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NCLEX RN > General questions > Flashcards

General questions Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the S/S of hypermagnesemia? Hypomagnesemia?

A

Hypermagnesemia=Drowsiness, weakness, hypotension, hypocalcemia, arrhythmias, bradycardia. Hypomagnesemia=Weakness, muscle cramps, arrhythmias, irritability of the CNS.

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2
Q

What is the difference between slander and libel?

A

Slander is defamation by speech, libel is defamation by written word.

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3
Q

What are the essentials of K+ administration?

A

Never give IM/Sub Q/IV push. Dilute 1 mEq/10 mL solution. Infuse 5-10 mEq/hr never to exceed 20. Check IV site frequently for phlebitis and check renal function prior to administration.

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4
Q

What can cause a U wave to be present on telemetry?

A

Hypokalemia.

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5
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia?

A

Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs, prolonged ST and QT intervals.

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6
Q

How does hyperkalemia affect an ECG?

A

Peaked T waves, flat P waves, widened QRS complex, and prolonged PR interval.

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7
Q

Which of these would create the GREATEST risk for hyponatremia, Diuretics, corticosteroids, Cushing’s, hyperaldosteronism.

A

Diuretics.

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8
Q

What are the S/S of hyponatremia?

A

Muscle weakness, flat neck veins if hypovolemic, diminished DTR’s, hyperactive bowel sounds.

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9
Q

What can cause low phosphorous levels?

A

Malnutrition (alcoholism), overuse of magnesium or aluminum hydroxide antacids, hyperglycemia, Respiratory alkalosis.

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10
Q

What is the difference between sensible and insensible fluid loss?

A

Sensible is what the person is aware of. Urine, wound drainage, gastrointestinal

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11
Q

Would a colostomy put a patient at risk for fluid volume overload/deficit?

A

Deficit

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12
Q

How would you describe Kussmaul respirations?

A

Deep, regular (not labored), and ↑ in rate.

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13
Q

Which serum amylase level would be indicative of chronic pancreatitis, 45/100/300/500?

A
  1. Acute pancreatitis can cause amylase levels to be as much as 5 times as high.
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14
Q

When changing TPN bags and tubing, what should you ask the client to do?

A

Turn the head away from the PICC line and do the Valsalva maneuver (take a dep breath, hold it, bear down).

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15
Q

What body position is used when an air embolus is suspected?

A

Left side, head lower than feet. (to trap the embolus in the right side of the heart).

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16
Q

What are the S/S of hyperglycemia?

A

Thirst, fatigue, restlessness, confusion, weakness, diuresis, Kussmauls, coma.

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17
Q

If you are hanging a bag of fat emulsions for a patient receiving TPN, and notice that the fats have separated into layers or globules, what do you do?

A

Return it to pharmacy and get a new bag.

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18
Q

What is closely monitored on a client receiving TPN at home?

A

Temperature and weight.

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19
Q

If TPN runs out, what is hung until a new bag is obtained?

A

10% Dextrose in water.

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20
Q

If you need to expand the volume of a hypovolemic patient quickly, what IV solution would you give?

A

5% dextrose in LR is a hypervolemic solution that would expand volume quickly.

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21
Q

How would you infuse fluids in a patient with HNNS?

A

Administer 2-3 LITERS OF FLUID RAPIDLY.

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22
Q

If you are going to suction a patient with bacterial meningitis, and then transport him, what PPE is needed?

A

Gloves, mask, and eye protection for suctioning, the put a mask on the patient for transport.

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23
Q

What is usually done before implantation of radioactive seed in a patient with cervical cancer?

A

Bowel cleanse.

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24
Q

What is a sign of congenital defect in an infant?

A

Unequal gluteal folds.

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25
Q

What type of IV tubing do you use for a 6 month old?

A

One with a volume control chamber.

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26
Q

What do you do with a central line after removal?

A

Put it in the sharps container.

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27
Q

Who gives consent for an infant in foster care?

