General Presentations Flashcards

1
Q

What are red flag signs or symptoms in lower back pain?

(9)

A

History of cancer
Age > 50 or < 15
Known Osteoporosis or high fracture risk
Fevers > 38/night sweats
Use of IV drugs
urinary retention
urinary incontinence/bowel incontinence/saddle anaesthesia
Lower limb weakness/paralysis
prolonged morning stiffness (Ank spond) + <40yo + 3months of sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Management for mechanical lower back pain.

A

Ibuprofen

Referral to physio for active treatment program

Advise not to have prolonged bed rest

Return to work as soon as possible

Can use massage therapy

Advise to trial Yoga or Taichi or Pilates

Long term 5-10% weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Treatment for PMR - dosing.

A

prednis(ol)one 15 mg orally, daily for 4 weeks; then reduce daily dose by 2.5 mg every 4 weeks to 10 mg daily; then reduce daily dose by 1 mg every 4 to 8 weeks to stop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

For GCA, without evolving visual loss, list two steps of management. dosing if required.

A
  1. Urgent referral to ophthalmologist for treatment to prevent visual loss
  2. Start prednisolone 40-60mg, orally, for a minimum of 4 weeks

(3. Can start aspirin 100mg to prevent vascular thrombus)

If having visual loss will need IV glucocorticoids in hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Up to one third of abdominal pain presenting to GPractice has no cause.

Apart from surgical causes, what are non-abdominal causes of abdominal pain?

(6)

A

PE
MI
Pneumonia
Anxiety/depression
Lumbar spine pathology
Pelvic Pathology: ectopics ,ovarian torsion, fibroids, PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the elderly person with abdominal pain, what two things should you consider as serious diagnoses?

A

Mesenteric Artery occlusion

Leaking AAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What Imaging can you use to investigate Abdominal pain?

A

Right Upper Quadrant–> U/S

Right lower quadrant –> CT with IV contrast
Left Lower quadrant–> CT with oral and IV contrast

Suprapubic–> U/S

Right or Left lower quadrant pain in child bearing age females or pregnancy related concerns –> Abdominal U/S for LLQ or TVU/S for suspected ectopics or other pelvic pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In a frail elderly person with abdominal pain, who appears unwell, what is the appropriate management?

A

Consider sepsis, perforation, ischemic bowel.

answer: CT and hospitalisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In a 56 year old patient with flank pain and haematuria

1 What is the most likely diagnosis

  1. What is the diagnosis not to be missed
  2. What should you do
A
  1. Renal stone
  2. Ruptured AAA
    A ruptured AAA can tamponade and cause a normotensive BP. So you might not pick it up.
    Secondly the AAA can irritate the ureter and cause haematuria
  3. A new presumed diagnosis of “kidney stones,” in someone aged over 50 should prompt imaging of the Aorta.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aside from imaging, what investigations may you consider for abdominal pain?

A
  1. EUC
  2. FBC for infection
  3. CRP for inflammation
  4. LFTs- liver
  5. Lipase- pancreatitis (can be falsely elevated with mesenteric ischemia)
  6. urine MCS
  7. Urinanalysis
  8. Pregnancy test
  9. (ECG) if suspecting cardiac
  10. Fasting BGL or any BGL - ?DKA
  11. Venous Blood gas for lactate. ?ischemic bowel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain the appropriateness of imaging for different types of LBP?

A
  1. non specific LBP. unless red flags. do not image. If > 6 weeks then consider XRAY first line. If red flags MRI is preferrable
  2. Symptomatic Lumbar disc herniation. This is when a disc causes pain, usually radicular sharp and shooting. Radicular pain alone is not a red flag, but if combined with weakness, numbness or parasthesia then yes it is. If > 6 weeks then consider MRI.
  3. Symptomatic spinal canal stenosis. Usually bilateral pain from back (or not) to hips. Usually aggravating by walking (psuedoclaudication). This case definitely IMAGE. with MRI.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common cause for chest pain?

A

Musculoskeletal causes

Isolated MSK issues (costochondritis, lower rib pain syndrome)

Rheumatological Diseases: fibromyalgia, RA

Non-rheumatological systemic disease: Cancer/mets, Osteoporotic fracture, Sickle Cell disease (Rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What to ask regarding sleep patterns specifically?

A

Usual Bed time
Shift work
Time taken to fall asleep when lights out
Rough duration and amount of wakenings
Time patient gets out of bed
Any triggers that wake the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can impact a patient’s sleep?

A

Too much Caffiene
Alcohol
Nicotine
Exercise before bed
Period of stress/anxiety/depression
Television in the room
Pets/kids interrupting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When would you order a PSN (polysomnograph) for sleep?

A

Suspicious of Sleep Apnoea, treatment resistant insomnia, sleep related movement disorder and parasomnias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the components of CBT used for insomnia?

