general principles Flashcards

1
Q

bactericidal antibiotic that causes a potassium ion efflux and rapid membrane depolarization, resulting in inhibition of intracellular synthesis of DNA, RNA, and proteins

A

daptomycin

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2
Q

daptomycin SE

A

rhabdomyolysis

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3
Q

daptomycin and staph pneumo

A

dont use dapto because surfactant inactivates it

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4
Q

cancer anorexia cachexia cytokines

A

IL1 IL6 and TNF alpha

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5
Q

This girl’s fever, sore throat, enlarged tonsils with exudates, palatal petechiae, cervical lymphadenopathy, and lack of cough suggest a diagnosis of bacterial tonsillopharyngitis. The most common cause of acute bacterial tonsillopharyngitis

A

GAS

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6
Q

which virulence factor of GAS protects it from phagocytosis

A

M protein

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7
Q

10 month girl
falccid blisters
+ve nikolsky sign

A

BULLOUS impetigo

staph a exfoliative toxin A

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8
Q

exfolative toxin made by staph

A

bullous impetigo and

Scalded skin syndrome —

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9
Q

why is The rate of replication in the mammalian cells is ∼ 125 times faster than in E. coli.

A

The eukaryotic genome has multiple oris, as opposed to only one fixed ori in prokaryotes, to which specific proteins initiating replication can bind

ORIS ARE ORIGIN OF REPLICATION

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10
Q

cytosine is mutated to uracil

what is the first function of the enzyme that repairs such mutations in DNA base

A

Base alterations in DNA, such as the deamination of cytosine to uracil, are repaired by base excision repair. The initial step involves the enzyme DNA glycosylase.

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11
Q

GEL PLease mnemonic

A

base excision repair
1. glycosylase removes the altered base and creates AP site
2. one or more nucleotide is romved by AP Endo nuclease which cleaves 5’ end
3. Lyase cleaves the 3’ end
DNA Polymerase fills the gap and Ligase seals it

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12
Q

DNA elongation is performed by DNA polymerases. Prokaryotic DNA polymerase I has a unique function

A

excision of nucletides in 5’-3’ direction
it removes PRIMERS
in the leading strand only ONE primer is there so this happens ONCE

however in lagging strand mutliple primers are there—- has to occur multiple times DNA POLYMERASE I can do ths

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13
Q

The formation of pink colonies on MacConkey agar indicates positive lactose fermentation, a characteristic of

A

Citrobacter, Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter, and Serratia species.

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14
Q

which enzyme requires uracil to function

A

primase

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15
Q

it degrades primers (5’→3’ exonuclease activity)

A

DNA PLYMERASE 1

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16
Q

proofreading activity in a 3’→5’ direction (exonuclease activity).

A

DNA POLYMERASE III

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17
Q

lack of difference in the dose corrected area under the curve means?

A

The lack of a difference in the dose-corrected area under the curves for oral and intravenous administration indicates that the drug is virtually entirely absorbed into systemic circulation

100 % bioavailability
isosorbide mononitrate

18
Q

which diuretic has otoxicity

A

ethacrynic acid

EE __ EARS

19
Q

act predominantly in the straight segment of the proximal tubule and the descending limb of the loop of Henle

A

mannitol

osmotic diuretics`

20
Q

formation of hydrogen and disulfide bonds between collagen α-chains

A

formation of procollagen in RER

this is imp for — bone matrix synthesis

21
Q

maintenance dose formula

A

target plasma conc x clearance x dosing intervals / bioavalability

22
Q

antidote for cyanide poisoning that binds to the toxic metabolites directly

A

hydroxycobalmine

23
Q

Recurrent respiratory infections, fat malabsorption, and failure to thrive are concerning for

A

cystic fibrosis

misfolded proteins

24
Q

which amino acid is neutral at body temp but positive otherwise

A

histidine

25
Q

girl has turner synd

buccal mucos scraping shows —- cells with a single dark body attached to the nuclear membrane

A

description of a barr body

in a complete monosomy 45 XO these barr bodies wont be visibile
this is a case of mosciascism — post ziogtic mitotic error

26
Q

what would cause formation of localized edema after an injury

A

endothelial junction separation due to the histamine released from the mast cells

27
Q

itraconazole and ph levels

A

itraconazole reqs an acidic env to be absorbed

28
Q

which drugs have a high pka

A

Drugs with a high pKa (e.g., phenytoin, propylthiouracil, allopurinol, and amphetamines) are better absorbed at a higher gastric pH.

29
Q

The influenza virus strain under investigation has surface neuraminidase without a genome encoding for the protein. It must have therefore acquired the surface protein from one of the other coinfecting influenza viruses.

A

this is called phenotypic mixing

30
Q

what is degeneracy

A

Degeneracy (genetic code) refers to the redundancy of codon base pairing; multiple codons can specify one single amino acid.

31
Q

list of segmented viruses

A

ortho
rota
arena
bunya

32
Q

reassortment

A

antigenic SHIFT

only segmented viruses

33
Q

what solution is best to sterilize potential c diff contamination

A

Chlorine-based solutions (such as bleach) are both bactericidal and sporicidal and can be used to sterilize surfaces and equipment that has been potentially contaminated by Clostridium difficile.

34
Q

drug that decreases angiotensin II and renin

A

b1 antagonist

ACE i will decrease angiotensin II but not renin!!

35
Q

Heart conduction disorders (bradycardia, arrhythmia), testicular atrophy, myotonia, and frontal balding are signs of

A

MTC

36
Q

mechanism of cachexia

A

Muscle wasting in the setting of cancer cachexia is associated with increased release of proinflammatory cytokines from tumor cells (e.g., IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha). These cytokines cause activation of NF-κB, which stimulates the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway.

37
Q

TNF-α-mediated caspase activation leads to

A

cell apoptosis via extrinsic pathway

38
Q

tumor grading

A

include mitotic count, the degree of nuclear pleomorphism, and cellular organization (tubular/glandular structures).

Well-differentiated tumors —– low-grade,
whereas poorly-differentiated (or anaplastic) tumors are classified as high-grade.

39
Q

mechanism involving x inactivation

A

Methylation of cytosine nucleotides is the most common epigenetic modification of human DNA.

40
Q

Foscarnet mechanims

A

pyroPHOsphate binding sites

leads to hypocalcemia and SEIZURES

41
Q

HIV pt
In combination with retinal hemorrhages, blurred vision and flashing lights in an immunocompromised patient should raise suspicion for

A

CMV retinits

42
Q

azithromycin and CP450

A

doesnt cause inhibiton

erytho does