A

The foster mother.

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28
Q

If there is no induration in the skin of an HIV patient after mumps/candida injection, what conclusion can be made?

A

Client is immune-deficient.

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29
Q

When is the best time for breast self-exam for a premenopausal woman?

A

Immediately after her period.

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30
Q

After moving the crutches forward, what comes next?

A

Move the bad leg forward.

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31
Q

Reyes syndrome usually follows what other illness?

A

Chicken pox.

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32
Q

What are the early S/S of dehydration?

A

Thirst/confusion.

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33
Q

After you move the walker, what is moved next?

A

The affected leg.

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34
Q

How big an induration after PPD testing warrants closer examination?

A

15 mm.

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35
Q

What position relieves pericarditis discomfort?

A

Leaning forward while sitting.

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36
Q

________ is an adverse reaction to mag. Sulfate.

A

Flushing, sweating, ↓ BP and cardiac function.

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37
Q

What equipment is needed to do a BPP?

A

Ultrasound and fetal monitor.

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38
Q

What is a major risk following general anesthesia?

A

Atelectasis.

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39
Q

What type of diet is needed for a child with cystic fibrosis?

A

High calorie high protein.

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40
Q

What is turbutaline used for?

A

To relax uterine muscle.

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41
Q

What drug is used to mature neonatal lungs?

A

Betamethasone.

42
Q

Who do we refer an abused client to?

A

A social worker.

43
Q

Are weak distal pulses normal after cardiac catheterization in an infant?

A

Yes

44
Q

What vitamin supplement helps a cycle cell patient rebuild hemolyzed red blood cells?

A

Folic acid.

45
Q

When does NPH peak?

A

8 to 12 hours after admin.

46
Q

When does the single chambered heart begin to beat in an embryo?

A

About the 24th day.

47
Q

How do you perform CPR on an infant?

A

Use the 2 thumbs/encircling hands technique.

48
Q

What other electrolyte imbalance might occur in an alcoholic with hypomagnesemia?

A

Hypophosphatemia.

49
Q

What is considered a “normal” adverse reaction to infant phototherapy?

A

Frequent, loose, watery green stools.

50
Q

What is an early neonatal sign of CF?

A

Meconium ileus.

51
Q

What is it important to do for a child with pinworms?

A

Treat the entire family.

52
Q

What is an important first step in treating a child during a cycle cell crisis?

A

Begin IV fluids.

53
Q

What is an ileal conduit?

A

Ureters are surgically attached to a detached part of the ileum and brought to the surface through a stoma.

54
Q

What lab test best indicates HNNS?

A

Serum osmolarity.

55
Q

What position is the client put in to best hear S3 heart sounds?

A

Left side.

56
Q

If a child with spina bifida develops a rash after eating bananas or kiwi fruit, what type of allergy is suspected?

A

Latex

57
Q

What vitamin should be stopped 1 week before an invasive procedure?

A

Vitamin E. It can cause bleeding.

58
Q

How do you assess for hepatojugular reflux in a heart patient?

A

Hepatojugular reflux, a sign of right sided heart failure is assessed by pressing on the upper right abdomen over the liver.

59
Q

What is an adverse effect of aspirin use?

A

Tinnitus.

60
Q

Where is the fundus one day after delivery?

A

One finger below the umbilicus.

61
Q

If a child has had cardiac arrest, what drug is administered after resuscitation?

A

Dopamine. Epi, atropine and sodium bicarb are used during resuscitation.

62
Q

What diet is used for an infant in HF?

A

Increased caloric content per ounce.

63
Q

What is the goal for FO2 for a patient on a vent?

A

0.5

64
Q

What would x-rays of an osteoarthritic joint reveal?

A

Osteophyte formation.

65
Q

What do you do if you find blood tinged urine in a neonates diaper?

A

Nothing. This is normal.

66
Q

What are the 4 key concepts of most nursing theories?

A

Man, environment, health, nursing.

67
Q

What are the S/S of a hip fracture?