(4)

A
  1. Stimulus Control
    (removing all wakening triggers; phones, TVs, computers, light sources. And excluding sleep from living room)
  2. Sleep Restriction
  3. Relaxation techniques (imagery, biofeedback, mediation, hyponosis)
  4. Sleep hygiene
  5. Cognitive therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Medications that can be used for insomnia?

A

Melatonin- helps more with sleep onset time and delayed sleep phase disorder
2 mg orally, 60 to 120 minutes before bedtime for an initial period of 3 weeks then review. Melatonin may be continued for an additional 10 weeks.

Temazepam 10 to 20 mg orally, 30 minutes before bedtime for the shortest possible duration; preferably not on consecutive nights and for less than 2 weeks.

Zolpidem MR 5 to 10 mg orally, at bedtime for the shortest possible duration; preferably not on consecutive nights and for less than 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What points do you raise with a person when discussing sun protection?

A

Use sun protection when UV is > 3
Use of shade
Wide brimmed, legionnaire or bucket style hats
Protective clothing
Sunglasses

Use sunscreen with SPF > 30
Avoid the sun at peak times of the day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is there a screening for skin damage?

A

No specific recommendation

Ask patients to be self aware and familiar with their skin as well as be alert of new lesions

Anyone at high risk should have 3-6 monthly checks.
High risk: past/family history, sun damage, solarium use, fair skin/red hair, easily burnt, extensive sun exposure

Advise anyone over 10 to be sunsmart (not screening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Risk factors for hip and knee Osteoarthritis? (3)

A

age
joint injury
obesity and overweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can you can clinically diagnose knee Osteoarthritis?

(6)

A

If patient is >45 years

Activity related pain

Stiffness < 30 minutes in the morning

Crepitus on active ROM

Bony enlargement

No detectable warmth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the role of imaging with regards to Hip and Knee OA?

A

The diagnosis is clinical and imaging is not needed.

If other pathology is suspected then order imaging or if diagnosis is vague

Imaging for OA follow-up is recommended only if there are unexpected rapid progression of symptoms or change
in clinical characteristics that need to be confirmed (eg increasing severity of OA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In management of hip or knee OA, what has strong recommendations?

only 2

A
  1. Land based exercises: walking and muscle strengthening exercise
  2. Weight management for BMI < 25
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are some conditional recommendations for management of hip and knee OA?

(up to 11)

A
  1. CBT best combined with exercise
  2. Stationery cycling or hatha yoga can be offered to some persons
  3. Aquatic exercises. can be offered. Can refer to an exercise physiologist
  4. Massage therapies
  5. Adjunctive stretching therapies
  6. Topical heat application
  7. Assisted walking devices to help with mobility
  8. TENS
  9. NSAIDs short courses
  10. Duloxetine (no TGA approval)
  11. Corticosteroid injection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What not to do (in terms of treatment) for hip/knee OA?

evidence base: strongly not recommended.

(5)

A
  1. opioids of any form
  2. doxycycline
  3. Strontium ranelate
  4. IL inhibitors
  5. Arthroscopic lavage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are red flag features for neck pain and why?

(5)

A
  1. Significant trauma: MVA - disruption of the cervical spine
  2. History of RA (atlanto-axial disruption)
  3. Infective symptoms: meningism, fever, history of drug use
    - abscess, meningitis, mycotic aneurysms
  4. Neurology (of upper motor neuron problems) :
    - Cervical cord compression, demyelinating process
  5. Ripping/tearing neck pain sensation - arterial (carotid/vertebral dissection)
  6. Concurrent chest pain/cardiac features - MI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acute neck pain is classified as _______ _____ ______. (Length of time)

The prognosis is generally _______.

A

under 6 weeks,

Good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the sub-acute and chronic definitions for neck pain?

A

Acute < 6 weeks

Sub acute 6 weeks to 6 months

Chronic > 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are two important predictors of chronic neck pain prognosis in whiplash injuries?

A
  1. Initial severity of the pain
  2. If there is a compensation claim simultaneously
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Somatic neck pain can be superficial or deep.

Superficial pain from the skin is usually sharp and well defined.

Deep somatic pain is usually dull and achy, and more generalised.

Neither of these are ‘radicular pain’

what are causes of deep somatic neck pain?

A
  1. Spondylosis (though this can be difficult to diagnose at the cause as XRAY findings and level of pain don’t correlate well)
  2. Discogenic. prolapse of the nucleus pulposus
  3. Facet joint pain
  4. Myofascial pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is radicular pain?

A

pain that radiates along a sensory distribution.

Usually sharp and cutting and has parasthesia or dysathesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Causes of radicular neck (or even lower back) pain?

(2 main groups)

A

spondylotic myelopathy - degenerative changes that narrow the spinal canal, resulting in neurological compromise.

