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2019-2023 General Class Pool > General questions > Flashcards

General questions Flashcards

1
Q

G1A01

On which HF/MF bands is a General class License holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

A

160 meters, 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters.

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2
Q

G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

A

30 meters

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3
Q

G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

A

30 meters

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4
Q

G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

A

60 meters

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5
Q

G1A05

Which of the following frequencies is in the General class portion of the 40-meter band in ITU region 2?

A

7.250 Mhz

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6
Q

G1A06

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

A

3900 khz

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7
Q

G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

A

14305 kHz

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8
Q

G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 80-meter band?

A

3560 kHz

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9
Q

G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

A

21300 kHz

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10
Q

G1A10

Which of the following frequencies is available to control operator holding General class license?

A

All these choices are correct: 28.020 MHz , 28.350 MHz, 28.550 MHz

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11
Q

G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire portion of a band, which portion of the vice segment is generally available to them?

A

The upper frequency end.

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12
Q

G1A12

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

A

Amateur stations can use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

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13
Q

G1A13

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

A

Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting

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14
Q

G1A14

Which of the following may apply in the areas under FCC jurisdiction outside of ITU Region 2?

A

Frequency allocation may differ

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15
Q

G1A15

What portion of the 10 meter band is available for repeater use?

A

The portion above 29.5 Mhz

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16
Q

G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not or near a public use airport?

A

200 feet

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17
Q

G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

A

There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location

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18
Q

G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

A

Observation of propagation and reception

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19
Q

G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted?

A

Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from U.S. government stations

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20
Q

G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

A

Transmission necessary to assist learning the International Morse code

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21
Q

G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate Amateur Radio antenna structures?

A

Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

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22
Q

G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Services?

A

They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

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23
Q

G1B08

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

A

All these choices are correct:

Ensure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges.

Following generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community

Monitor the frequency before transmitting

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24
Q

G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

A

28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

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25
Q

G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

A

100 watts PEP output

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26
Q

G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

A

The FCC

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27
Q

G1B12
When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

A

When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU That they object to such communications

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28
Q

G1C01

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station my use on 10.140 MHz?

A

200 watts PEP output

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29
Q

G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station my use on the 12-meter band?

A

1500 watts PEP output

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30
Q

G1C03
What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

A

2.8 kHz

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31
Q

G1C04

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

A

Only the Minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

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32
Q

G1C05

What id the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

A

1500 watts PEP output

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33
Q

G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

A

1500 watts PEP output

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34
Q

G1C07

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

A

300 baud

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35
Q

G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

A

300 baud

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36
Q

G1C09

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70- centimeter bands?

A

56 kilobaud

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37
Q

G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 10-meter band?

A

1200 baud

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38
Q

G1C11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

A

19.6 kilobaud

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39
Q

G1C12

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

A

If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

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40
Q

G1C13

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

A

Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

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41
Q

G1C14

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

A

ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

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42
Q

G1C15

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power output?

A

PEP

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43
Q

G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired Amateur Radio License?

A

Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

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44
Q

G1D02

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General class operator license?

A

Technician only

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45
Q

G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for general class privileges?

A

On any General or technician class band segment

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46
Q

G1D04

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician class license examination?

A

At least Three General class or higher VEs must observe the examination

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47
Q

G1D05

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE fior a Technician class license examination?

A

An FCC General class or higher license and VEC accreditation.

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48
Q

G1D06

When must you add the special identifier “AG” after your call sign if you are a technician class licensee and have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website.

A

Whenever you operate using General class frequency privileges

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49
Q

G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

A

A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

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50
Q

G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

A

The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above

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51
Q

G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

A

365 days

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52
Q

G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

A

18 years

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53
Q

G1D11

What is required to obtain a new General Class license after a previously-held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

A

The applicant must pass the current Element 2 exam

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54
Q

G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

A

The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

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55
Q

G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

A

Only if the 10-meter repeater control holds at least a General class license

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56
Q

G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

A

All these choices are correct

When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring station

When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

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57
Q

G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

A

All these choices are correct

When operating within one miles of an FCC Monitoring station

When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

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58
Q

G1E05

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by amateur station?

