General Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What personal documents and endorsements are you required to have while flying
solo?

A

Per 61.87, you must have a student pilot certificate, medical certificate, government issued id, and an endorsement from your instructor authorizing that you may fly solo as PIC.

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2
Q

What are your student pilot limitations regarding carriage of passengers or cargo and flying for compensation or hire?

A

Per 61.89 a student pilot cannot act as a PIC of an aircraft that is carrying passengers, that is carrying property for compensation or hire, for compensation or hire, in furtherance of business.

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3
Q

Explain student pilot limitations concerning visibility and flight above clouds

A

Per 61.89, student pilots may not act as PIC of an aircraft and conduct solo flight in a aircraft if the visibility is less than 3 SM during the day and 5 SM during the night. Also, they may not fly if there is no visual reference to the surface

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4
Q

Who has the final authority and responsibility for the operation of the aircraft when
you are flying solo?

A

I do, I am the PIC.

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5
Q

During engine run up, you cause rocks, debris, and propeller blast to be directed
toward another aircraft or person. Could this be considered careless or reckless
operation of an aircraft?

A

Per 91.13:
Any action that could cause harm to any persons or property is considered a careless or reckless operation of an aircraft

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6
Q

You may not fly as pilot of a civil aircraft within ____ hours after consumption of any
alcoholic beverage, or while you have ____% by weight or more alcohol in your blood.

A

Per 91.17, No one many act as pilot of an aircraft within:
-8 hours of consuming any alcoholic beverage
-with a alcohol blood level of 0.04% or greater

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7
Q

What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses?

A

Per 91.107, no pilot may cause an airplane to be moved without having a seatbelt fastened:
-on the surface
-takeoff or land

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8
Q

What is the minimum fuel reserve for day VFR flight, and on what cruise speed is the
fuel reserve based?

A

Per 91.151:
-Day VFR=30 min of extra reserve fuel (45 minutes for night VFR)
-assuming normal cruising speed

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9
Q

A transponder with Mode C is required at all times in all airspace at and above _____ feet MSL, excluding that airspace at and below _____ feet AGL.

A

Per 91.215, Mode C Transponder is required at all times in airspace:
-above 10000 ft MSL
-excluding that airspace at and below 2500 AGL

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10
Q

What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you are flying solo?

A

Per 91.203 All aircraft must have:
-airworthiness certificate with correct tail #
-registration certificate

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11
Q

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a _____________

A

Per 91.111:
-collision hazard

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12
Q

Who has the right-of-way when two aircraft are on final approach to land at the same
time?

A

Per 91.113:
Aircraft at the lower altitude on approach has the ROW

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13
Q

What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which
aircraft has the right-of-way?

A

Per 91.113:
-If overtaking, the aircraft in front of you has the ROW
-You must alter course to the right

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14
Q

If another single-engine airplane is converging from the right, who has the right-of-way?

A

Per 91.113:
If approaching head-on, both aircraft must alter course to the right

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15
Q

If another aircraft is converging from the right, who has the ROW?

A

Per 91.113:
-the aircraft converging from the right has the ROW

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16
Q

Except when necessary for takeoffs and landings, what are the minimum safe altitudes when flying over congested and other than congested areas?

A

Per 91.119:
-Congested=1000 ft above the highest obstacle and 2000 ft horizontal distance
-Uncongested=500 ft above any surface except water or sparsely populated areas

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17
Q

List the memory items for an engine failure shortly after takeoff, in the traffic pattern,
and in cruise flight.

A

Engine failure after rotation with no runway remaining:

-Pitch for BEST GLIDE (76KTS)
-Flaps ADJUST AS REQUIRED
-Mixture IDLE CUTOFF
-Magnetos OFF
-Battery Master and Alternator OFF
-Fuel selector ROTATE TO OFF
-LAND at lowest possible airspeed, straight ahead and avoid obstacles

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18
Q

According to the Airplane Flying Handbook, how much altitude would a typical airplane
lose if it attempted a 180° turn back to the runway shortly after takeoff (page 18-7)?
Describe ATP procedure regarding 180° turns during an engine failure during takeoff.

A

About 1000 ft. Assuming a glide speed of 65 KIAS and a direction change rate of 3 deg per second, the aircraft would take about 1 minute to turn 180 and then add another 45 since the aircraft would now be parallel but not aligned.

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19
Q

Describe how pilot actions may differ between an engine failure and a partial loss of power.

A

For engine failure run my ABCDE checklist
For partial loss, it’s best to assume engine failure, if time permits, troubleshoot and land at nearest possible airport.

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20
Q

When is a go-around appropriate?

A

Whenever landing conditions are not satisfactory, a go around is warranted
AFH 8-12

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21
Q

What is a stabilized approach, and how does a pilot determine if an approach is
stabilized?