Cervical radiculopathy- causes are predominantly degenerative and include foraminal stenosis, such as those imparted by osteophyte encroachment from spondylosis. Another common cause includes posterolateral cervical disc herniation, compromising abutting exiting nerve roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are yellow flags?

A

yellow flags are psychosocial factors that are predictive of chronicity and disability with regard to any disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are they yellow flags with regard to neck pain?

(4)

A
  1. Attitude that the spinal pain is potentially severely disabling
  2. Social or financial problems
  3. Reduced activity levels
  4. Presence of a compensation claim

Addressing some of these yellow flags may help to reduce the risk of acute neck pain progressing to sub-acute and even a chronic temporal pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What to note on examination of the neck in neck pain?

(3 main points)

A

Inspection - posture, scars, muscle bulk, symmetry

Palpation - midline tenderness (could be sinister)

Neurological exam- movement and sensation of the upper limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are indications for imaging (with an MRI) for neck pain?

(6)

A
  1. Age > 50 with new symptoms
  2. Systemic features: weight loss, fevers/night sweats, anorexia
  3. Infection risk (IVDU, immnosuppressed)
  4. Moderate to severe pain lastin g> 6 weeks
  5. neurological findings
  6. History of malignancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

With neck pain, if there is associated extremity pain (due to nerves involved) that is worse than the neck pain itself, other than an MRI, what else could you consider?

A

A nerve conduction study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Management for non-critical causes for neck pain?

(3)

A
  1. Poor evidence but essentially manual therapy/physio for the neck
  2. Non opioid analgesics in the short term
  3. Addressing yellow flags (psychological barriers) in regards to the neck pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When can a GP refer for MRI with regards to neck pain?

A

when patient is > 16 y.o and concerned about cervical radiculopathy

also 16+ and for cervical trauma however, CT is better and recognising fractures- but if worried about ligaments or spinal cord this can be done.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the chronological classification of a cough?

(3)

A

acute < 3 weeks

Sub acute 3-8 weeks

Chronic > 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the red flags with regards to a cough?

(up to 7)

A
  1. Haemoptysis
  2. Smoker
    a. 20 pack year history with a new cough
    b. > 45 yo with new cough or altered voice
  3. Prominent dysponoea at night
  4. Hoarseness
  5. Systemic features (weight loss, appetite loss, fever, oedema, vomiting)
  6. GORD with associated weight loss, haematemesis or melena, dysphagia or odophygia
  7. GORD not responding to treatment
  8. LRTI - recurrent
  9. Abnormal respiratory exam or CXR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When do you suspect pertussis with regards to a chronic cough?

A

Cough longer than 3 months

Paroxysms of coughing (coughing fit)

No fevers

Coughing to the point of needing to vomit

Inspiratory Whoop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the most common causes of a chronic cough?

A

-Post viral cough

-GORD

-Asthma

-Upper airway cough syndrome (post nasal drip or perceived post nasal discharge)

The bottom three make up 90% of the causes for chronic cough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is acute bronchitis?

A

Acute cough of less than 14 days duration and at least 1 other symptom of a respiratory infection:

such as symptoms of URTI, sore throat,
sputum production, dyspnoea, wheeze, chest
pain, for which there is no other explanation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What management is recommended/ not recommended for acute bronchitis?

A
  1. Do not prescribe antibiotics
  2. Does not need a CXR on suspicion of acute bronchitis alone
  3. Reassure that it is self limiting
  4. Educate that it can take 8 weeks to settle / set realistic expectation of time frame
  5. Set a review in 3 weeks if no improvement at all, or worseninng
  6. CAN use inhaled fluticasone propionate in those who DO NOT smoke. Only this steroid was studied.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are some general management options including medications (no dosing required) in dealing with a chronic cough?

(4)

A
  1. Avoid triggers: exposure to cold dry air, smoking and air pollution
  2. Vocal hygiene- helps reduce laryngeal irritation.
  3. Use an active cycle of breathing for sputum clearance
  4. Inhaled steroids - only really useful if the person has asthma.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

After initiating therapy for weight loss, when should you first plan a follow up?

A

2 weeks ideally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the most recent statistics on overweight and obesity in Australia?

A

25% of children in Australia are either overweight or obese (17% overweight + 8 % obese)

67% of adults are either overweight or obese (1/3 of all adults were overweight, 1/3 were obese and 1/9 of all adults are severely obese).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the 5 A’s framework?

A

Ask
Assess
Advice
Agree
Assist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is important when trying to encourage behaviour change, be it smoking cessation or weight loss, etc. ?

A

Use patient centered language
e.g. instead of Ask as the first step in the 5As, maybe “seek permission”

Use a person centered approach

Acknowledge the important of a strong therapeutic relationship

Recognising that using the 5A approach, when asking and assessing the patient may not be ready to move onto the next steps of advise/agree/assist

51
Q

What are approved pharmacotherapies for weight loss?