A

External rotation and shortening of the affected leg.

68
Q

Lightening is an early/late sign of preliminary labor.

A

Early.

69
Q

When is a level II ultrasound ordered for a prego?

A

When fetal development is in question.

70
Q

If your patient has MG, when is it most appropriate to complete procedures and care?

A

In the morning, with frequent rest periods.

71
Q

If a client has phenylketonuria, and is trying to get pregnant, what guidelines should be offered?

A

Follow a low phenylalanine diet before trying to conceive.

72
Q

Which nurse specialist deals with clients with ostomy’s?

A

An enterostomal nurse.

73
Q

What are Kubler-Ross’s 5 stages of death/dying?

A

Denial, Anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance.

74
Q

What test confirms a diagnosis of diabetes insipidous?

A

A fluid deprivation test.

75
Q

What is the first sign of increasing ICP?

A

Changes in LOC and nausea.

76
Q

How long does the second stage of labor usually last?

A

About 2 hours.

77
Q

What is Methergine, and when shouldn’t it be used?

A

It is a vasoconstrictor, can cause hypertension, and shouldn’t be used on a hypertensive client.

78
Q

If a 16 year old gives birth and the baby needs surgery, who needs to give consent?

A

The baby’s mother. She is considered emancipated if she gives birth.

79
Q

Which over-the-counter meds can interfere with prescribed insulin?

A

Anything with alcohol, such as cough syrups.

80
Q

What is a common side effect of turbutalene?

A

Fluttering or tightness of the chest.

81
Q

What is the first treatment for SIADH?

A

Limit fluids to 800 mL/day.

82
Q

If an IM injection is continuing to cause pain, what is the best course of action to relieve it?

A

Massage the area to increase absorption of the drug.

83
Q

Which hormone is responsible for milk letdown?

A

Oxytocin.

84
Q

What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for acute pancreatitis?

A

Deficient fluid volume due to vomiting/hemorrhage, plasma leakage into the peritoneal cavity.

85
Q

Can sodium bicarb be given through an ET tube?

A

No! It is usually diluted in a large volume of water, and due to its alkalinity.

86
Q

What causes Addison’s disease?

A

Mineralocorticoid deficiency.

87
Q

Which BP med requires blood glucose monitoring?

A

Metaprolol.

88
Q

How would you instruct a client to do a collection for a fecal fat analysis?

A

If the test begins on Monday, instruct the client to eat at least 150 g of fat per day for 3 days, then collect a fecal sample on Thursday.

89
Q

Is it OK to spill sterile water on a sterile field?

A

NO! If your sterile field becomes wet, it is no longer considered sterile.

90
Q

Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for a client with an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Fluid volume deficit. If it ruptures, massive blood loss may occur.

91
Q

What is a therapeutic response to Plavix?

A

Client denies difficulty swallowing. Plavix is an antiplatelet aggregate.

92
Q

Which is better during the last trimester, Motrin or Tylenol?

A

Tylenol. NSAIDS like Motrin affect the neonate.

93
Q

What is the major side effect of Tuebutalene that should be monitored for?

A

Tachycardia. A HR > 120 should be reported.

94
Q

How long does it take EMLA cream to take effect?

A

2 hours.

95
Q

Is the oral polio vaccine a danger to an immunosuppressed person?

A

Yes. It is a weak, but live virus.

96
Q

When reading a PPD, what size induration is considered a “positive” result?

A

15 or higher if they are low risk. 10 or higher if they are a moderate risk. 5 or higher if they are high risk, such as HIV +.

97
Q

What position is proper for a child who just had a tonsillectomy?

A

Prone

98
Q

When doing pursed lips breathing, are the cheeks puffed out during exhalation?

A

No!

99
Q

How fast do you push 40 mg of Lasix?

A

Over 1 minute.

100
Q

Where is it best to look for petechiae in a dark skinned client?

A

Oral Mucosa

NCLEX RN (2 decks)

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