A

Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief.

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59
Q

G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

A

Region 2

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60
Q

G1E07

In what part of the 13-centimeter band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

A

No part

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61
Q

G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

A

10 watts

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62
Q

G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes communications?

A

Under no circumstances

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63
Q

G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

A

A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

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64
Q

G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations

A

Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

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65
Q

G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communication on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

A

Upper sideband

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66
Q

G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 16–meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

A

Lower sideband

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67
Q

G2A03

Which of the following is the most commonly used for SSB voice communication in the VHF and UHF bands?

A

Upper sideband

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68
Q

G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12- meter band?

A

Upper sideband

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69
Q

G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

A

Single sideband

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70
Q

G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on HF amateur bands?

A

Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

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71
Q

G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

A

Only one sideband is transmitted: the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

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72
Q

G2A08

What is the recommended way to break in to a phone contact?

A

Say your call sign once

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73
Q

G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

A

It is good amateur practice

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74
Q

G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

A

It allows “hands free” operation

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75
Q

G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states who calls “CQ DX”?

A

Any stations outside the lower 48 states

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76
Q

G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

A

Transmit audio or microphone gain

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77
Q

G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

A

Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

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78
Q

G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

A

Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

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79
Q

G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact and you notice interference from other stations on the frequency?

A

Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

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80
Q

G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

A

150 to 500 Hz

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81
Q

G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

A

Approximately 3 kHz

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82
Q

G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

A

Send “QRL? on CW followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your callsign

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83
Q

G2B07

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

A

Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use

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84
Q

G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for U.S. stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 to 50.123 MHz band segment?

A

Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

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85
Q

G2B09

Who may be the operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to asset relief operations during a disaster?

A

Only a person holding an FCC-issue amateur operator license

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86
Q

G2B10

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

A

At any time during an actual emergency

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87
Q

G2B11

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A

Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

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88
Q

G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (OSK)?

A

Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

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89
Q

G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

A

Send slower

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90
Q

G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

A

Listening only for a specific station or stations

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91
Q

G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

A

The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but not faster than the CQ

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92
Q

G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

A

Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

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93
Q

G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

A

Chirpy or unstable signal

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94
Q

G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

A

AR

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95
Q

G2C09

What does the Q signal “OSL” mean?

A

I acknowledge receipt

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96
Q

G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

A

I am troubled by static

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97
Q

G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

A

I am ready to receive messages

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98
Q

G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

A

Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

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99
Q

G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the volunteer Monitoring Program?

A

To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

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100
Q

G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

A

Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC rules

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101
Q

G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

A

A map that shows accurate land masses

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102
Q

G2D05

Which of the following is a good way to indicate on a clear frequency in the HF phone bands that you are looking for contact with any station?

A

Repeat “CQ’ a few times, following by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, pause to listen, repeat as necessary

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103
Q

G2D06

How is a directional antenna point when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

A

180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

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104
Q

G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

A

Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

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105
Q

G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep station logs?

A

To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

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106
Q

G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

A

Identify your station per normal FCC regulations

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107
Q

G2D10

What is QRP operation?

A

Low-power transit operation

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108
Q

G2D11

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

A

High levels of atmospheric noise or “static”

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109
Q

G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with SSB transmitter?

A

LSB

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110
Q

G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

A

Put the modem or controller in mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection

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111
Q

G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

A

All these choices are correct:

Frequent retires or timeouts

Long pauses in message transmission

Failure to establish a connections between stations

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112
Q

G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions (avoiding the DX propagation beacons)?

A

14.070 - 14.112 MHz

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113
Q

G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65, JT9, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

A

USB

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114
Q

G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A

170 Hz

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115
Q

G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

A

3570-3600 kHz

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116
Q

G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

A

Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

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117
Q

G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR Protocol?

A

Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

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118
Q

G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

A

Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

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119
Q

G2E11

Which of the follow is characteristic of the FT8 mode of the WSJT-X family?

A

Typical exchanges are limited to call sign, grid locators, and signal reports

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120
Q

G2E12

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

A

DE-9

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121
Q

G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the internet to transfer messages?

A

Winlink

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122
Q

G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an TTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

A

All these choices are correct:

The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

You may have selected the wrong baud rate

You may be listening on the wrong sideband

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123
Q

G2E15

Which of the following is a requirement when using the FT8 digital mode?

A

Computer time accurate within approximately 1 second

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124
Q

G3A01

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF Propagation?

A

Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good Propagation at highter frequencies

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125
Q

G3A02

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

A

It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those

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126
Q

G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on Earth?

A

8 minutes

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127
Q

G3A04

Which of the following are least reliable for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

A

15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

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128
Q

G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

A

A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength

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129
Q

G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

A

A temporary disturbance in Earth’s magnetosphere

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130
Q

G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A

At any point in the solar cycle

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131
Q

G3A08

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

A

Degraded high-latitude HF propagation

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132
Q

G3A09

What benefit can high geomagnetic activity have on radio communications?

A

Auroras that can reflect VHF signals

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133
Q

G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a roughly 28-day cycle?

A

The sun’s rotation on its axis

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134
Q

G3A11

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on Earth?

A

20 to 40 hours

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135
Q

G3A12

What does the K-index indicate?

A

The short-term stability of Earth’s magnetic field

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136
Q

G3A13

What does the A-index indicate?

A

The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

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137
Q

G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

A

HF communications are disturbed

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138
Q

G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

A

A slightly delayed echo might be heard

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139
Q

G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

A

All these choices are correct:

Path distance and location

Time of day and season

Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

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140
Q

G3B03

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

A

Select a frequency just below the MUF

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141
Q

G3B04

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

A

Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use

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142
Q

G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

A

They are bent back to Earth

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143
Q

G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

A

They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

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144
Q

G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

A

The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

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145
Q

G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

A

The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

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146
Q

G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

A

2,500 miles

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147
Q

G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

A

1,200 miles

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148
Q

G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

A

No HF radio frequency will support ordinary skywave communications over the path

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149
Q

G3C01

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of Earth?

A

The D layer

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150
Q

G3C02

Where on Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

A

Where the sun is overhead

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151
Q

G3C03

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

A

Because it is the highest ionospheric region

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152
Q

G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as used in radio wave propagation?

A

The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

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153
Q

G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

A

The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

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154
Q

G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

A

Signals have a fluttering sound

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155
Q

G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

A

Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths

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156
Q

G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

A

Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

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157
Q

G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

A

Scatter

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158
Q

G3C10

What is Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) propagation?

A

Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles

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159
Q

G3C11

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

A

The D layer

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160
Q

G4A01

What is the purpose of the “notch filter” found on many HF transceivers?

A

To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

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161
Q

G4A02

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite, or “reverse,” sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

A

It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

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162
Q

G4A03

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in “split” mode?

A

The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

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163
Q

G4A04

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

A

A pronounced dip

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164
Q

G4A05

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

A

To reduce distortion due to excessive drive

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165
Q

G4A06

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

A

Antenna coupler or antenna tuner

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166
Q

G4A07

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

A

Excessive drive power

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167
Q

G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

A

Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

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168
Q

G4A09

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

A

To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed

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169
Q

G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

A

Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation

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170
Q

G4A11

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

A

To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency

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171
Q

G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

A

To permit monitoring of two different frequencies

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172
Q

G4A13

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

A

To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals

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173
Q

G4A14

What is likely to happen if a transceiver’s ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

A

Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions

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174
Q

G4A15

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

A

All these choices are correct:

The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter

The transmitter signal is distorted

Frequent connection timeouts

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175
Q

G4A16

How does a noise blanker work?

A

By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

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176
Q

G4A17

What happens as the noise reduction control level in a receiver is increased?

A

Received signals may become distorted

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177
Q

G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A

An oscilloscope

178
Q

G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

A

Complex waveforms can be measured

179
Q

G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A

An oscilloscope

180
Q

G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

A

The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

181
Q

G4B05

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

A

It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

182
Q

G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

A

Better precision for most uses

183
Q

G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

A

Two non-harmonically related audio signals

184
Q

G4B08

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

A

A field strength meter

185
Q

G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

A

The radiation pattern of an antenna

186
Q

G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

A

Standing wave ratio

187
Q

G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

A

Antenna and feed line

188
Q

G4B12

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

A

Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

189
Q

G4B13

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

A

Determining the impedance of coaxial cable

190
Q

G4B14

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with digital readout?

A

When adjusting tuned circuits

191
Q

G4B15

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

A

Linearity

192
Q

G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

A

Bypass capacitor

193
Q

G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

A

Arcing at a poor electrical connection

194
Q

G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

A

Distorted speech

195
Q

G4C04

What is the effect on an audio device when there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

A

On-and-off humming or clicking

196
Q

G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an
HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

A

The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

197
Q

G4C06

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

A

High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

198
Q

G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground
rods?

A

A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

199
Q

G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

A

Placing a ferrite choke around the cable

200
Q

G4C09

How can a ground loop be avoided?

A

Connect all ground conductors to a single point

201
Q

G4C10

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

A

You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

202
Q

G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

A

Bonding all equipment enclosures together

203
Q

G4C12

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

A

A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

204
Q

G4C13

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

A

It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

205
Q

G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

A

Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions

206
Q

G4D02

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

A

It increases average power

207
Q

G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

A

All these choices are correct:

Distorted speech

Splatter

Excessive background pickup

208
Q

G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

A

Received signal strength

209
Q

G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly
calibrated S meter?

A

It is 100 times more powerful

210
Q

G4D06

Where is an S meter found?

A

In a receiver

211
Q

G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver
from S8 to S9?

A

Approximately 4 times

212
Q

G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178
MHz?

A

7.175 to 7.178 MHz

213
Q

G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347
MHz?

A

14.347 to 14.350 MHz

214
Q

G4D10

How close to the lower edge of the phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3
kHz wide LSB?

A

At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

215
Q

G4D11

How close to the upper edge of the phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3
kHz wide USB?

A

At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

216
Q

G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

A

To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

217
Q

G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

A

To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

218
Q

G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile
installation?

A

To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

219
Q

G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle’s auxiliary power
socket?

A

The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

220
Q

G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

A

Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

221
Q

G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

A

Operating bandwidth may be very limited

222
Q

G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference in a radio installed in a vehicle?

A

All these choices are correct:

The battery charging system

The fuel delivery system

The vehicle control computer

223
Q

G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

A

Photovoltaic conversion

224
Q

G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

A

0.5 VDC

225
Q

G4E10

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being
charged by the panel?

A

The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination

226
Q

G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency
station?

A

A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing

227
Q

G5A01

What is impedance?

A

The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit

228
Q

G5A02

What is reactance?

A

Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

229
Q

G5A03

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

A

Reactance

230
Q

G5A04

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

A

Reactance

231
Q

G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

A

As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

232
Q

G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

A

As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

233
Q

G5A07

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source,
assuming both impedances are resistive?

A

The source can deliver maximum power to the load

234
Q

G5A08

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

A

To maximize the transfer of power

235
Q

G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

A

Ohm

236
Q

G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A

All these choices are correct:

A transformer

A Pi-network

A length of transmission line

237
Q

G5A11

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

A

Insert an LC network between the two circuits

238
Q

G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

A

Approximately 3 dB

239
Q

G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

A

It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

240
Q

G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

A

200 watts

241
Q

G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

A

2.4 watts

242
Q

G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1250 ohm resistance?

A

. Approximately 61 milliwatts

243
Q

G5B06

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm
dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

A

100 watts

244
Q

G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same
value?

A

The RMS value

245
Q

G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120.0 volts?

A

339.4 volts

246
Q

G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

A

12 volts

247
Q

G5B10

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

A

20.6 percent

248
Q

G5B11 (B)

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

A

1.00

249
Q

G5B12

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

A

245 volts

250
Q

G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter
output indicates 1060 watts?

A

1060 watts

251
Q

G5B14

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm
resistive load connected to the transmitter output?

A

625 watts

252
Q

G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is
connected across its primary winding?

A

Mutual inductance

253
Q

G5C02

What happens if a signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of
the primary winding?

A

The output voltage is multiplied by 4

254
Q

G5C03

Which of the following components increases the total resistance of a resistor?

A

A series resistor

255
Q

G5C04

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

A

33.3 ohms

256
Q

G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

A

150 ohms

257
Q

G5C06

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is
connected to 120 VAC?

A

26.7 volts

258
Q

G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a
speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

A

12.2 to 1

259
Q

G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected
in parallel?

A

10.750 nanofarads

260
Q

G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

A

33.3 microfarads

261
Q

G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

A

3.3 millihenries

262
Q

G5C11

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

A

70 millihenries

263
Q

G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

A

14.3 microfarads

264
Q

G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

A

A capacitor in parallel

265
Q

G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

A

An inductor in series

266
Q

G5C15

What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?

A

5.9 ohms

267
Q

G5C16

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step-up transformers larger in diameter than the
conductor of the secondary winding?

A

To accommodate the higher current of the primary

268
Q

G5C17

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 picofarad (pF) capacitor?

A

22

269
Q

G5C18

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

A

4.7

270
Q

G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead-acid battery?

A

10.5 volts

271
Q

G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

A

High discharge current

272
Q

G6A03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

A

0.3 volts

273
Q

G6A04

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

A

High capacitance for a given volume

274
Q

G6A05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

A

0.7 volts

275
Q

G6A06

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

A

The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

276
Q

G6A07

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

A

Its saturation and cutoff regions

277
Q

G6A08

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

A

All these choices are correct:

Large values of inductance may be obtained

The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

278
Q

G6A09

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

A

The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer

279
Q

G6A10

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

A

Control grid

280
Q

G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

A

It becomes capacitive

281
Q

G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

A

To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

282
Q

G6A13

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

A

All these choices are correct:

Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit

Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor

The capacitor could overheat and explode

283
Q

G6A14

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

A

Comparatively low cost

284
Q

G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

A

The composition, or “mix,” of materials used

285
Q

G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

A

Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

286
Q

G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

A

Low power consumption

287
Q

G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

A

Read Only Memory

288
Q

G6B05

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

A

The stored information is maintained even if power is removed

289
Q

G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A

Analog

290
Q

G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

A

A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

291
Q

G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

A

Forward biased

292
Q

G6B09

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

A

It utilizes ambient or back lighting

293
Q

G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

A

By creating an impedance in the current’s path

294
Q

G6B11

What is a type SMA connector?

A

A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

295
Q

G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

A

RCA Phono

296
Q

G6B13

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

A

PL-259

297
Q

G7A01

What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide?

A

It ensures that the filter capacitors are discharged when power is removed

298
Q

G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

A

Capacitors and inductors

299
Q

G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

A

Full-wave

300
Q

G7A04

What is an advantage of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

A

Only one diode is required

301
Q

G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

A

180 degrees

302
Q

G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

A

360 degrees

303
Q

G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

A

A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

304
Q

G7A08

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

A

High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

305
Q

G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

A

Symbol 1

306
Q

G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

A

Symbol 5

307
Q

G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

A

. Symbol 2

308
Q

G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

A

Symbol 7

309
Q

G7B01

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

A

To eliminate self-oscillations

310
Q

G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

A

Class C

311
Q

G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

A

Output is high only when both inputs are high

312
Q

G7B04

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

A

Output is low when either or both inputs are high

313
Q

G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

A

8

314
Q

G7B06

What is a shift register?

A

A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

315
Q

G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

A

A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

316
Q

G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

A

Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

317
Q

G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

A

The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

318
Q

G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

A

An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

319
Q

G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

A

FM

320
Q

G7C01

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in
some single sideband phone transmitters?

A

Filter

321
Q

G7C02

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to
the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

A

Balanced modulator

322
Q

G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF
filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

A

Mixer

323
Q

G7C04

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier
in some single sideband receivers?

A

Product detector

324
Q

G7C05

Which of the following is an advantage of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

A

Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

325
Q

G7C06

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into
which it is inserted?

A

About the same

326
Q

G7C07

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

A

HF oscillator, mixer, detector

327
Q

G7C08

What circuit is used in analog FM receivers to convert IF output signals to audio?

A

Mixer

328
Q

G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for
modulation and demodulation?

A

90 degrees

329
Q

G7C10

What is an advantage of using I and Q signals in software-defined radios (SDRs)?

A

All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

330
Q

G7C11

What is meant by the term “software-defined radio” (SDR)?

A

A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software

331
Q

G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

A

Cutoff frequency

332
Q

G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

A

Ultimate rejection

333
Q

G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

A

Upper and lower half-power

334
Q

G7C15

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

A

Insertion loss

335
Q

G7C16

Which of the following is a typical application for a Direct Digital Synthesizer?

A

A high-stability variable frequency oscillator in a transceiver

336
Q

G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency
(IF)?

A

Local oscillator

337
Q

G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate
frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

A

Image response

338
Q

G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

A

Heterodyning

339
Q

G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the
desired operating frequency?

A

Multiplier

340
Q

G8B05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR-III signal at maximum data rate?

A

2300 Hz

341
Q

G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating
frequency?

A

16 kHz

342
Q

G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52
MHz FM phone transmitter?

A

416.7 Hz

343
Q

G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

A

Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

344
Q

G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

A

It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

345
Q

G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

A

Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

346
Q

G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

A

The sum and difference

347
Q

G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit or connection to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

A

Intermodulation

348
Q

G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

A

2.4 GHz

349
Q

G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

A

WSPR

350
Q

G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

A

Header

351
Q

G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

A

A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

352
Q

G8C05

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

A

The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted

353
Q

G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using
PACTOR or WINMOR?

A

The connection is dropped

354
Q

G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

A

It requests the packet be retransmitted

355
Q

G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

A

Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

356
Q

G8C09

What does the number 31 represent in “PSK31”?

A

The approximate transmitted symbol rate

357
Q

G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

A

By transmitting redundant information with the data

358
Q

G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

A

Mark and space

359
Q

G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

A

Varicode

360
Q

G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a digital signal?

A

Overmodulation

361
Q

G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

A

Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

362
Q

G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed
line?

A

The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

363
Q

G9A02

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

A

50 and 75 ohms

364
Q

G9A03

What is the typical characteristic impedance of “window line” parallel transmission line?

A

450 ohms

365
Q

G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

A

A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance

366
Q

G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

A

Attenuation increases

367
Q

G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

A

Decibels per 100 feet

368
Q

G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

A

The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

369
Q

G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is
adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

A

5 to 1

370
Q

G9A09

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm
impedance?

A

4:1

371
Q

G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm
impedance?

A

5:1

372
Q

G9A11

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm
impedance?

A

1:1

373
Q

G9A12

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

A

If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss

374
Q

G9A13

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

A

The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low

375
Q

G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

A

You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station

376
Q

G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed-point impedance of a quarter wave ground-plane
vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

A

Slope the radials downward

377
Q

G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave, ground-plane vertical antenna?

A

Omnidirectional in azimuth

378
Q

G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

A

It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

379
Q

G9B05

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

A

If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

380
Q

G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

A

On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground

381
Q

G9B07

How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4
wave above ground?

A

It steadily decreases

382
Q

G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center
toward the ends?

A

It steadily increases

383
Q

G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF
antenna?

A

Lower ground reflection losses

384
Q

G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

A

33 fee

385
Q

G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

A

132 feet

386
Q

G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

A

8 feet

387
Q

G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

A

Larger-diameter elements

388
Q

G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

A

1/2 wavelength

389
Q

G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

A

The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

390
Q

G9C04

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

A

dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures

391
Q

G9C05

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

A

Gain increases

392
Q

G9C06

What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a
beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?

A

The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element

393
Q

G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

A

The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

394
Q

G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

A

The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

395
Q

G9C09

How does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength
apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

A

Approximately 3 dB higher

396
Q

G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a
Yagi antenna?

A

All these choices are correct:

The physical length of the boom

The number of elements on the boom

The spacing of each element along the boom

397
Q

G9C11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

A

A directional antenna

398
Q

G9C12

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

A

It does not require that the driven element be insulated from the boom

399
Q

G9C13

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

A

1/4 wavelength

400
Q

G9C14

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi
antenna?

A

About the same

401
Q

G9C15

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

A

dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna

402
Q

G9C16

What is a beta or hairpin match?

A

It is a shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance
matching

403
Q

G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS)
antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

A

A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

404
Q

G9D02

What is the feed-point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

A

Very high

405
Q

G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a portable VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

A

Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo

406
Q

G9D04

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

A

To permit multiband operation

407
Q

G9D05

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

A

It narrows the main lobe in elevation

408
Q

G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

A

Wide bandwidth

409
Q

G9D07 (A)

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

A

Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom

410
Q

G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed-point impedance?

A

By varying the base loading inductance

411
Q

G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

A

Directional receiving for low HF bands

412
Q

G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/3 wavelength in circumference) have
nulls in its radiation pattern?

A

Broadside to the loop

413
Q

G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

A

They have poor harmonic rejection

414
Q

G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

A

Inverted V

415
Q

G9D13

What is the combined vertical and horizontal polarization pattern of a multi-wavelength, horizontal loop
antenna?

A

Virtually omnidirectional with a lower peak vertical radiation angle than a dipole

416
Q

G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

A

It heats body tissue

417
Q

G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum
permissible exposure (MPE)?
A

All these choices are correct:

Its duty cycle

Its frequency

Its power density

418
Q

G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

A

All these choices are correct:

By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

By calculation based on computer modeling

By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

419
Q

G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

A

The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

420
Q

G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds
permissible limits?

A

Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

421
Q

G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

A

It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

422
Q

G0A07

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

A

A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

423
Q

G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations
when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

A

Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation

424
Q

G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

A

A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

425
Q

G0A10

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable
limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

A

Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction

426
Q

G0A11

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

A

Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

427
Q

G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device
operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

A

Only the two wires carrying voltage

428
Q

G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring
with a 20 ampere circuit breaker?

A

AWG number 12

429
Q

G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14
wiring?

A

15 amperes

430
Q

G0B04

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

A

Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning

431
Q

G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or
240 Volt AC line power to a device?

A

Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground

432
Q

G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

A

Electrical safety inside the ham shack

433
Q

G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

A

Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

434
Q

G0B08

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

A

Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

435
Q

G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

A

The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area

436
Q

G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

A

Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

437
Q

G0B11

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

A

They must be bonded together with all other grounds

438
Q

G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

A

To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

439
Q

G0B13

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

A

Disconnect the incoming utility power feed

440
Q

G0B14

What precaution should you take whenever you adjust or repair an antenna?

A

Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

2019-2023 General Class Pool (1 decks)

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