A
  1. Phentermine
  2. Contrave (bupropion/naltrexone)
  3. Orlistat (this is the only TGA approved and PBS funded medication for weight loss)
  4. Saxenda (Liraglutide).
52
Q

What is the general tGA requirements for all current approved weight loss pharmacotherapy?

A

if BMI> 30 or BMI between 27-30 with weight related complication (HTN, diabetes, lipids)

(For phentermine BMI of >25 with related morbidity is ok. )

53
Q

Under what condition should Saxenda be discontinued beyond 12 weeks?

A

According to the tGA

Treatment with Saxenda should be discontinued after 12 weeks on the 3.0 mg/day
dose if a patient has not lost at least 5% of their initial body weight.

54
Q

What comprises of the “Top Ten Tips” for weight control

(10)

A

Keep to your meal routine

Go for reduced fat

Walk off the weight: approx 10000 steps a day or 60-90 minutes of moderate intensity exercise

Pack a healthy snack (beware of sugar content in yoghurts, muesli and fat content in cheese)

Learn the labels

Caution the portions (don’t heap food on a plate)

Up on your feet (reduce sedentary behaviour, at the least 10 minutes of walking/being up every 1 hour)

Think about beverages. choose water first

Focus on your food, don’t eat on the go or infront of the TV

Don’t forget vegetables

55
Q

What are the main points to note in examination when assessing head injury?

(6)

A
  1. Gaze disturbances
  2. Pupillary reflexes
  3. Gross motor and sensation in the limbs
  4. Postural instability: gait, rombergs test
  5. Auditory processing. (observe how they respond)
  6. Neurocognitive: basic orientation Time, place, person, what they were doing at the time. “MADDOCKS QUESTIONS” - very sport specific.
56
Q

What is the recommended time frame for return to school / work activities in a young person after a concussion?

A
  1. Acute rest phase 2 days minimum up to- 5 days
    Shouldn’t need more than 3 days off school
    No cognitive activity for 2-3 days. Complete cognitive rest at home including screen/TV time

Move onto next stage if no headache for a full day

  1. Relative rest phase 5-7 days
    Might still be symptomatic but can tolerate at least 30 minutes of concentration. Build up to 3 half days. no sport in recess
  2. Graduated exertion phase 7-14 days
    No medications needed to treat concussion related symptoms. Return to full school program by the end of it.
57
Q

When can a young person return to sport after a concussion?

What is the likely fastest time to return to full game play if initially symptomatic?

concussion being defined as mildly symptomatic minor head injury.

A

They can only return to sport after returning to school.

Sport progression:

6 steps, with 24 hours between each step after that.
day 1- no rest
day 2 -light aerobic
day 3 - sport specific exercise no overhead or lifting
day 4 - non contact sport drills
day 5 -full contact practice
day6- full contact sport / return to normal

Going back to a full cognitive load at school can take up to 14 ‘school’ days.

Only after this can they start the sports progression. Which can take 7 days.

58
Q

What are high risk groups that need antibiotics for a sore throat?

A

patients aged 2 to 25 years from populations with a high incidence of acute rheumatic fever (

Those with existing rheumatic fever

Those with scarlet fever

Also recommended for patients with severe symptoms of pharyngitis (eg patients requiring hospitalisation, patients with severe throat pain or dysphagia

59
Q

What should be done prior to any antibiotic administration?

A

A throat swab PCR and bacterial MCS
(2 swabs)

60
Q

What is a recommended time from for follow up for a sore throat, if symptoms are not improving, with or preferably without antibiotics

A

3-7 days or sooner if worsening

61
Q

Empiric antibiotic for a sore throat?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin 500mg, orally, 12 hourly for 10 days
(child 15mg/kg up to 500mg)

Do not use amoxicillin as it is too broad spectrum

62
Q

If a patient is unlikely to adhere to a 10 day course of antibiotics for a sore throat what can be done?

A

IM Benzathine penicillin as a single dose

63
Q

For A sore throat what medication can be given instead of penicillin if there is …
a. a delayed non severe reaction to penicillin?
b. a severe penicillin reaction?

A

a. Cephalexin 1gram 12 hourly, orally, for 10 days.
(Child: 25mg/kg up to 1g)

b. Azithromycin 500mg, daily orally for 5 days
(child 12mg/kg up to 500mg)

64
Q

What are 5 steps you can take in shared decision making about antibiotics?

A
  1. Reassure that condition is unlikely to change much with antibiotics e.g. sore throats usually don’t respond any faster (maybe 1 day difference)
  2. Explore their ideas and concerns about it
  3. Give options for treatment. e.g. expectant, analgesia, anti-inflammatory, antibiotic
  4. Risks and benefits of the antibiotic: side effects- diarrhoea, resistance.
  5. Make a decision
65
Q

What are clinical features of a GAS throat infection?

(5)

A

Fever > 38
Tender Cervical lymphadenopathy
Tonsillar exudate
ABSENCE of a cough
Rhinorrhoea or nasal congestion

66
Q

What is scarlet fever?
What is the recommended treatment?

A

It is a common cause of a sore throat in those aged 5- 15 years old.

Usually caused by streptococcus pyogenes.

Has a distinct rash.

Treatment is primarily supportive. Does not need antibiotics unless patient is in a high risk group (in another question).

67
Q

In a severe sore throat, not responding to simple analgesia, what can be used?

A

dexamethasone 0.15 to 0.6 mg/kg (max 10 mg) oral/IV/IM as a single dose

or

prednisolone 1 mg/kg (max 50 mg) oral as a single dose

68
Q

After a sore throat caused by an EBV infection, what 2 specific points of advice is needed?

A
  1. Fatigue can last for months
  2. Avoid contact sports for about 4 weeks (as EBV can cause spleen enlargement and predisposes to rupture)- still rare and occurs in 0.5% of cases.
69
Q

What tests, and why, should you order when suspecting EBV as a cause for a sore throat?

A

Need a serology for EBV detection not a throat swab PCR

Also order FBC with blood film to detect for haemolytic anaemia if for some reason the spleen is affected.

70
Q

What are some red flag clinical features that may require hospitalisation for a sore throat

A
  1. Drooling
  2. Muffled voice
  3. trismus (restricted jaw ROM)
  4. Neck swelling
  5. Stridor
  6. Respiratory distress
  7. unilateral throat pain
  8. Signs of airway compromise
  9. Signs of septic shock
71
Q

What are specific sore throat conditions that NEED HOSPITAL

A

Acute epiglottitis
Retropharyngeal abscess
SEVERE EBV infection
SEVERE croup
Peritonsillar abscess and peritonsillar cellulitis
Pharyngeal diphtheria

72
Q

What are adjuvant treatments for neuropathic pain?

(3)

A

Gabapentinoids

TCAs

SSRIs, SNRIs

73
Q

From the following list, which medications can be considered for treating neuropathic pain

A. Anti-epileptics:
B. Cannabinoids
C. Topical capsaicin
D. Clonidine
E. Ketamine
F. Lidocaine systemic or topical

A

A. gabapentinoids can be, others like carbemazepine can be used in trigeminal neuralgia, lamotrigine to only used by specialists

B. Cannabinoids are currently only indicated for spasticity in MS. Otherwise there is no evidence for use and is not currently recommended. Also products have no clear pharmaceutical profile and are not regulated

C. Capsaicin (low dose) can be used for MSK pain. but is no better than placebo for chronic neuropathic pain. Higher dose capsaicin has some efficacy but is not licensed for use in Australia- would need the special access scheme

D. Clonidine. Specialist only

E. Ketamine. Does work. Not licensed for use in Australia.

F. Lidocaine systemic - can be used. but preferably by practitioners experienced with use. Best for post operative or cancer pains

Lidocaine topical - is useful. used for post herpetic neuralgia. Easy to use for elderly or frail patients.

73
Q

From the following list, which medications can be considered for treating neuropathic pain

A. Anti-epileptics
B. Cannabinoids
C. Topical capsaicin
D.

A
74
Q

What is the drug of choice for acute neuropathic pain?

A

A gabapentinoid.

e.g.
Pregabalin. 25-75mg, orally, at night initially increasing to twice a day over 3-7 days. Continue to increase dosing every 3-7 days up to a max of 600mg (total) a day.

Gabapentin 100mg- 300mg, orally at night. Same instructions, max dose: 3.6 grams

75
Q

What are second line options for neuropathic pain?

A

SNRIs

e.g duloxetine 30mg, oral, in the morning up to 120mg (day), increase every 7 days

or venlafaxine 37.5mg orally, daily, increasing every 7 days up to 225mg.

TCAs

e.g Amitriptyline 5- 12.5mg, orally, at night, increasing as needed every 7 days up to a total of 150mg at night.

76
Q

What findings on history/exam identifies neuropathic pain

(4)

A
  1. Pain description as shocks/burning
  2. Allodynia or hyperalgesia on examination
  3. Motor or sensory deficits in the painful area
  4. consistency between the area in which the pain is experienced and the innervation area of the affected neural structure.
77
Q

What and when is treatment for this indicated?

A

This is Shingles. Reactivation of herpes Zoster virus.

treatment is indicated if

adults and adolescents who present within 72 hours of onset of rash,

And for all

immunocompromised adults and adolescents (including those with HIV infection) regardless of duration of rash.

78
Q

What is first and second line treatment for anti-virals to treat shingles?

A

Famciclovir 500 mg, orally, 8 hourly for 7 days. (10 days duration for immunocompromised)
(better at preventing post herpetic pain)

Second line, and if in children or pregnant women:
Aciclovir 800mg (20mg/kg), orally, 5 times a day for 7 days.

79
Q

Post herpetic pain is common after a shingles infection. What can be used for mild pain?

A

lidocaine 5% patch, up to 3 patches applied at the same time to the painful area (after shingles has healed). Wear for up to 12 hours, followed by a patch-free interval

Do not apply to broken skin

80
Q

What can be used for moderate to severe pain if you have utilised paracetamol, NSAIDs and topical patches?

A

prednisolone 50 mg orally, in the morning for 7 days

81
Q

For severe shingles pain, when you’ve exhausted the topical lidocaine, paracetamol, NSAIDs and prednisolone, what else can be done?

A

In this case it is reasonable to consider an opioid short term.

Tramadol or Tapentadol IR
both: 50-100mg, orally, 4-6 hourly as needed (max 400mg/day)

Pregabalin or Gabapentin are also appropriate.

82
Q

Non pharmacological management of hypertension?

(7)

A
  1. Regular aerobic exercise 150 minutes / week moderate intensity
  2. Smoking cessation
  3. Reducing alcohol
  4. Moderate sodium restriction
  5. Healthy diet such a mediterranean diet
  6. Weight reduction
  7. Treatment of OSA
83
Q

What are three first line drug classes for treating hypertension?

A

ACEi, or ARBs

Dihydropiridine CCB (amlodipine, lercandipine)

Thiazide and Thiazide like diuretics (HCT)

84
Q

Give dosing instructions for an ACEi and ARB for blood pressure?

A

Perindopril arginine 5- 10mg, orally, daily

Perindopril erbumine 4-8mg, orally, daily

Candersartan 8-32mg, orally, daily

Irbesartan 150-300mg, orally, daily

Telmisartan 40-80mg, orally, daily.

85
Q

When is it advisable to START anti-hypertensive medication?

A

when there is a high cardiovascular risk > 15%

If there is a moderate risk 10-15% but any of:
family hx of premature CVD
ABTSI
BP raised consistently >160/100

If there is a low risk (<10%) but BP is consistently > 160/100mmHg even with lifestyle advice.

86
Q

If one BP drug doesn’t work at the initial dosing what should be done next?

A

First add another low dose of another drug

If still not adequate then increase strength of one of the two drugs

If still not adequate add a low dose of third drug

87
Q

what are secondary causes of hypertension?

(5)

A

Chronic Kidney Disease
Renal Artery Stenosis
Thyroid disease
Adrenal disease specifically primary hyperaldosteronism.
OSA

88
Q

What should you do for a person with a BP of 190/100 but are not symptomatic?

A

Does not need emergency treatment

Assess for risk factors and send to hospital if indicated (e.g. coaguloatphy, CKD, aneurysms, recent vascular procedures)

No urgency to start a new drug until investigated

Investigate for secondary causes

Follow up in a few days maximum

For BP >220/140 send to E.D for work up and management.

89
Q

Investigations for BP > 180/100

A

LFTs
EUC + kidney function
Urinanalysis
ECG
?U/S renal arteries or CT angio (better option)

90
Q

What are systemic cause of bilateral oedema?

A

Allergic reaction to drugs or other

Cardiac disease

Hepatic Disease

Renal Disease

Poor protein absorption/intake

Pregnancy

OSA

91
Q

What are localised (or unilateral) causes of pitting odema?

A

Cellulitis

DVT

Compartment syndrome

Lipedema (accumulation of fluid in adipose)

Lymphoedema - post surgery, tumour, trauma, radiation

92
Q

Describe three things you are seeing on examination that support venous insufficiency?

A

Varicose veins in the feet

Venous stasis ulcer

Haemosiderin deposition

93
Q

For this condition , what antibiotic would you use?

No systemic features, no ulcers or penetrating lesions.

What about if delayed non severe reaction to penicillin?

Or if severe penicillin reaction?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin 500mg, oral, 6 hourly, 5 days.

Or
Cephalexin 500mg, oral, 6 hourly, 5 days

If severe reaction
Clindamycin 450mg oral, 8 hourly, 5 days

94
Q

For Cellulitis with an ulcer or penetrating lesion, what empiric antibiotic should you chose?

Or if staph. aureus is suspected

Second line if non severe reaction to penicillin?

A

flucloxacillin or dicloxacillin 500mg, oral, 6 hourly, 5 days.

Second:
Cephelaxin 500mg, oral, 6 hourly, for 5 days

95
Q

What dietary advice should be given to those with raised cholesterol?

A
  1. Replace transfats altogether in the diet
  2. Reduce intake of saturated fat
  3. Increase soluble fibre intake
  4. Introducing plant sterol-enriched milk, margarine or cheese (this is the most effective measure at reducing LDL)
96
Q

What medication can you start if initial statin therapy is not enough to lower cholesterol?

What would you start if triglyceride elevation was the primary concern?

A
  1. Ezitimibe 10mg, oral daily
  2. Fenofibrate, oral, daily dosing (depends on eGFR but if > 60 then 140mg)

PLUS fish oil equivalent of 2-4 mg of OMEGA-3 Fatty acids, oral, daily

97
Q

What is the DLCN criteria? What can contribute to points?

A

Dutch lipid Clinical network diagnostic criteria for familial hypercholesterolemia.

patient with premature CAD 2points
Acrus corneileus 4 points
Tendon Xanthomata 6 points
LDL > 8.5 6 points
LDL 6.5-8.5 is 4 points

You need MORE than 8 points for a definite diagnosis and between 6-8 for a probably.

98
Q

What is a coronary calcium score and who should get it?

A

It is a CT scan of coronary arteries that looks at calcium deposition.

Usually for those who have low CVD risk but with risk factors (over 40 and ABTSI, 40-60 with diabetes, family history of premature CAD), or for those with an intermediate CVD risk (10-15%).

Most useful in guiding statin therapy.

99
Q

What structure/algorithm can you use to help assess a pigmented skin lesion when using a dermatoscope?

When might this structure/algorithm not be useful?

A

“Chaos and Clues”

This begins by looking at symmetry, however some symmetrical lesions can still be malignant. So don’t always rely on this.

100
Q

Which pigmented lesions, that appear symmetrical should be considered for a biopsy?

A
  1. a changing lesion
  2. any lesion on head or neck with a dermatoscopic grey appearance
  3. A NODULAR pigmented lesion
  4. Any pigmented acral lesion
101
Q

What are the 8 “clues” when assessing a pigmented lesion?

A
  1. Eccentric structureless area
  2. Thick reticular lines or branches
  3. Grey or blue structures
  4. Black dots or clods, peripherally
  5. Radial lines, psuedopods or segmental lines
  6. White lines
  7. Polymorphous vessels
  8. Acral ridge lesions or chaotic nails
102
Q

Which “clues” are these showing?

A
  1. eccentric structureless
  2. Blue clods

5a and b. Radial central lines

  1. White lines
  2. Polymorphous vessels
103
Q

Is this a suspicious pigmented lesion?

A

Yes.

It is “chaotic” i.e. not symmetrical.

104
Q

Screening the general population for B12 deficiency is not recommended.

Which groups of people might you consider testing?

(7)

A
  1. Those with small intestine or gastric resections
  2. Bowel disease: Inflammatory bowel disease, tapeworm.
  3. Use of metformin > 4 months
  4. Use of a PPI or antihistamine (H2 blockers) > 12 months
  5. Those aged over 75
  6. Vegans or strict vegetarians
  7. Alcohol abuse (inadequate intake)
105
Q

What foods have b12?

A

fish, meat, dairy products, fortified cereals and supplements.

106
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency affects __(a)___ systems, and sequelae vary in severity from mild fatigue to severe __(b)___ impairment.

Symptoms typically include being easily __(c)__ with exertion, palpitations, and skin __(d)__.

Bone marrow suppression is common and potentially affects all cell lines, with megaloblastic anemia being most common.

Neurologic manifestations are caused by progressive demyelination and can include ___(e)__ ____, areflexia, and the loss of ___(f)___ and vibratory sense.

Dementia-like disease, including episodes of __(g)__, is possible with more severe and chronic deficiency.

A

a. multiple

b. neurological

c. fatigued

d. pallor

e. peripheral neuropathy

f. proprioception

g. psychosis

107
Q

What are the most likely causes of fatigue?

(4)

A
  1. Depression/Anxiety
  2. Stress (work related, family etc)
  3. Post viral infection
  4. sleep related disorders (including: OSA, insomnia, shift work)
108
Q

What are SERIOUS causes of fatigue?

(6)

A
  1. Malignancy
  2. Anaemia - this is not a disease itself. So it might be something as benign as poor iron intake or as sinister as a malignancy
  3. Cardiac arrhythmias
  4. HIV, Hep C
  5. Occult bacterial infection
  6. Haemochromatosis
109
Q

Apart from the 4 most common causes of fatigue (depression, stress, sleep, osa, and post-viral) and the more serious causes (arrhythmias, malignancy, anaemia, HIV, HH), what are some endocrine and metabolic related causes?

(4)

A
  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Renal failure
  4. Metabolic conditions (very vague)

also coeliac disease and OSA (though that falls under sleep)

110
Q

What are red flag features, when faced with a presentation of fatigue?

A

Think about the serious causes

  1. Lymphadopathy HIV? Lymphoma?
  2. Unintentional weight loss - various
  3. Fever- infection
  4. SOB- arrhythmia or pulmonary infection, heart failure, COPD
  5. Recent onset or progression of cardiovascular, gastroenterological, neurological or rheumatological symptoms: HH, RA, SLE
  6. Abnormal bleeding anywhere
111
Q

What would you examine in someone presenting with tiredness/fatigue/lethargy?

(9)

A
  1. Vital signs
  2. Body habitus, weight, WC
  3. General appearance ?anaemic ?jaundice ?dehydrated
  4. Mental health questionnaires
  5. Cardiovascular respiratory
  6. Abdominal - massess
  7. Lymphadenopathy
  8. thyroid exam
  9. OSA assessment includes, neck and waist circumference and ESS
112
Q

Initial investigations appropriate for lethargy?

(7)

A
  1. FBC
  2. EUC
  3. LFT
  4. ESR/CRP
  5. Fasting BGL
  6. TSH
  7. Ferritin

can order others depending on clinical suspicion
example urine ACR for kidney disease or MCS or PCRs for infections, imaging if exam indicates the need.

113
Q

What are important points to elicit on history of haemoptysis?

(9)

A
  1. Associated SOB
  2. Associated weight loss
  3. Associated fevers
  4. Work exposure e.g. asbestos, wood dusts, silica
  5. Environmental exposure to high air pollutants.
  6. Chest or shoulder pain
  7. Hoarseness of voice.
  8. Active or passive smoking
  9. family history of lung cancer
114
Q

What is ‘conservative’ management for haemorrhoids?

And which grades of haemorrhoids does it apply to?

A
  1. Relieving constipation. Usually by increasing fibre intake.
  2. Can use mild laxatives
  3. Avoid medications that cause constipation e.g. codeine.

This works best for first degree haemorrhoids, but is applied to all four degrees of haemorrhoids

115
Q

What are the grades of haemorrhoids, and their treatments?

A

Grade 1. Bleeding, with no prolapse
Grade 2. Bleeding and prolapse that reduces after defecation
Grade 3. Bleeding and prolapse that has to be manually reduced. Painful if large .
Grade 4. irreducible prolapse. Usually thrombosed.

Treatment on flowchart

116
Q

What are the two main aspects of symptomatic management for this?

A
  1. Avoiding constipation: fibre, stool softeners
  2. Local anaesthetic topical application
  3. Local GTN Application- advise not to get onto normal skin and expect a headache. Alternatively a topical calcium channel antagonist (diltiazem can be used)
117
Q

What is the first line treatment, for cellulitis without systemic features. Non purulent but rapid spreading.

A

First line
phenoxymethylpenicillin 500 mg (child: 12.5 mg/kg up to 500 mg) orally, 6-hourly for 5 days

If delayed and non severe hypersensitivity
cefalexin 500 mg (child: 12.5 mg/kg up to 500 mg) orally, 6-hourly for 5 days.

If immediate or severe hypersensitivity
clindamycin 450 mg (child: 10 mg/kg up to 450 mg) orally, 8-hourly for 5 days

118
Q

For purulent cellulitis (eg associated abscess, furuncle), or if S. aureus is suspected based on clinical presentation (eg penetrating trauma, associated ulcer) what can you use:

A

dicloxacillin 500 mg (child: 12.5 mg/kg up to 500 mg) orally, 6-hourly for 5 days. (or flucloxaxillin)

For delayed non severe hypersensitivity
cefalexin 500 mg (child: 12.5 mg/kg up to 500 mg) orally, 6-hourly for 5 days.

For immediate or severe hypersensitivity
trimethoprim+sulfamethoxazole 160+800 mg (child 1 month or older: 4+20 mg/kg up to 160+800 mg) orally, 12-hourly for 5 days

119
Q

What is the STOPBANG questionnaire used for?
What does it compromise off?

(1)

(9)

A

It is used to SCREEN for Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).

S- snoring
T- tiredness
O- observed aponoas
P- high blood pressure

B- BMI > 35
A- Age > 50
N- neck circumference > 40cm
G- gender, male

A score of 3 or more can indicate OSA
Though the MBS rebate requires a score of at least 4 for a sleep study.
The higher the cut off value the more specific the test is, but the less sensitive.

120
Q

What to address with a patient, when managing obstructive sleep apnoea?

(5)

A
  1. Workplace and driving safety
  2. Obesity if relevant (usually is)
  3. Hypertension
  4. Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
  5. Depression
121
Q

When a sleep study returns it usually comes back with an AHI and P90, for assessment of severity.

What do these measure, and what are the cut offs

(2)

(2)

A

AHI- apnoea hypoapnoea index.
apnoea; The amount of time not breathing > 10 seconds,
hypoapnoea; reduction in airflow for > 10 seconds causing a saturation dip or waking from sleep

usually anything > 5 events is diagnostic
> 15 events is usually severe

P90- time of total sleep spent with oxygen saturations dipping below 90%.
1-5% can indicate OSA
>5% is usually severe

122
Q

The following symptoms might indicate?

-morning headaches
-dry throat
-poor concentration
-reduced libido
-fatigue

A

Obstructive sleep apnoea