A

Definition: Stabilized approach is one in which the pilot establishes and maintains a constant angle glidepath towards a predetermined point on the landing runway (AFH 9-4)

GCASH
G- glide path
C- configuration (flaps and trim set)
A- airspeed (plus or minus 5 knots)
S- stabilized or no stabilized ( go around)
H- heels on the floor, feet of the brakes

No lower than 200ft AGL

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22
Q

According to ATP’s landing procedures, by what point during an approach must it be
stabilized, and what must the pilot do if the approach is not stabilized by that point?

A

No later than 200’ AGL, if not achieved Go around.

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23
Q

After touching down, when should the pilot apply wheel brakes?

A

Do not apply wheel brakes after landing until:
- Aerodynamic Braking is no longer effective and
elevator controls are neutralized
- aircraft is on Centerline

24
Q

List the minimum equipment and instruments that must be working properly in your aircraft for day VFR flight.

A

Per 91.205 (day VFR):
A – airspeed indicator
T – tachometer (for each engine)
O – oil pressure gauge (for each engine using a pressure system)
M – manifold pressure gauge
A – altimeter
T – temperature gauge
O – oil temperature gauge (for each engine)
F – fuel gauge
L – landing gear position indicator
A – anti-collision lights
M – magnetic compass / magnetic direction indicator
E – ELT
S – safety belts

25
Q

Define each of the following V-speeds and give the corresponding speed for your
training airplane.

  • Vs0
  • Vs
  • Vr
  • Vx
  • Vy
  • Vg
  • Vfe
  • Vno
  • Vne
  • Vna at 2,550lb
  • Va at 1,634lb
  • Vna at 1,917lb
A
26
Q

What is the best glide speed for your training airplane?

A

76KTS

27
Q

The total usable fuel capacity for your aircraft is ____ gallons. On a standard day (sea level temperature 59° F, altimeter 29.92 in. Hg), the fuel consumption rate during normal (approximately 75% power) cruise is ____ gallons per hour.

A

48 gallons; 11 GPH

28
Q

What grade(s) of fuel can be safely used in your aircraft? What are the colors of the
recommended fuels? What happens to the color of the fuel if two grades are mixed?

A

100LL AVGAS Blue, if two fuel grades are mixed it’s colorless

29
Q

The maximum oil capacity of your aircraft is ____ quarts, and the minimum oil capacity
to begin a flight is ____ quarts.

A

8 qts; POH minimum is 2 qts, ATP minimum is 6.5 qts

30
Q

The maximum crosswind component specified by your instructor for solo takeoffs and landings in the training aircraft is ____ knots.

A

7 knots and 10 knot headwind

31
Q

(Carbureted aircraft only) When do you use carburetor heat during normal operations?

A

During run up checklist to verify operational, during descent as required and if ice is present in the carburetor

32
Q

(Carbureted aircraft only) Describe the indications of carburetor icing and the
appropriate pilot action if carburetor ice is suspected.

A

Rough running engine, decrease in rpm’s - turn on carb heat and adjust mixture for smoothness

33
Q

What is the takeoff and landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for your aircraft at
your airport? Assume maximum certificated takeoff weight, 80° F, winds calm, and an altimeter setting of 29.52 in. Hg.

A

Takeoff roll with flaps 25: 1,900ft
Landing distance with flaps 40: 1,460ft

34
Q

What are the traffic patterns for each runway at your airport? What is the MSL altitude for the traffic pattern?

A

RWY 15 and 33 Left Pattern unless otherwise indicated by ATC.
TPA is 1,022ft MSL to be specific but 1,000ft MSL

35
Q

How do you enter and exit the traffic pattern at your airport? What, if any, radio
communications are required?

A

Enter TP:
- Establish two-way radio communications before entering class D airspace: Make an inbound call about 15 NM from the field,
“Martin Tower, Career Track ______ , 15 miles from the South East, inbound for full stop landing. With information ____.”
[Read back your action items] + your tail number.

May be told to extend, or remain out of pattern for spacing,
Enter the TP (typically midfield, but listen to the controller) at a 45-degree angle, trimmed for 90 Kts at 1000’ MSL, begin before landing checklist at or around midfield.

Exiting TP:
- Must advise Tower of departure from TP:
“Martin Tower, Career Track _____ , holding short runway ___, Ready for Eastbound departure.

Or
if on a leg (e.g., downwind, can request departure from traffic pattern to the _____”

91.129

36
Q

What radio calls are recommended in the traffic pattern at an uncontrolled airport?
What radio calls are required at your airport?

A

Uncontrolled:
Tune/ Monitor radio before the approach distance is reached
Address and advise traffic in the area of your inbound approach,
upon entering TP,
Report position to traffic on each leg: upwind, crosswind, downwind, base, and final.

MTN (controlled):
Calls are required on downwind at midfield

37
Q

What is the standard direction of turns in the traffic pattern? Give an example of a
visual display indicating a nonstandard traffic pattern.

A

Left is standard, by the wind sock they will have traffic pattern indicators

38
Q

What is CTAF? Explain CTAF procedures at your training airport(s).

