q

3 attributes essential to a successful relationship

A

empathy,warmth, genuineness

112
Q

equation for maximal heart rate

A

206.9-(0.67age) ; 208-(0.7age)

113
Q

when perform shoulder extension test, arms unable to reach 50 degree, which muscles are tight?

A

chest, abs, biceps, anterior deltoid

114
Q

if the risk is low, use what risk management?

A

retain

115
Q

if the risk is high, frequency is high, use what risk management?

A

avoid

116
Q

if the risk is high, frequency is low, use what risk management?

A

transfer

117
Q

common sites for tendinitis

A

shoulder, elbow, knee, ankle

118
Q

reason that cause tendinitis

A

begin activity too quickly

119
Q

reasons that cause bursitis

A

trauma, repetitive stress, muscle imbalance (shoulder, hips, knee)

120
Q

in hurdle step test, the client present hip adduction or knee move inward, what muscle problem?

A

gluteus medius and maximus weak, hip adductor and tensor fascia latae tight

121
Q

passive leg raise ROM

A

> = 80 degree

122
Q

signs that should immediate terminate test

A

significant drop in SBP, >10 mmhg ; blood pressure >250/115

123
Q

how long muscle will be shown shorten when held in shortened position

A

2-4 weeks

124
Q

VO2R for moderate and vigorous intensity

A

moderate: 40-60% VO2 R
vigorous: >= 60%

125
Q

HRR for moderate and vigorous intensity

A

moderate: 70% HRR
somewhat hard: 80%
hard: 85%

126
Q

anaerobic glycolysis

A

metabolic system use glucose for energy production without using oxygen, produce lactic acid

ACE (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions