General Protocols Flashcards

1
Q

HIV destroys what type of cells

A

CD4+ T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

After an Infectious disease exposure the worker should be transported to an ER within how long

A

2 hours after the exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

% of exposure through broken skin or abraded skin

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In the rehab area what is considered an abnormal body temp

A

ORAL temp > 100.6F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mandatory rehab will occur after the following

A
  1. 30 min STRENUOUS activity or 2 SCBA bottles
  2. SCBA failure
  3. ANY medical complaint
  4. At the discretion of the IC, ISO, CISM coordinator, Company officer , or FF himself
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What percentage of Hep C infections account for sexual transmission and mothers passing the virus to their babies

A

both account for about 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Patients being air lifted on a backboard must have how many straps securing them to the board

A

minimum 3 straps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Minimum equipment for marshalling duties

A
  1. Helmet with strap secure
  2. Goggles or visor down
  3. FULL bunker gear with COLLAR UP
  4. Flashlights with wands for night ops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the minimum amount of water recommended per hour

A

1 quart per hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the seroconversion percentage for a needlestick Hep B exposure

A

37-62%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When transporting a female behavioral emergency, what must be documented with dispatch via radio communications

A

The beginning and ending mileage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What other disease is covered by the presumptive law , but does not require a baseline screening

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This law allows for the treatment of patients not capable of informed consent

A

The Incapacitated Person Law F.S. 766.103

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which disease carries the greatest risk of transmission from an exposure

A

Hep B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This sheet is a quick reference that includes the sources of the most common occupational exposure.

A

Infectious Exposure Reference Sheet (aka. Disease Matrix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True/False
If a blood sample is available an ER may test the blood without consent as long as the exposed employee has the same test done to him

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PEP worker should be monitored for drug toxicity for how long

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Does a voluntary Baker Act require a police escort

A

Yes.. even voluntary Baker Acts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Florida Statute 401

A

The emergency examination and treatment of incapacitated persons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

After breathing ambient air for 5 min. if CO readings are still > 8% . what is the next course of action

A

Provide O2 via mask until levels drop below 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How long do Hep B symptoms take to appear

A

60-90 days of (2-3 months)infection, but it can sometimes take as long as 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Degree of leg elevation when lying supine for RACE test

A

30 degrees for 10 seconds. Although 5 seconds is used to score mild/moderate/severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

After completion of the HIV PEP, how long after should one use condoms

A

at least 30 days after completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the percentage of workers showing clinical Hep B signs after needlestick exposure

A

22-31%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A medical rehab area will be set up at the discretion of who

A

The IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The mnemonic used to initiate the START triage

A

RPM
Respirations
Perfusion
Mental Status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Automatic transport to a comprehensive stroke center if actively pregnant or completed within

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

No worker should leave the rehab area if CO levels are not < ?

A

CO < 8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the minimum rest time for personnel in rehab

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Comprehensive stroke facility if HX of GI/GU bleed within

A

The last 21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In the rehab area what % is considered Moderate CO inhalation

A

> 12% CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treatment for heat stress in the rehab area should be initiated if the members oral temp exceeds

A

100.6 F

The member should not be allowed to don PPE. Monitor for signs of heat exhaustion and heat stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

An RPR test after exposure is testing for what disease

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does Tdap stand for

A

Tetanus Toxiod
Diphtheria toxiod
Acellular Pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A medical condition that can cause a behavioral emergency which must be considered.

A

Excited Agitated Delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the recommended water intake while in the rehab area for 15 min?

A

1-2 quarts of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hep C transmission rate % for percutaneous exposure

A

1.8% with large newer studies showing only 0.5% transmission rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How long is a Pt to hold their arm up at 90 degrees if seated and 45 degrees if lying supiine

A

at least 10 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What % of disease exposures were through mucous membrane

A

14%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Post exposure follow up timline for HIV

A

6 weeks
3 months
6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the purpose of CISM

A

Provide education, support , assessment, and intervention for emergency personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When the IC has determined the need for a rehab area who will normally be assigned to manage and coordinate that area

A

Typical the first AVAILABLE “EMS” unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Presumptive law requires baseline screening for which diseases

A

TB

HEP A, B, C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Employers will make available vaccinations to employees who initially decline and then later decide to accept the vaccine within how many days

A

10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What percentage of street drug users are expected to have Hep c

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Emergency and public safety workers are considered what risk

A

At-risk workers for exposures to infectious diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Who has the Primary Marshalling duties

A

The officer in charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How after infection do symptoms appear with Hep C

A

Typically 6-7 weeks after exposure, but can occur 2 WEEKS to 6 MONTHS after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How many people are reported to have Hep C in the US

A

4 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hep B may remain stable and infectious during desiccation for more than how long

A

1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

CO reading > 8% but < 15% calls for …

A

The worker to breath ambient air for at least 5 min.

52
Q

Small group debriefing are done prior to demobilization from extended deployment within what time frame

A

12-72 hours after the critical

53
Q

This form is intended as a “real time” documentation tool.

A

Infectious Disease Report Form

54
Q

Florida Statute 394.463

A

The Baker Act

55
Q

TB screening will be done at what intervals

A

Annually

56
Q

What % of exposures are percutaneous (through the skin)

A

82%

57
Q

PEP drug regimens are prescribed for how long

A

normally a 4 week cycle

58
Q

The Florida Marchman Act is AKA

A

Florida’s substance Abuse Impairment Act

59
Q

If a members HR exceeds ? an oral temp should be taken

A

110 bpm

60
Q

Normal pulse rates expected in the rehab area

A

less than 120 at a working incident.

61
Q

When transporting a Baker Act or Behavioral Emergency who will decide if a police officer will ride in the rescue unit

A

The paramedic in charge.

62
Q

Food will be provided to the rehab area for incidents that extend beyond how long

A

Soups, broth, stews will be made available for incidents 3 hours or longer

63
Q

The source of the exposure may be mandated to submit to a blood testing after court order and sworn statement by the Doctor as this being a significant exposure.

A

TRUE

64
Q

Who will contact the receiving facility when a pt is being transported via air rescue

A

The ground rescue unit

65
Q

The HSLZ must not have any obstacles on approach or departure that are…

A

more 40 feet tall or within 100 feet of the HSLZ

66
Q

In Dec. 2002 the FDA approved a new TB test known as

A

QuantiFERON- TB

67
Q

The Broward Region CISM team is expected to respond within what time frame

A

Within 2 hours after a critical incident occurs and CISM services are requested.

68
Q

What is the leading cause for liver transplantation.

A

Hep C

69
Q

The Rapid HIV test can detect the HIV antibody as soon as how many weeks after exposure

A

2 weeks after. The test takes 30 min- 1hour

70
Q

What is the % risk of contracting HIV after a mucous membrane exposure

A

0.09%

71
Q

An intervention best delivered as soon as possible within the first 12 hours after an incident

A

Small group Defusing

72
Q

Workers who have previously tested negative on a PPD test and now test positive will have what completed

A

a Baseline chest x-ray and one follow up a year later.

73
Q

What are the 3 cortical Signs for automatic transport to comprehensive stroke center.

A
  1. Positive Head gaze/eye gaze
  2. Aphasia= difficulty following command (close your eyes, make a fist) = difficulty talking (name 2 objects, It is sunny today)
  3. Agnosia= inability to recognize Pt own arm
74
Q

Can the Rehab area be used to stage on scene personnel prior to an assignment

A

Yes

75
Q

Perform baseline and follow up testing for anti-HCV how long after exposure

A

4-6 months

76
Q

What are the 3 things needed to perform an Involuntary Baker Act

A
  1. A person is mentally ill and because of the illness cannot has refused voluntary treatment 2. Is incapable of living alone due to possibility of self injury. 3. All less restrictive treatment alternatives are not appropriate.
77
Q

What is the normal value SpCO for non-smoker/smoker

A

non-smoker 5%

and < 8% for a smoker

78
Q

The responsibility of the post exposure medical follow up lies on

A

The exposed worker

79
Q

Heart rate > 120 for more than 15 min will constitute

A

Treatment and transport to the ER

80
Q

The triage tag is constructed of what material

A

Synthetic Paper- making it 100% resistant to all commonly used decontamination solutions

81
Q

The follow up test for TB after the intial baseline at 10 dyas is

A

10-12 WEEKS

82
Q

The Disease Martix Sheet will be combined with what as a back/front copy

A

Employer Information Form

83
Q

Hepatitis vaccine will be made available to new employees within what time frame

A

within 10 days of initial assignment

84
Q

The Flu vaccine will be made available from what dates

A

October - February annually

85
Q

This form will be combined with the Infectious disease exposure report form as a back/front copy

A

Exposure Information Form

86
Q

This is a comprehensive, integrated, multi-component, systematic program of crisis intervention

A

CISM

87
Q

Hep C accounts for how many deaths per year in the US

A

8,000-10,000

88
Q

While SCBA cylinders are being changed , how much water will the member drink

A

Shall drink at least 8oz. of water.