A

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency - operational at MTN (121.3) when tower is closed. It’s a frequency for pilots to use to listen and state their intentions for other pilots to tune into.

39
Q

How can you determine if a runway is closed?

A

AIM 2-3-6(e)
Preflight: NOTAMS
Inflight: ATIS
Yellow X’s marked on runway threshold

40
Q

What are the typical dimensions of Class D airspace and what requirement(s) must be
met prior to entry?

A

4nm Radius
Typical height is surface to 2500 AGL
at MTN the ceiling is to 2500 as depicted on the sectional chart

You must have 2-way radio communication and maintain comms with the tower to enter/operate in class D airspace.

AIM 3-2-5
FAR 91.225

41
Q

What is the class of airspace at the airport where you will be conducting your first solo?

A

Class D

42
Q

If you receive ATC instructions that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you
to violate an FAR, what should you do?

A

Notify “Unable”, communicate with ATC and prioritize my safety and other’s safety as well.

43
Q

What is the meaning of each of the following ATC light signals?
a. Steady green in flight
b. Flashing green in flight
c. Steady red in flight
d. Flashing red in flight
e. Steady green on the ground
f. Flashing red on the ground

A
44
Q

In addition to equipment requirements and a student pilot certificate, what other
requirement(s) must be met before a student pilot is authorized to fly solo within Class B airspace?

A

Ground and Flight training in Class B airspace
Endorsed by instructor for that specific airport (No older than 90 days prior to when the flight will be taking place)
Visibility minimum is 3 SM, stay clear of clouds; VFR minimums

45
Q

Explain the general transponder equipment and use requirement(s) when operating within or near Class B airspace.

A

Aircraft must be equipped with a transponder capable of Mode C, which allows for altitude reporting to air traffic control (ATC). This helps ATC maintain separation between aircraft and provides accurate altitude information.

Transponder with Mode C capability is required.
ADS-B Out is required within and above Class B airspace.
Pilots must use the transponder continuously, set to the appropriate code assigned by ATC.
Within 30 nautical miles of the primary airport in Class B airspace, transponder with Mode C capability is required.

46
Q

Describe Class B airspace boundaries and how they apply to an airport within that
airspace. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the Class B boundaries. (Draw a diagram, if necessary.)

A

Class B airspace is like an upside down cake from the surface up to 10,000 MSL in the core. Other shelf area starts with the designated altitude up to 10,000 MSL.
Use VOR, GPS, ground reference points, and altitudes to identify class B boundaries.

47
Q

You have called ATC just prior to entering Class B airspace, and the controller tells you to “Squawk 2466 and ident.” Are you now allowed to enter Class B airspace without any further instructions? Explain.

A

Negative, I must hear back from there my tail number and “cleared into the Bravo”

48
Q

On a sectional chart, what does a dashed magenta line around an airport indicate?

A

Class E airspace starting at the surface

49
Q

Explain the minimum visibility and ceiling requirements for VFR flight in Class D
airspace.

A

3 SM
1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal separation from clouds

50
Q

Can a student or recreational pilot request a special VFR clearance in Class D airspace
when visibility is less than three miles? Explain your answer.

A

A recreational pilot or a student pilot can’t request a SVFR if visibility is less than 3SM during day and ground reference cannot be maintained.

51
Q

You have called ATC prior to entering Class C airspace, and the controller responds with your call sign and tells you to “Standby.” Are you now allowed to enter this airspace
without any further instructions? Explain.

A

Yes. You making the call the ATC with your trail number, and ATC responding with your tail number, establishes 2 way radio communication. You are cleared to enter.

52
Q

Describe the typical dimensions of Class C airspace. Is participation in the radar service mandatory within the outer area of Class C airspace?

A

Height: From the surface to 4,000 feet. Outer circle 1,200-4,000 feet.
Radius: First ring 5NM, second shelf 10NM. No, it is not mandatory to participate but recommended.

53
Q

Describe the Class C boundaries that affect your airport or a nearby airport. Explain
how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the Class C airspace inner core surface area and shelf area, as well as the outer area. (Draw a diagram, if necessary.)

A

Use VOR, GPS, ground reference points, and altitude to identify class C boundaries.

54
Q

How are wingtip vortices created?

A

Wingtip vortices are created when higher pressure air from the lower surface of the wings flows around the wingtips to the lower pressure region above the wing.The strength of the vortices is directly related to the weight, wingspan and speed of the aircraft. Vortices are greatest when the aircraft is heavy, clean and slow.

55
Q

What are the four phases of a spin?

A

Entry
Incipient
Developed
Recovery

56
Q

What is a spin?

A

Spin is an aggravated stall that typically occurs from a full stall occurring with the airplane in a yawed state and results in the airplane following a downward corkscrew path.

57
Q

How do you recover from a stall in a Piper Archer?

A

Rudder full opposite to the direction of rotation
Elevator full forward
Ailerons neutral
Power Idle
Neutralize the rudder when the rotation stops
Smoothly apply back pressure to recover from the dive