89
Q

What are the 3 MedCom priority levels

A
  1. Critical
  2. Serious
  3. Stable
  4. Admin. Traffic
90
Q

While in the rehab area, transport to the local ER will occur if vital signs remain abnormal for >

A

15 mintues

91
Q

After TB exposure within what time frame must you have a PPD test

A

within 10 days

92
Q

What % is considered a severe CO inhalation

A

> 25% CO

Pt must be treated and transported, preferably to a hyperbaric chamber

93
Q

Considered an abnormal SpO2 reading for the rehab area

A

< 94%

94
Q

CISM was formulated and standardized by whom

A

ICISF… International Critical Incident Stress Foundation.

95
Q

This type of crisis intervention is considered best for large incidents with high media interest.

A

Crisis Management Briefing

96
Q

Human bites exposure %

A

1%

97
Q

Automatic transport to a comprehensive stroke facility if recent trauma, surgery, bleeding within

A

the last 14 days

98
Q

Before what year were organ transplants a risk for contracting Hep c

A

prior to the early 1990’s

99
Q

What are the 3 PEP drugs of choice

A

1 Combivir

  1. Truvada
  2. Kaletra
100
Q

What color is the “Contaminated “ tear off strip on the triage tag.

A

Magenta- MUST be removed if the patient is NOT contaminated

101
Q

Who can request a Florida Marchman Act

A
  1. A spouse
  2. Blood relative
  3. or at least (3) people who have direct knowledge of a persons substance abuse problem
102
Q

At no time should the pulse rate of personnel exceed

A

180 bpm

103
Q

Minimum number of how many guards

A

Minimum 1 tail rotor guard

104
Q

This type of Crisis Intervention is considered best for large groups

A

Crisis Management Briefing

105
Q

Needlestick exposures were associated with what percent of the documented ACQUIRED INFECTIONS

A

89%

106
Q

The Baker Act is also known as

A

The Florida Mental Health Act

107
Q

While in the rehab area, vital signs should return to normal within how long

A

15 minutes

108
Q

Rehab Examinations will occur at what intervals

A

10 min intervals

109
Q

What is the other test for TB other than PPD

A

Quantiferon- TB

110
Q

The agency requesting CISM must provide what info (4 things)

A
  1. Agency name
  2. Type of incident
  3. Number of members involved
  4. Call back contact number or pager.
111
Q

Test for HBV antibody within

A

1-2 months after the last dose of the vaccine

112
Q

Family Crisis intervention and One- on- One intervention are two services which are offered by CISM

A

TRUE

113
Q

Broward Region CISM team members must have completed at least how many of the ICISF core courses

A

Minimum 3 of the core courses

114
Q

What is the most common blood borne infection in the US

A

Hep C

115
Q

Evaluate a worker taking PEP within how long

A

72 hours

116
Q

Discussions held during the CISM intervention is protected by what Florida statute as “confidential and privileged info

A

F. S. 401.30

117
Q

Medical follow up testing for the detection of seroconversion will be done when

A

Week 6
Week 12
Week 26
Testing after 1 year will be optional

118
Q

What are the 4 categories that the the CISM Team leader uses to assemble for a defusing/debriefing

A
  1. Rank
  2. Proximity to the incident
  3. involvement in the incident
  4. As determined by the CISM team leader
119
Q

What are the 3 things one must demonstrate when requesting a Marchman Act on someone

A
  1. The person has lost control over the addiction and is at risk of causing harm to himself or others. 2. That the user lacks rational decision making. 3. must prov that they are unwilling to get help themselves.
120
Q

The overall risk of transmission of HIV after percutaneous exposure to HIV infected material remains at

A

0.3%

121
Q

The Marshaller should stand where in relation to the HSLZ

A

On the outer edge of the HSLZ on the windward side, with the wind to their BACK.

122
Q

What are the 3 risk levels for workers

A
  1. At risk
  2. Low risk
  3. Special Risk
123
Q

For these workers, PEP rather than preexposure vaccination may be considered.

A

Low- risk workers

124
Q

For a Well Person Check, if the vitals are ?? recommend transport to the ER.

A

Pulse >110 bpm
SBP >200
DBP >120
SaO2 <94%

125
Q

A TB exposure test should not be conducted if the worker has had the test done within the last

A

12 weeks OR the worker has a reported history of positive skin reactions.